Medical Records Management Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Medical Records Management explores the principles and practices involved in the organization, maintenance, and protection of health information. The course covers the lifecycle of medical records, including creation, classification, storage, retrieval, retention, and disposal, while emphasizing the importance of confidentiality, accuracy, and legal compliance. Students will learn about contemporary electronic health record (EHR) systems, data security measures, privacy regulations such as HIPAA, and the role of recordkeeping in patient care, billing, research, and healthcare administration. Practical exercises cultivate proficiency in both manual and digital record management, preparing students for roles in medical offices, hospitals, and health information departments.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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51 Chapters
4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4196
Sample Questions
Q1) Sensitivity to the individual needs and reactions of patients
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: E
Q2) Once you have decided on a solution to the problem, it is essential to __________ the outcomes of your solution and decide whether it solved the problem or whether another approach should be tried.
Answer: evaluate
Evaluating the outcome of the attempted solution helps determine whether it is the correct one or whether an alternate solution should be tried.
Q3) Describe three strategies that can help you become successful at taking tests. Answer: Prepare adequately, control negative thoughts during test time, and understand how to manage different types of questions.
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organizations became the most famous medical school in the world in the 1800s?
A) Royal Society of London
B) General Medical Council of Britain
C) Geneva Medical College
D) Johns Hopkins University
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following agencies, founded in 1939, is a nationally recognized certification agency for multiple allied health professionals?
A) NHA
B) AMT
C) AAMA
D) CAAHEP
Answer: B
Q3) Holistic refers to the individual parts of the body rather than all of its systems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Checking personal e-mail several times a day in the medical office is always acceptable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q2) An RMA credential is awarded by which of the following?
A) AAMA
B) AMA
C) AMT
D) AMS
Answer: C
Q3) The medical assistant who states, "That's not in my job description," is not practicing
Answer: teamwork
The professional medical assistant must be willing to perform duties outside the formal job description if he or she is needed in another part of the office.
Q4) The name of the AAMA's bimonthly journal is __________.
Answer: CMA Today
The AAMA publishes CMA Today.
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
A) What is the name of your insurance carrier?
B) What is your date of birth?
C) How have you been getting along?
D) What pharmacy do you prefer?
Q2) Which statement is false with regard to the interpretation of gestures and body language that you may encounter among the patients in a medical setting?
A) They are less significant than verbal communication.
B) They vary widely in meaning.
C) Knowledge of them will influence patient relations.
D) They may require special accommodations.
Q3) It is always helpful to have a(n) ____________ staff member to communicate with patients who speak another language.
Q4) Which of the following involves repeating the main idea of the conversation while also identifying the sender's feelings?
A) Restatement
B) Reflection
C) Clarification
D) Listening
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respondeat superior is a Latin term meaning
A) "Let the master answer."
B) "Buyer, beware."
C) "The thing speaks for itself."
D) "Respond as soon as possible."
Q2) A power of __________ allows one person to act on behalf of another.
Q3) Which of the following is not a type of civil law?
A) Misdemeanor
B) Administrative
C) Tort
D) Contract
Q4) Public medical facilities must allow individuals with disabilities to easily and safely
A) enter and exit buildings.
B) use drinking fountains.
C) move from floor to floor.
D) All of the above
Q5) A patient's medical record is considered to be __________ evidence.
Q6) In a(n) __________ case, guilt must be proven beyond a reasonable doubt.
Q7) Failure to perform a duty is called __________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician committed to saving life and relieving suffering may sometimes find those two goals ______________.
Q2) The prime objective of the medical profession is to A) heal patients.
B) render service to humanity.
C) make money.
D) All of the above
Q3) __________ are defined as claims that a person or group makes on society.
Q4) The tendency of something or someone to act in a certain manner under given circumstances is called
A) idealism.
B) introspection.
C) disposition.
D) veracity.
Q5) The earliest written code of ethics was
A) the Oath of Hippocrates.
B) the AMA Code of Ethics.
C) the Code of Hammurabi.
D) Percival's Code of Medical Ethics.
Q6) A devotion to or conformity with the truth is called ____________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electronic medical record makes the physician's office more efficient and patient information more accessible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cipher text is another name for which of the following?
A) Decryption data
B) Encrypted data
C) Firewall
D) Audit trail
Q3) Identify the error(s) in the following inside address: Jane Miller
14412 East Lake Drv.
Tallahassee, Florida 34101
A) Personal title
B) Street abbreviations
C) Comma between city and state
D) State
E) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Disseminated
B) Desseminated
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) All sales calls are an interruption to the physician's day.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transferring a call to a staff member without announcing the caller's name is considered unprofessional.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The medical assistant who answers the telephone in the physician's office performs _____________ to determine whether a call needs to be put through to the physician immediately or a message should be taken.
Q4) Office policy must dictate that medical assistants can give __________ results to patients before they perform this task (unless this is prohibited in their state).
Q5) Patients should always be given an exact time that the physician will return a call.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Message books should be kept in the medical office at least until the __________________ runs out.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Journals for physicians may not be displayed as reading material in the reception area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Periodically, ____________ calls will necessitate rescheduling of appointments.
Q3) Many medical offices are not concerned enough about the _________________ aspect of the practice.
Q4) Outpatient testing is no longer common for physicians.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A thing that is necessary to achieve an end or to carry out a function is called a(n)
Q6) Medical assistants are not allowed to take the patient's personal and family histories.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Sign-in sheets should not list the __________ for the patient's office visit.
Q8) Something conducive to comfort, convenience, or enjoyment is called a(n)
Q9) An unexpected event that throws a plan into disorder is called a ______________.
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inventories of computer hardware, calculators, and copiers for tax purposes are
A) deducted as a practice expense for the year in which they are purchased.
B) depreciated over 2 years.
C) depreciated over 5 years.
D) depreciated over 7 years.
Q2) What is the main reason for acute back injuries?
A) Reaching, twisting, or bending when lifting
B) Lifting items too heavy for the back to support
C) Bad body mechanics when lifting
D) Poor footing or constrained posture
Q3) A(n) ___________ is an itemized list of goods shipped that shows the balance due and any transactions that affect the account.
Q4) An ordered item that has not been delivered when promised or demanded but will be supplied at a later date is said to be
A) backordered.
B) front-ordered.
C) on hold.
D) circumvented.
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Q5) Thieves usually approach a physician's office to steal money or ____________.
Chapter 11: The Health Record
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128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match the PHR acronym with all the appropriate definitions. (Select all that apply.)
A) Electronic record of health-related information
B) Defined by the ONC
C) Created and managed by authorized clinicians and staff from more than one healthcare organization
D) Conforms to nationally recognized interoperability standards
E) Can be drawn from multiple sourcesf. Managed, shared, and controlled by the individual
F) Created and managed by authorized clinicians and staff within a single healthcare organization
Q2) Numeric filing provides extra confidentiality to medical records.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The computer-based record has no disadvantages, whereas the paper-based record has numerous disadvantages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Remember that all backup systems need __________ to run.
Q5) __________ information is observed by the physician.
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following codes will be used for a patient with a history of myocardial infarction with no symptoms but diagnosed by means of an electrocardiogram?
A) Category I21
B) Code I25.2
C) Code I21.3
D) None of the above
Q2) Main terms appear in bold type.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Babies are considered newborn or perinatal for the first ______ days.
A) 30
B) 29
C) 28
D) 27
Q4) The codes for pernicious anemia and a vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency are the same.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The cause of a disorder is its __________.
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) An eponym will be used in which of the following CPT divisions?
A) Alphabetic index
B) Tabular list
C) Category subsection
D) Both A and B
Q2) Urinalysis
A) 81000
B) 81005
C) 82000
D) 81001
Q3) CPT-4 codes have __________ digits.
Q4) Hospital discharge day management, 45 minutes
A) 99238
B) 99239
C) 99234
D) 99235
Q5) Anesthesia coding is based on a billing formula.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) __________ patient has seen the physician within the past 3 years.
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following plans require healthcare providers to become participating providers?
A) All government-sponsored health plans
B) Most privately sponsored health plans
C) Indemnity health insurance plans
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not an advantage of managed care?
A) Healthcare costs are usually contained.
B) Access to specialized care and referrals is limited.
C) Most preventive medical treatment is covered.
D) Out-of-pocket expenses tend to be less than traditional insurance.
Q3) TRICARE is a form of government insurance for veterans of the U.S. armed forces.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which part of Medicare covers prescription drug services?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is typically documented in the estimation of benefits (EOB)?
A) Patient's deductible
B) Co-insurance
C) Co-payment
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) How many diagnoses can be reported on the CMS-1500?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Six
Q3) To examine claims for accuracy and completeness before they are submitted is to _________ the claims.
A) correct
B) audit
C) revise
D) reject
Q4) The medical assistant should do everything possible to prevent claim __________.
Q5) A(n) __________ claim has been completed accurately and completely.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To estimate the budget for a new year, the practice should evaluate expenses from the __________ year.
Q2) The entire property of a person is said to be his or her __________.
Q3) The "cash basis" system of accounting used by most physicians means that A) credit is used as little as possible.
B) charges are recorded as income at the time they are received.
C) a simple bookkeeping system is used.
D) expenses are recorded at the time they are incurred.
Q4) Who is financially responsible for a minor seeking treatment for STD without parental consent?
A) The parent who brings the child in for treatment
B) The legally emancipated minor
C) It depends; the medical assistant must determine where the statement should be sent
D) The minor
E) The legal guardian
Q5) The recording of business and accounting transactions is called
Q7) A record or notation of a transaction is called a(n) __________. Page 19
Q6) Amounts owed to the physician are accounts _____________.
Q8) Accounts __________ are debts incurred but not yet paid.
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Page 20
Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) An insured account requiring a minimum balance that draws interest at a higher percentage than a regular savings account is called a __________ account.
A) money market savings
B) individual retirement
C) checking
D) business savings
Q2) The physician uses a debit card to pay for purchases totaling $46, $50.02, $802.98, and $73. What is the checkbook balance after the debit card purchases if the account balance is $17,394.83 before the transactions?
Q3) A(n) __________ endorsement is used in preparing checks for deposit to the physician's checking account.
Q4) A check drawn on the bank's own account and signed by an authorized bank official is called a
A) bank draft.
B) voucher check.
C) cashier's check.
D) certified check.
Q5) __________ bonding covers specific individuals.
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who is currently employed should never be approached to accept a new position.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Continuous staff development and training are crucial parts of managing a successful medical practice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The best time to terminate an employee is usually at the beginning of the day.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Employee's Withholding Allowance Certificate is Form W-4.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Many employees can be _____________ to become productive staff members with a little patience on the part of the manager.
Q6) Breaks and time off do not meet the physiologic needs of employees.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The ________ is the Employee's Withholding Allowance Certificate. Page 22
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Page 23
Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample
Questions
Q1) Poorly chosen phrases that suggest poor attitudes give the patient or visitor a(n) __________ view of the facility.
Q2) Patients usually tell the provider if they are not receiving good customer service from the medical assistants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A URL is a web address.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Medical assistants should not be expected to provide good customer service along with their other duties.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Providing good customer service is a(n) ____________ that each employee must make in the medical facility.
Q6) Providing helpful, personal service usually impresses even the most difficult patient. A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pyemia is a condition marked by infectious microorganisms in the patient's urine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A 14-year-old patient is diagnosed with strep throat. Applying your understanding of the chain of infection, how can Rosa prevent the spread of the infection to herself and others?
Q3) A palliative treatment is designed to cure a particular disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Viral infections
A) are treated effectively with antibiotics.
B) include malaria and gonorrhea.
C) are treated with a focus on palliative care.
D) may form spores.
Q5) Interferon is a naturally occurring protein that helps protect cells from viral invasion.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the difference between cell-mediated and humoral immunity.
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient interview may be conducted in a quiet corner of the waiting room.
A)True B)False
Q2) Asian patients may have difficulty maintaining eye contact during an interview. A)True B)False
Q3) Detail how to make a correction in a patient's paper record.
Q4) It is acceptable to skip lines when documenting to give the physician room to enter a note after the patient has been seen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical assistant is responsible for performing the systems review. A)True
B)False
Q6) Giving advice when it is requested by a patient is an effective way of displaying concern.
A)True B)False
Q7) Describe the four sections of the POMR.
Q8) __________ data include the patient's blood pressure, TPR, and weight.
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first requirement in developing a teaching plan that works for a particular individual?
A) Overview of similar teaching outcomes
B) Assessment
C) Summary of anticipated outcomes
D) Determine barriers
Q2) Providing an 83-year-old patient a DVD about diabetes is not an effective teaching method.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Depression is not a normal part of the grief process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is integral to the informed consent mandate in the Patients' Bill of Rights?
A) Right to information before they receive care
B) Patient confidentiality as it relates to patient education
C) Providing adequate, correct, and understandable information
D) All of the above
Q5) Discuss the guidelines for patient education.
Page 27
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ carries cholesterol to the cells and forms atherosclerotic plaques on arterial walls.
Q2) It is recommended that we consume monounsaturated fats to help maintain a healthy blood cholesterol level. What would you recommend a patient use when cooking?
A) Hydrogenated margarine
B) Corn oil
C) Butter
D) Canola oil
Q3) Vegans drink milk to ensure an adequate calcium intake.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Whole grains contain the entire grain kernel - the bran, germ, and endosperm.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is a type of soluble fiber that can help lower blood cholesterol levels.
Q6) Describe the major factors that influence individual food choices.
Q7) __________ can be neutralized by antioxidant-rich foods.
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Q8) Vitamins or nutrients that can be created by the body are called __________.
Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. Garcia weighs 250 pounds. You are expected to record this weight in kilograms. It is equal to________ kg
A) 113.6
B) 550
C) 555.5
D) 122.3
Q2) Which blood pressure reading would be seen in an adult with hypotension?
A) Systolic BP below 110 mm Hg
B) Diastolic BP above 60 mm Hg
C) Systolic BP below 90 mm Hg
D) Diastolic BP below 60 mm Hg
Q3) You are responsible for training a newly hired medical assistant in your practice. You notice that she is having difficulty getting accurate BP readings. Give a minimum of four reasons her results may be inaccurate.
Q4) Stertorous breathing often is described as sounding similar to A) snoring.
B) wheezing.
C) gasping.
D) rales.
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method of examination is considered separate from the four standard methods?
A) Inspection
B) Auscultation
C) Manipulation
D) Percussion
Q2) What is the normal color of the tympanic membrane?
A) Pink
B) Slightly yellow
C) Off-white
D) Pearly gray
Q3) Transillumination is used to evaluate the sinus cavities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does the physician typically begin the examination of body parts and systems?
A) By assessing the body part causing the patient's complaint
B) By starting with the head and working methodically toward the feet
C) By auscultating breath and heart sounds
D) By performing a breast examination on female patients
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician writes an order for Vicodin tid prn for pain. How would the pharmacist write this on the prescription bottle?
A) Take as needed.
B) Take every other day for pain as needed.
C) Take every night.
D) Take 3 times/day as needed.
Q2) Which type of drug administration route is chosen in an emergency for fast action or when larger amounts of medication must be absorbed?
A) Intramuscular
B) Subcutaneous
C) Intravascular
D) Oral
Q3) Where are most oral medications absorbed?
A) Small intestine
B) Liver
C) Directly into the bloodstream
D) None of the above
Q4) The FDA has established standards that must be followed by generic drug manufacturers. Explain at least three of these.
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many liters equal 1,500 cc?
A) 1.5 L
B) 15 L
C) 150 L
D) 0.15 L
Q2) To convert a smaller unit of measurement to a larger one in the metric system, move the decimal point three places to the right.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The correct dosage of a medication may depend on the patient's age, weight, and state of health or on what other drugs the patient may be taking.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The physician prescribes 0.125 mg of Synthroid. On hand you have 0.25-mg tabs. What should you administer?
A) 1/2 tab
B) 2 tabs
C) 2 1/2 tabs
D) 1 tab
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following gauged needles are commonly used for subcutaneous injections?
A) 25 and 26
B) 27 and 28
C) 31
D) 14 and 18
Q2) After administering the Mantoux test, Dorothy should do which of the following?
A) Lightly massage the administration site.
B) Bandage the administration site immediately.
C) Place a cotton ball over the site to prevent bleeding.
D) Leave the injection site uncovered.
Q3) Which of the following is not a true statement about safe drug storage?
A) Certain medications must be refrigerated.
B) Controlled substances are stored along with other drugs.
C) Emergency supplies must be readily available.
D) All poisonous substances should be labeled in red.
Q4) A tablet may be given a(n) __________ coating so that the medicine is absorbed in the small intestine.
Q5) Repeated injections of minute amounts of allergens to desensitize a patient to allergic reactions is called __________.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) The percentage of the body surface area burned can be estimated using the __________.
Q2) Which acronym is used by the AHA to help people remember the order of performing the steps of CPR?
A) CAB
B) BAC
C) ABC
D) None of the above
Q3) ____________ is used for congestive heart failure.
A) Lanoxin
B) Epinephrine
C) Lidocaine
D) Syrup of ipecac
E) Valium
Q4) If a patient calls the office complaining of moderate to severe abdominal pain, which action is necessary?
A) Activate EMS
B) Same-day appointment
C) Worked into the schedule in the next 3 to 4 days
D) Refer patient to emergency room if no space available in schedule
Page 34
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and
Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) When instilling ear drops in an adult who is lying down, you should gently pull the pinna in which direction to straighten the ear canal?
A) Up and back
B) Straight down
C) Down and away from head
D) The canal need not be straightened if the patient is lying on his or her side.
Q2) When instilling ear drops in an adult, pull the pinna
A) up and back.
B) down and front.
Q3) While playing tennis, Ms. Brown is hit in the eye with a ball and experiences pain and swelling. Whom should she call for an appointment?
A) Ophthalmologist
B) Optician
C) Optometrist
D) Any of the above
Q4) __________ is a procedure in which high-intensity sound waves are used to break up a cataract before it is removed.
Q5) In ______________, heat is used to reshape the cornea in patients over age 40.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4226
Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical exfoliation may cause an increased level of photophobia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is a multiorgan, chronic, autoimmune inflammatory disease that affects connective tissue throughout the body.
Q3) A child diagnosed with eczema frequently has excoriation at the site of the inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient diagnosed with herpes simplex may be prescribed which of the following medications?
A) Prednisone
B) Valtrex
C) Bacitracin topical
D) Keflex
Q5) Which statement does not describe a result of a full-thickness burn?
A) Severe pain immediately after the injury
B) The need for skin grafting
C) The danger of infection
D) Damage to all skin layers
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis can be caused only by infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ulcerative colitis differs from Crohn's disease in what way?
A) It cannot be cured by surgery.
B) The disease typically recurs at the site of a previous ulcer.
C) Scar tissue at the site may cause a bowel obstruction.
D) Ulcers form on the surface of the colon, starting in the rectum and spreading proximally.
Q3) Helicobacter pylori infection has been discovered to be a possible cause of A) cold sores.
B) food poisoning.
C) colitis.
D) stomach ulcers.
Q4) The appendix is located in the __________ region of the abdomen.
Q5) Ulcerative colitis causes localized ulcer formation in the colon.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Congenital __________, which typically is seen in first-born male infants, causes a problem with narrowing at the distal end of the stomach.
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4228
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about patient preparation for renal ultrasonography?
A) The patient must be kept NPO for at least 8 hours before the exam.
B) The patient should be prepared for the loud noises made by the equipment.
C) The procedure is noninvasive and painless.
D) Intravenous dye is used.
Q2) The __________ is the functional unit of the kidney.
Q3) The surgical procedure known as orchiopexy is used for which of the following pediatric disorders?
A) Nocturnal enuresis
B) Urinary reflux disorder
C) Cryptorchidism
D) All of the above
Q4) Syphilis is easily treated in the early stages with penicillin G.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Urinary reflux disorder may be caused by
A) a problem with a ureteral valve.
B) neurologic damage to the bladder.
C) an obstruction that causes blockage.
D) All of the above
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The corpus luteum is the area on the ovary where an ovum was expelled during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A vaccine now is available to prevent genital herpes simplex infections in women. A)True B)False
Q3) Candidiasis is characterized by A) itching. B) bleeding. C) infertility.
D) ulceration.
Q4) Stage ______ is the stage of labor in which the baby is born. A) I
B) II C) III
Q5) A cystocele is a protrusion of the bladder into the rectal wall. A)True B)False
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for chickenpox is
A) rubella.
B) rubeola.
C) varicella.
D) herpes simplex.
Q2) If a child has severe diarrhea, the parents should stop feeding the child to protect the GI tract from damage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Indicators of dehydration in children do not include which of the following?
A) Lack of tears
B) Fewer wet diapers
C) Severe abdominal cramps
D) Weight loss
Q4) Which of the following theories discusses the preoperational stage that is characterized by language development?
A) Jean Piaget's developmental theory
B) Lawrence Kohlberg's theory
C) Psychosocial approach of Erik Erikson
D) Sigmund Freud's theory about human behavior
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diathermy is a deep heat therapy that can be used to treat muscle spasms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hot packs should be left in place for 40 minutes, removed for the same length of time, and repeated if needed to relieve lumbar spasms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of fracture is caused by a twisting type of injury?
A) Spiral
B) Greenstick
C) Oblique
D) Transverse
Q4) Summarize four risk factors for the development of osteoporosis.
Q5) Passive exercise of an injured muscle can be accomplished with electrical stimulation of the muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A patient diagnosed with mild bone loss has ______________.
Q7) The _____________ is a nerve-rich membrane that covers the surface of a bone.
Q8) _____________ in children is called rickets.
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Supportive cells of the nervous system are called ______________ cells.
Q2) A patient diagnosed with encephalitis will be admitted to the hospital and immediately placed on IV antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Parkinson's disease
A) affects men more often than women.
B) is caused by a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
C) is progressive and has no cure.
D) All of the above
E) B and C
Q4) A subdural hematoma is more likely to occur in which patient?
A) A 2-year-old who trips going down the steps
B) A 28-year-old athlete
C) A high school student playing touch football
D) An elderly patient who falls
Q5) The signs and symptoms of a brain tumor occur because of increased intracranial pressure.
A)True
B)False
42
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The posterior lobe of the pituitary (neurohypophysis) produces which of the following?
A) Growth hormone
B) Antidiuretic hormone
C) Thyroid stimulating hormone
D) Prolactin
Q2) __________ results in fruity-smelling breath.
Q3) Treatment in the beginning phase of diabetes type 2 includes all of the following except
A) weight loss.
B) exercise.
C) dietary restrictions.
D) oral hypoglycemic medications.
E) insulin.
Q4) A goiter might form because of which of the following problems?
A) Lack of iodine
B) Tumor
C) Infection
D) All of the above
Q5) Diabetic __________ is the leading cause of renal failure in the United States.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure is classified as part of the upper respiratory tract?
A) Bronchi
B) Larynx
C) Lung
D) Trachea
Q2) The best time to get a good sputum sample is first thing in the morning, after the patient has had breakfast.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The correct position for a spirometry test is
A) semi-Fowler's position on the exam table.
B) upright with the chin tucked into the chest.
C) upright with the chin slightly elevated and the neck extended.
D) standing.
Q4) Inspiration occurs when the diaphragm moves upward into the thoracic cavity and the intercostal muscles pull out and separate the rib cage.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical term for a low level of oxygen in the blood is __________.
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with __________ experience hardening of blood vessels, which results in ischemia and fibrotic changes in multiple tissues and organs.
Q2) Prophylactic antibiotic therapy is recommended for all patients diagnosed with cardiac valvular disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One of the diagnostic factors for metabolic syndrome is excessive abdominal body fat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) +Lifestyle changes recommended for patients who have had an MI include
A) controlling hypertension.
B) eating a low-fat, restricted-sodium diet.
C) exercising five days a week.
D) All of the above
Q5) Myocardial infarction symptoms in women include acute chest pain.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A symptom of chronic peripheral vascular disease is __________.
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four risk factors that contribute to the development of osteoporosis.
Q2) Which of the following disorders is associated with aging?
A) Constipation
B) Diarrhea
C) Hematuria
D) Asthma
Q3) Older patients show the same classic symptoms of diabetes as their younger counterparts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for osteoporosis?
A) Male gender
B) Family history of osteoporosis
C) Racial background
D) Extended use of anticonvulsant drugs
Q5) Which statement is true about patients in the second stage of AD?
A) They are still able to pay bills and work around the house.
B) They are unable to care for themselves.
C) They begin to show signs of problems with mobility.
D) Both B and C are true.
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The image created on the ECG paper is made by the A) heated stylus.
B) ink cartridge.
C) lead wires.
D) felt-tipped pen in the machine.
Q2) Which deflection from the baseline represents the repolarization of the ventricles?
A) P wave
B) T wave
C) ST segment
D) QRS complex
Q3) Which of the following devices monitors the heart rhythm and delivers a shock to the heart if it detects a dangerous ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation?
A) ICD
B) Pacemaker
C) Holter monitor
D) All of the above
Q4) A pounding or racing heart, which may or may not indicate a serious heart disorder, is called ____________.
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have a patient scheduled for an MRI. What should you include in the patient education?
A) It cannot be done if the patient is allergic to iodine.
B) The MRI uses advanced radiation technology to provide the physician with a multiple view of the area.
C) A very loud tapping noise is heard throughout the procedure.
D) The patient does not have to enter the machine, unlike with a CT scan.
Q2) __________ is a therapeutic technique performed by the radiologist in which a catheter is used to block a blood vessel and prevent hemorrhage.
Q3) Which of the following planes divides the body into equal right and left parts?
A) Sagittal plane
B) Midsagittal plane
C) Coronal plane
D) Midcoronal or midfrontal plane
E) Transverse plane
Q4) A fluoroscopic examination of a joint in which a contrast medium is used to allow visualization of the soft tissue components is a(n) __________.
Q5) AP stands for __________.
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An order found on a laboratory requisition that indicates the test must be done immediately is __________.
Q2) __________ are fluids that have escaped from blood vessels and have been deposited in surrounding tissues.
Q3) Which of the following is the most efficient method of preventing the spread of infection in a laboratory?
A) Using a sterile container for sharps
B) Washing your hands
C) Using sterile cups in urine collection
D) Cleaning with a chemical disinfectant
Q4) A portion of a well-mixed sample that is removed for testing is called a(n)
A) aliquot.
B) analyte.
C) diluent.
D) exudate.
Q5) Which of the following is a qualitative laboratory test result?
A) RBCs: 6,000,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
B) Fecal occult blood test: positive
C) Hematocrit: 45%
D) A and C
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ casts are not uncommon in the urine of athletes.
Q2) A red blood cell seen in urine sediment that has scalloped, leaflike edges is described as ____________.
Q3) QC for the microscopic examination of urine relies on standardized commercial systems such as KOVA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement is true about the pH of urine?
A) The average pH of freshly voided urine is 9.
B) The urinary pH varies with the diet.
C) The urine pH is alkaline if the patient has bacteriuria.
D) A urine pH below 7 indicates alkalinity.
Q5) A cloudy urine specimen may be the result of which of the following?
A) Glycosuria
B) Ketones
C) Lipids
D) Crystals
Q6) A random urine sample may contain blood from vaginal contamination if the woman is ______________.
Q7) The sugar most commonly found in urine is __________.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The device used for dermal puncture is a(n)
A) Unopette.
B) lancet.
C) butterfly.
D) Vacutainer.
Q2) The color of the tube top for collection of a coagulation test is A) green.
B) light blue.
C) gray.
D) lavender.
Q3) The proper procedure for collecting a serum specimen is to
A) use a green-topped tube.
B) allow the specimen to clot.
C) use a microhematocrit tube.
D) use a red or marbled-top tube.
E) B and D.
Q4) Using a collection needle with a wider lumen reduces the chance that __________ will occur.
Q5) The liquid portion of blood that remains after the blood has clotted in a collection tube is the __________.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following measures the PT according to the time it takes the blood to form a fibrin clot?
A) ESR
B) Hgb determination
C) CLIA-waived
D) CBC
Q2) Hormones detected in a thyroid panel include
A) thyroxine.
B) triiodothyronine.
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone.
D) All of the above
Q3) Erythrocytes have a typical ________ shape because of _______________________.
A) concave; the presence of oxygen
B) oval; their short life span
C) convex; adequate hemoglobin concentration
D) concave; their lack of a nucleus
Q4) Increases in the WBC count that are not related to disease are seen in pregnant women and individuals facing extreme stress.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most pathogenic organisms prefer temperatures around 37° C and remain viable for up to 72 hours if held at room temperature or refrigerator temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Beta hemolysis
A) is best detected on a sheep's blood medium.
B) is caused by hemolysis of blood cells.
C) refers to a clear zone around bacterial colonies growing on a sheep's blood medium.
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following pathogenic organisms can be identified in sputum samples?
A) Pathogenic fungi
B) Pathogenic parasites
C) Pathogenic viruses
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) Protozoa often are identified with observation of __________, the microscopic capsule-like sacs that enclose them in the larval stage.
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The jaws of this instrument are shorter and look stronger than hemostat jaws.
A) Needle holder
B) Bayonet forceps
C) Splinter forceps
D) Towel forceps (towel clamp)
Q2) This instrument tip has a groove or hook to slide under sutures.
A) Bayonet forceps
B) Littauer stitch or suture scissors
C) Probe tip
D) Needle holders
Q3) Research indicates that chlorhexidine topical (Hibiclens), Triseptin, gluconate products (Triseptin or Hibiclens), and povidone-iodine (Betadine) are safe and effective antiseptics. Research also shows that the use of an alcohol-based hand rub is not as effective as an extensive surgical scrub done before sterile gloves are applied to limit bacterial contamination of the hands during a surgical procedure.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) No harm is done if a sterile field gets wet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following passes through to a body organ or cavity?
A) Incised wound
B) Lacerated wound
C) Perforated wound
D) Penetrating wound
E) Both C and D
Q3) Suppuration can cause problems with wound healing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following instruments would be damaged by the high temperature and steam under pressure of autoclaves and must be disinfected after each procedure?
A) Elecrosurg tip used in electrosurgery
B) Laser tip used in laser surgery
C) Microscope used in microsurgery
D) Endoscope used in endoscopy
E) Both C and D
Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical assisting is a versatile __________ and can lead to many years of satisfying employment.
Q2) The purpose of the cover letter is to get the employer to look at the résumé, and the purpose of the résumé is to get the applicant the job.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Follow-up calls should be limited to no more than __________ per week.
Q4) __________ each résumé to get better results during the job search.
Q5) Which of the following methods has proved to be the best and most effective way to find employment?
A) Networking
B) Job boards
C) Mass mailing of résumés to health care employers
D) Cold calling
E) Both A and B
Q6) The four phases of the job interview process include preparation, the actual interview, follow-up, and negotiation.
A)True
B)False
56
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