Medical Practice Management
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Practice Management is a course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge and skills necessary to effectively run and oversee healthcare practices. This course covers topics such as healthcare operations, financial management, human resources, billing and coding, compliance with healthcare regulations, patient flow optimization, and the implementation of health information systems. Students will explore strategies for managing both small private practices and larger group settings, emphasizing leadership, ethical decision-making, and quality improvement. By the end of the course, students will have a comprehensive understanding of the administrative and strategic responsibilities required to ensure the smooth and efficient functioning of a medical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Todays Medical Assistant Clinical and Administrative Procedures 2nd Edition by
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Kathy Bonewit
Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chiropractic
A)Branch of medical practice that seeks to balance the structure and function of the body through manipulation of muscles and joints; given all privileges of those with MD degrees
B)Specializes in conditions of the skin
C)Provides anesthesia during surgery and other procedures
D)Utilizes manipulations to treat spinal subluxations, affecting the spine and related neural structures
E)Provides general medical care of children and adolescents
F)Treats those with allergies and problems of the immune system
G)Treat disorders of the feet and ankles
H)Specializes in the care of the ear, nose, and throat
I)Treats adults and children for routine care and complaints
J)Treatment of the internal organs of adults by other than surgical means
K)Performs surgical treatment of the large intestine and rectum
L)Specializes in surgical care of bone and joint injuries and disorders
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Professional Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by the term "defensive medicine"?
A) Patients are more likely to sue a physician today than 50 years ago.
B) Malpractice insurance costs have risen sharply over the past 50 years.
C) Physicians order more diagnostic tests than before as a defense against a possible lawsuit.
D) Performing diagnostic tests in the medical office increases the overhead or cost of doing business.
Answer: C
Q2) Neatness and grooming are important not only for professionalism, but also for reasons of health and safety.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What is a key concept of the Hippocratic oath?
A) Keep good records.
B) Collect a fee from every patient.
C) Do no harm.
D) Refer patients to another physician as needed.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Ethics and Law for the Medical Office
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Q1) The 10-digit identifying number issued to providers by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services is called the National Provider Identifier (NPI).
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is the name for the party against whom the lawsuit is brought, whether this is a doctor, medical facility, or hospital?
A) Accused
B) Defendant
C) Contractor
D) Plaintiff
Answer: B
Q3) What are reasons to revoke or suspend a physician's license?
A) Conviction of a crime
B) Unprofessional activity
C) Physical or mental incapacitation
D) Senility
E) All of the above
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Interacting With Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient is not comfortable with English, what should the medical assistant avoid?
A) Speaking directly to the patient instead of the translator
B) Speaking slowly and using simple terms when speaking to the patient
C) Arranging for telephone or video translation services
D) Using the patient's child as a translator
Q2) Psychology of Human Relations
Q3) In the United States, the typical personal distance or comfort zone for conversation with others is
A) 3-4 feet
B) 1-2 feet
C) 6-7 feet
D) While touching
Q4) What are tone of voice, voice pitch, voice volume, and voice quality examples of?
A) Verbal communication
B) Psychology
C) Secondary nonverbal communication
D) Body language
Q5) Identify styles and types of verbal communication
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is anterior to the heart?
A) Vertebral column
B) Ribs
C) Stomach
D) Urinary bladder
Q2) The process by which secretory products are packaged into vesicles and then released from the cells is known as
A) Cytokinesis
B) Exocytosis
C) Endocytosis
D) Phagocytosis
Q3) Identify body systems
Q4) Which of the following structures is NOT located in the thoracic cavity?
A) Heart
B) Esophagus
C) Stomach
D) Trachea
Q5) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q6) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The papillae of the dermis are responsible for
A) Waterproofing the skin
B) Skin color
C) Fingerprints and footprints
D) Freckles
Q2) The visible portion of the nail is known as the
A) Nail body
B) Nail root
C) Nail matrix
D) Hang nail
Q3) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
Q4) List major organs in each body system
Q5) Which of the following provides waterproofing for the skin?
A) Keratin
B) Cerumen
C) Sebum
D) Corneum
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
Q7) Medical Terminology
Q8) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint?
A) Shoulder
B) Knee
C) Ankle
D) Thumb
Q2) The microscopic units of compact bone are known as
A) Osteocytes
B) Haversion canals
C) Osteons
D) Lamellae
Q3) Where does blood cell formation take place?
A) Spleen
B) Red bone marrow
C) Liver
D) Yellow bone marrow
Q4) How many bones make up the adult human skeleton?
A) 80
B) 126
C) 206
D) 303
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Chapter 8: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscles does NOT move the shoulder and upper arm?
A) Trapezius
B) Pectoralis major
C) Biceps brachii
D) Deltoid
Q2) A muscle that opposes or reverses a particular movement is known as
A) A synergist
B) An antagonist
C) A prime mover
D) A secondary mover
Q3) What is the name of the neurotransmitter responsible for muscle contractions?
A) Calcium
B) Lactic acid
C) Potassium
D) Acetylcholine
Q4) Which of the following stimulates skeletal muscle to contract?
A) Motor neurons
B) Dendrites
C) Sensory neurons
D) Mitochondria
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Chapter 9: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q2) Identify body systems
Q3) How many pairs of spinal nerves are in the human body?
A) 9
B) 12
C) 31
D) 206
Q4) The peripheral nervous system is made up of
A) Cranial nerves and spinal nerves
B) Effectors and ganglia
C) Cranial nerves and the brain
D) Reflex arcs
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neuroglia?
A) They support and protect neurons.
B) They nourish neurons.
C) They conduct nerve impulses.
D) They are capable of mitosis.
Q7) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q8) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 10: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eyelashes
A)The space between the lens and retina
B)Inner layer of the eye that contains rods and cones
C)Space between the cornea and lens
D)Keeps perspiration out of the eye
E)Helps keep foreign objects from entering the eye
F)Mucous membrane that lines the eyelid and covers the front of the eye except for the cornea
G)Traps foreign particles and prevents them from entering the eye
H)Produces tears
I)White part of the eye
J)Pigmented vascular middle layer of the eye
K)Colored part of the eye
L)Opening in the eye
Q2) Which of the following part of the brain interprets visual impulses?
A) Temporal lobe
B) Parietal lobe
C) Occipital lobe
D) Frontal lobe
Q3) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) List major organs in each body system
Q2) What would happen if insulin were given orally?
A) It would cause an allergic reaction.
B) It would be inactivated by digestive enzymes in the stomach.
C) It would irritate the lining of the digestive tract.
D) It would have a toxic effect on the body.
Q3) Prolactin
A)Stimulates growth of bones, muscles, and other organs
B)Causes thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone
C)Promotes reabsorption of water in the kidney tubules
D)Reacts with receptor sites in the adrenal gland to stimulate secretion of cortical hormone
E)Promotes development of glandular tissue in female breast during pregnancy
F)Stimulates development of eggs in the ovaries and sperm in the testes
G)Causes ovulation to occur
H)Causes contraction of smooth muscle in wall of uterus
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 12: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Largest white blood cell
A)Neutrophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Basophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Monocytes
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of thrombocytes?
A) Normal range is 150,000-400,000
B) They close breaks in blood vessels
C) They initiate the formation of blood clots
D) They engulf bacteria and clean up cellular debris
Q3) What is the name of the valve located in the right ventricle at the base of the pulmonary trunk?
A) Pulmonary semilunar valve
B) Triscuspid valve
C) Bicuspid valve
D) Aortic semilunar valve
Q4) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
14
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) After the bronchi enter the lungs, they branch into smaller passages that terminate in
A) Alveolar ducts
B) Bronchioles
C) Alveoli
D) Secondary bronchi
Q2) Palate
A)Air-filled cavities that reduce the weight of the skull
B)Bony ridges that project into the nasal cavity
C)Interior chamber of the nose
D)Divides the nose into two parts
E)Opening through which air enters the nasal cavity
F)Openings from the nasal cavity into the pharynx
G)Separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity
H)Posterior portion of the soft palate that helps direct food into the oropharynx
Q3) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) List major organs in each body system
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 14: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first part of the small intestine?
A) Sigmoid colon
B) Ileum
C) Duodenum
D) Jejunum
Q2) What causes the release of gastric juice during the gastric phase of digestion?
A) Thinking about food
B) Smelling food
C) Presence of food in the stomach
D) Passage of chyme through the pyloric sphincter
Q3) The taking in of food is known as
A) Inhalation
B) Mastication
C) Deglutition
D) Ingestion
Q4) What is the function of the large intestine?
A) Production of digestive enzymes
B) Elimination of waste products
C) Absorption of nutrients
D) Breakdown of food molecules
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following layers of the ureter exhibits peristalsis?
A) Mucosa
B) Muscular layer
C) Fibrous coat
D) None of the above
Q2) Renal columns
A)Functional unit of the kidney
B)Large cavity in the central region of the kidney that collects urine as it is produced
C)Triangular-shaped regions of the kidney that appear striated
D)Part of the renal cortex that extends into the spaces between adjacent pyramids
E)Connective tissue that holds the kidney in place
F)Thick layer of adipose tissue that surrounds each kidney
G)Tough fibrous connective tissue that encases each kidney
H)Indentation in the kidney
I)Outer reddish region of the kidney
J)Inner reddish brown region of the kidney
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones causes the ejection of milk from the mammary glands?
A) Prolactin
B) Estrogen
C) Progesterone
D) Oxytocin
Q2) Which of the following is located in the cortex of the ovary?
A) Ovarian follicles
B) Blood vessels
C) Lymphatic vessels
D) Nerve fibers
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the secondary reproductive organs?
A) Transport gametes
B) Sustain the gametes
C) Nurture the development of offspring
D) Produce eggs and sperm
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Chapter 17: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of an exposure incident?
A) Spilling blood on a laboratory worktable
B) Sticking yourself with the needle after drawing up an injectable medication
C) Getting blood onto your bare hands
D) Splashing blood into your eyes
E) All of the above
Q2) What term is used to describe practices that help to keep an object or area clean and free from infection?
A) Medical asepsis
B) Surgical asepsis
C) Disinfection
D) Sterilization
Q3) What is the name given to a person who cannot fight off a pathogen that has entered his or her body?
A) Reservoir host
B) Resistant host
C) Contagious
D) Susceptible host
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Chapter 18: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the importance of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) in a health care setting
Q2) The agent used to destroy microorganisms on an article depends on the
A) Size of the article
B) Intended use of the article
C) Number of microorganisms present on the article
D) Weight of the article
Q3) Which of the following would be best to use to wrap a large minor office surgery tray setup?
A) Sterilization pouch
B) Muslin
C) Aluminum foil
D) Sterilization paper
Q4) Sterilization strips should be positioned
A) On the bottom tray of the autoclave
B) On the top tray of the autoclave
C) In the center of the wrapped pack
D) On the outside of the pack
Q5) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q6) Discuss infection control procedures
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Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over which artery is the stethoscope placed when taking blood pressure?
A) Radial
B) Brachial
C) Apical
D) Carotid
Q2) What is the normal range for body temperature?
A) 96 °F to 98 °F
B) 97 °F to 99 °F
C) 98 °F to 99 °F
D) 97 °F to 100.4 °F
Q3) What term is used to describe an abnormal decrease in the rate and depth of respiration?
A) Tachypnea
B) Hypopnea
C) Orthopnea
D) Bradycardia
Q4) Anatomy and Physiology
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q7) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 20: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's height should be recorded in A) Inches
B) Feet and inches
C) Centimeters
D) Meters
Q2) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q3) Before applying a stethoscope chest piece to the patient's skin, it should be
A) Soaked in bleach
B) Warmed
C) Autoclaved
D) Calibrated
Q4) The lithotomy position is used to examine the A) Vagina
B) Abdomen
C) Sigmoid colon
D) Breasts
Q5) Psychology of Human Relations
Q6) Analyze charts, graphs, and/or tables in the interpretation of health care results
Q7) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Chapter 21: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common color vision defect?
A) Acquired color vision defects
B) Total color blindness
C) Congenital color vision defects
D) Green-blue color vision defect
Q2) State of
A)a-
B)audi/o
C)hyper-
D)-ic
E)-ism
F)-meter
G)-opia
H)ot/o
I)-scope
J)tympan/o
K)stigma/a
Q3) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q4) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 22: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) After immersing a patient's foot in a hot soak, the medical assistant should
A) Ask the patient how the temperature feels
B) Increase the temperature of the water
C) Add crushed ice
D) Instruct the patient to wiggle his or her toes
Q2) Which of the following factors is taken into consideration before an ambulatory assistive device is prescribed?
A) The age of the patient
B) The patient's muscular coordination
C) The type of disability
D) The amount of support required
E) All of the above
Q3) When explaining the use of a heating pad, the medical assistant should instruct a patient to
A) Lie on the pad
B) Use pins to secure the pad in place
C) Adjust the pad to a higher setting if it no longer feels warm
D) Place a protective covering over the pad
E) All of the above
Q4) Psychology of Human Relations
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Chapter 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of the past medical history is to obtain information from the patient on A) Conditions that may affect the health of the mother and fetus
B) Drug allergies
C) Her menstrual cycle
D) Previous pregnancies
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of the liquid-based Pap method?
A) Almost all of the Pap specimen is preserved
B) Debris is removed from the specimen
C) The cells are dispersed in a thin even layer on the slide
D) All of the above
Q3) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q4) The absence or cessation of the menstrual period is known as
A) Puberty
B) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
C) Amenorrhea
D) Pregnancy
Q5) Identify body systems
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Q6) Describe the relationship between anatomy and physiology of all body systems and medications used for treatment in each
Chapter 24: The Pediatric Examination
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Q1) If PKU is left untreated, it can lead to
A) Malnutrition
B) Mental retardation
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Spinal curvature
Q2) What is the term for the process of becoming immune through the use of a vaccine or toxoid?
A) Passive artificial immunization
B) Active artificial immunization
C) Inflammation
D) Passive natural immunization
Q3) Identify resources and adaptations that are required based on individual needs-i.e., culture and environment, developmental life stages, language, and physical threats to communication
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) A blood pressure cuff that is too large for a child may result in
A) A blood pressure reading that is falsely high
B) Not being able to hear the first clear tapping sound
C) Too much pressure being applied to the brachial artery
D) A blood pressure reading that is falsely low
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Chapter 25: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following wounds, would the physician be most likely to order a tetanus booster?
A) Cut
B) Puncture
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of using surgical skin staples?
A) Fastest method of skin closure for long skin incisions
B) A local anesthetic is not required for their application
C) Better approximation of the edges of a wound
D) Faster healing of the wound
Q3) What is the first line of defense of the body?
A) Mucous membranes
B) Skin
C) Acidic secretions of the stomach
D) White blood cells
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q6) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q7) Discuss infection control procedures
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Chapter 26: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the administration of whole blood or blood products through the IV route?
A) Transfusion
B) Enteral nutrition
C) Infusion
D) Effusion
Q2) Which of the following does an EMR prescription program NOT perform?
A) Prints a list of medications being taken by the patient
B) Determines the number of prescription refills
C) Reduces the amount of time needed to prescribe and refill medication
D) Transmits the prescription electronically to the patient's pharmacy
Q3) The term parenteral refers to
A) Sites located outside the gastrointestinal tract
B) Intramuscular injection sites
C) Administration of medication PO
D) Topical administration of medication
Q4) Identify the classifications of medications, including desired effects, side effects, and adverse reactions
Q6) Pharmacology Page 28
Q5) Identify both abbreviations and symbols used in calculating medication dosages
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Chapter 27: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) How high is the standardization mark when the electrocardiograph is properly standardized?
A) 5 mm
B) 10 mm
C) 15 mm
D) 20 mm
Q2) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q3) Which electrode is used as a ground reference?
A) Right arm
B) Right leg
C) Left arm
D) Left leg
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) Chest lead V<sub>2</sub> is located at the
A) Fourth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
B) Fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line
C) Fifth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum
D) Fourth intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum
Q6) Medical Terminology
Q7) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 28: Specialty Examinations and Procedures: Colon
Procedures, Male Reproductive Health, and Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the life span
Q2) Cerebral angiogram
A)A radiograph of the urinary bladder
B)A radiograph of the lungs
C)A radiograph of the bile ducts
D)An ultrasound examination of the heart
E)A radiograph of the heart
F)A radiograph of the major arteries of the brain
G)A radiograph of the coronary arteries
H)A radiograph of the uterus and fallopian tubes
Q3) Organize technical information and summaries
Q4) Medical Laboratory Procedures
Q5) A physician specializing in the diagnosis and treatment of disease using radiation and other imaging techniques is known as a(n)
A) Radiologist
B) Radiology technician
C) Pathologist
D) Cardiologist
Q6) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems Page 31
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Chapter 29: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Laboratory Procedures
Q2) What is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test?
A) Standard
B) Analyte
C) Calibration
D) Control
Q3) What temperature is usually required for storing testing materials and performing laboratory tests?
A) Body temperature
B) Room temperature
C) A very cold temperature
D) A temperature between 100 °F and 104 °F
Q4) How are laboratory reports delivered to the medical office?
A) Faxed
B) Mailed
C) Hand-delivered by a laboratory courier
D) Electronically
E) All of the above
Q5) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 30: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests is NOT positive when a patient has a urinary tract infection?
A) Nitrite
B) Protein
C) Ketone bodies
D) Leukocytes
Q2) Bilirubin
A)an-
B)bilirubin/o
C)dys-
D)glyc/o
E)hemat/o
F)keton/o
G)noct/i
H)olig/o
I)-osis
J)poly
K)py/o
L)ur/o
Q3) Identify body systems
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Chapter 31: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents an error in technique when selecting a vein for venipuncture?
A) Examining the antecubital veins of both arms
B) Using the thumb to palpate the vein
C) Determining the size and depth of the vein
D) Tracing the path of the vein
Q2) Which of the following sites can be used to make a skin puncture on an adult?
A) Earlobe
B) Lateral part of the index fingertip
C) Tip of the little finger
D) Lateral part of the third fingertip
Q3) Discuss the application of Standard Precautions with regard to: a. All body fluids, secretions and excretions; b. Blood; c. Nonintact skin; d. Mucous membranes
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a correct technique for applying a tourniquet?
A) Placing the tourniquet 3-4 inches above the bend in the elbow
B) Asking the patient to clench his or her fist
C) Applying the tourniquet so that it is snug, but not tight
D) Leaving the tourniquet on for at least 3 minutes before drawing the specimen
Q5) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 32: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Against
A) an-
B) -emia
C) cyt/o
D) hemat/o
E) anti-
F) leuk/o
G) -coagulant
H) -ology
I) poly-
J) -osis
K) -penia
Q2) When using a microhematocrit centrifuge, the hematocrit test results should be read at the
A) Top of the red cell column
B) Bottom of the red cell column
C) Top of the buffy coat
D) Top of the plasma column
Q3) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q4) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Chapter 33: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anatomy and Physiology
Q2) The recommended A<sub>1c</sub> level for an individual with diabetes is A) 4-6%
B) Less than 6%
C) Less than 7%
D) Greater than 8%
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) What term is used to describe an abnormally low level of glucose in the blood?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Glycosuria
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Acidosis
Q5) The hemoglobin A<sub>1c</sub> test measures the
A) Average amount of glucose in the blood over a three-month period
B) Amount of hemoglobin in the blood
C) Fasting blood glucose level
D) Amount of glycogen in the body over a 30-day period
Q6) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q7) Medical Laboratory Procedures
Q8) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
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Chapter 34: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following microorganisms is identified by observing its motility under the microscope?
A) Candida albicans
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q2) Which of the following is used to examine microorganisms in the living state?
A) Wet mount
B) Gram staining
C) Smear
D) Rapid strep test
Q3) Which of the following is a sequela to streptococcal sore throat?
A) Diphtheria
B) Rheumatic fever
C) Pertussis
D) Viral pneumonia
Q4) Anatomy and Physiology
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q7) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
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Chapter 35: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of shock is caused by loss of blood or other body fluids?
A) Neurogenic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Cardiogenic
D) Hemorrhaging
Q2) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q3) What is the name of the type of fracture in which the broken ends of the bone are forcefully jammed together?
A) Transverse
B) Greenstick
C) Impacted
D) Closed
Q4) Which of the following snakes is poisonous?
A) Rattlesnake
B) Copperhead
C) Cottonmouth
D) Coral snake
E) All of the above
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Chapter 36: The Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT assist in the collection of data for a health history?
A) A quiet, comfortable room
B) Showing interest in the patient
C) Showing concern for the patient
D) Calling the patient "honey"
Q2) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Q3) With reverse chronological order, the most recent document is
A) Filed alphabetically
B) Filed by subject title
C) Placed in front of the other documents
D) Placed in back of the other documents
Q4) What term is used to describe the process of making written entries about a patient in the medical record?
A) Charting
B) Registration
C) Scribbling
D) Documentation
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Identify types of records common to the health care setting
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Chapter 37: Patient Reception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Turns on radio, television, and/or DVD player in the waiting room
A) When opening the office
B) When closing the office
Q2) New patients should be given information that includes the specialties of the physicians in the practice and the basic philosophy of the physicians.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is an advantage of having a patient information booklet?
A) Medical assistants will not have to give information about the practice on the telephone.
B) Patients can be held responsible for knowing specific information about the practice.
C) It can be a useful tool to market the practice and attract new patients.
D) It serves as a legal notification about which physicians are accepting new patients.
Q4) Every patient must be given a written copy of the office's privacy statement.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the importance of routine maintenance of office equipment
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Chapter 38: Medical Office Computerization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electronic medical record (EMR) may be slower to use than the paper medical record, because it is faster to file paper forms than to wait for electronic data to be transferred.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the importance of routine maintenance of office equipment
Q3) What is the first thing that should be done if water is spilled into a keyboard?
A) Pat the keyboard dry and continue normal usage
B) Leave the computer on until it dries out
C) Immediately turn off the computer
D) Call 911
Q4) What happens to items in RAM when the computer is turned off?
A) They are automatically transferred to a storage device
B) They remain intact and are ready for use when the computer is turned back on
C) They are dumped out
D) They are permanently stored on the mainboard
Q5) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q6) Discuss principles of using Electronic Medical Record (EMR)
Q7) Identify principles of body mechanics and ergonomics
Q8) Medical Law and Ethics
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Chapter 39: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a medical assistant makes a call to a patient regarding the patient's bill and obtains an answering machine, what message should the medical assistant leave?
A) A request to call him or her at the medical office, and the medical office telephone number
B) A request to call him or her regarding a bill, and his or her cell phone number
C) A description of the problem with the bill and a request to call the office, including the office telephone number
D) No message, to protect the patient's privacy
Q2) Which is done by an answering service if one is used by the medical office?
A) Answer calls when the office is closed
B) Answer all of the physician's telephone calls
C) Answer calls only when the office is very busy
D) Make it unnecessary for the office to hire a receptionist
Q3) Recognize communication barriers
Q4) Discuss legal scope of practice for medical assistants
Q5) Discuss the role of assertiveness in effective professional communication
Q6) Organize technical information and summaries
Q7) Differentiate between adaptive and non-adaptive coping mechanisms
Page 43
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Chapter 40: Scheduling Appointments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modified wave scheduling
A) Scheduling two patients for the same appointment time
B) An appointment scheduling method in which each patient is given a specific appointment time
C) Scheduling similar types of patients for examinations on the same day or part of the day
D) An appointment system in which some patients have individual appointment times and some have the same appointment time as other patients
E) A method of scheduling appointments in which several patients are given the same appointment time and seen in the order they arrive
F) Patients may come to the office at any time during a range of hours
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a physician preference or need that may affect the appointment schedule?
A) The time of day a physician prefers to do certain types of examinations
B) Other obligations such as hospital rounds or nursing home visits
C) Attendance at conferences and meetings
D) The number of satellite offices affiliated with the medical practice
Q3) Recognize office policies and protocols for handling appointments
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Chapter 41: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following names would be filed first?
A) St. James, Anne Marie
B) St. Charles, Josephine
C) St. Joseph, Joseph
D) St. Elmo, Elmer
Q2) If a chronological numeric filing system is used, which of the following medical records comes last in the files?
A) 0219
B) 1944
C) 3294
D) 7281
Q3) What is an advantage of using color-coded labels or folders?
A) It preserves patient confidentiality.
B) It simplifies removal of inactive records.
C) It reduces the risk of misfiling.
D) It simplifies the process of creating the record.
Q4) Explore issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Q5) Identify types of records common to the healthcare setting
Q6) Identify both equipment and supplies needed for filing medical records
Q7) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
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Chapter 42: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most formal closing for a business letter?
A) Regards
B) Sincerely
C) Sincerely yours
D) Very truly yours
Q2) What is the letter style in which the first line of each new paragraph is indented five spaces?
A) Block
B) Semiblock
C) Simplified
D) Modified block
Q3) What type of computer program does the medical assistant usually use to prepare letters?
A) Word processing.
B) Database.
C) Spreadsheet.
D) Letters are usually prepared on a typewriter, not the computer.
Q4) A period is placed after each line in the inside address of a business letter.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Mail
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the medical assistant arrange letters or reports about patients for the physician to review?
A) In order of the date of the letter
B) Alphabetically by the patient's name
C) Depending on the source of the letters or reports (from patients, hospitals, laboratories, etc.)
D) None of the above-mail can be presented in the order it was opened
Q2) Which type of correspondence is best sent by Certified Mail with Return Receipt requested?
A) Fragile items with a high dollar value
B) Patient records needed by another physician
C) Payment to a supplier of office forms
D) Letter informing a patient that he should find a new physician because he has missed several appointments
E) All of the above
Q3) A letter mailed in a square envelope requires more postage than a letter mailed in a #10 envelope even if it weighs the same amount.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Managing Practice Finances
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Sample Questions
Q1) The account balance provided by the bank should always agree with the account balance of the medical office checkbook ledger.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When reconciling a bank statement, which amount must added to the office checkbook register before comparing the amount in the check register to the bank statement?
A) Any bank charges
B) Any interest earned
C) The amount of deposits that do not appear on the statement
D) Any automatic payments made during the statement period
Q3) How will the medical office usually utilize a savings account?
A) To hold fund so that checks can be written for ordinary expenses
B) To pay the salaries for nurses and physicians who work for the medical practice
C) To keep a reserve fund of money that will not be needed for anticipated expenses
D) To hold funds so that checks can be written for equipment or other infrequent expenses
Q4) Differentiate between bookkeeping and accounting
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Chapter 45: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a diagnosis is listed by the physician as "wedge compression fracture of the fifth lumbar vertebra," which word should be referenced in the alphabetic index of the ICD-10 manual?
A) Wedge
B) Lumbar
C) Fracture
D) Compression
Q2) In the CPT manual, a code that provides only text to replace the words after a semicolon in the code above it is called an indented code.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During a routine examination, the physician decides to have an electrocardiogram (ECG) performed on the patient. How should this be coded?
A) As a separate visit
B) As a separate procedure
C) In the code for the office visit
D) Only if the physician interprets the ECG
Q4) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q5) Describe how to use the most current diagnostic coding classification system
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Chapter 46: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of insurance plan usually requires the patient to pay a higher percentage of out-of-network services?
A) Network HMO
B) Preferred provider organization
C) Exclusive provider organization
D) Independent physicians association
Q2) Which federal insurance plan provides for services for the elderly and disabled?
A) Medicare
B) Medicaid
C) TRICARE
D) CHAMPVA
Q3) Which of the following applies to patients who are injured at work and covered under workers' compensation?
A) They should be treated as ordinary patients.
B) They should have separate medical and financial records.
C) They should have all of their previous medical records sent to the employer's insurance company.
D) They should be aware that they can be charged for services not covered by the insurance company.
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Chapter 47: Billing and Collections
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Q1) What should accompany bills that are sent to patients for balances due?
A) An office business card
B) One of the office claim messages
C) A sticker that says Please Call the Office
D) A copy of the Fair Debt Collection Act of 1966
Q2) What is overdraft protection?
A) An increase in the maximum amount for which a check may be written
B) An agreement that the bank will transfer money between accounts as needed
C) An extra review to prevent errors in calculating the balance of a bank account
D) A delay in cashing any check written on an account without adequate funds to cover it
Q3) What is the process of determining how long specific accounts and balances have been outstanding?
A) Aging
B) Crediting
C) Recording
D) Ledger balancing
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Chapter 48: The Medical Assistant As Office Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should all medical records, including computer data backup disks, be stored?
A) In boxes
B) In the physician's office
C) In the physician's house
D) In locked, fire-resistant file cabinets
Q2) Salary
A) Employees withholding allowance certificate
B) Wage and Tax Statement provided annually before January 31
C) Money withheld from paycheck and paid to the federal government
D) Employment Eligibility Form
E) Money withheld from paycheck and paid to the state
F) 1.45% of employee wages matched by an additional 1.45% paid by the employer
G) Federal unemployment tax paid by the employer
H) Social Security tax to fund the U.S. retirement program
I) Amount of pay before deductions
J) Wages based on number of hours worked times hourly rate
K) Wages paid as fixed amount of money that does not depend on the number of hours worked
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Chapter 49: Emergency Protective Practices for the Medical Office
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Q1) Which of the following agencies coordinates a response to any disaster that overwhelms the resources of state and local authorities?
A) FEMA
B) American Red Cross
C) National Guard
D) Alcoholics Anonymous
Q2) Which of the following tasks might be performed by a medical assistant in an emergency?
A) Providing emergency first aid
B) Patient interviews
C) Helping calm victims
D) Documenting services provided
Q3) What is the proper sequence of events that should occur in responding to a fire?
A) Rescue, activate, confine, extinguish/evacuate
B) Activate, rescue, confine, extinguish/evacuate
C) Confine, activate, rescue, extinguish/evacuate
D) Extinguish/evacuate, rescue, activate, confine
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Chapter 50: Obtaining Employment
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Q1) If possible, it is best to limit a résumé to a single page.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On a chronological résumé, a potential employer will assume that any gaps in employment for a woman can be attributed to staying home and raising children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the best example of networking?
A) Meeting your best friend for coffee every week
B) Describing your job search to a friend of the family
C) Dropping by to visit former instructors in your medical assisting program
D) Asking your boyfriend to proofread your résumé for grammar and spelling
Q4) Even if a résumé is submitted to a potential employer electronically, it is still recommended to include a cover letter or e-mail.
A)True
B)False
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