Medical Physiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Physiology is a comprehensive course that explores the fundamental mechanisms governing the function of the human bodys organ systems. Emphasizing the dynamic processes that maintain homeostasis, the course covers cellular physiology, neurophysiology, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, gastrointestinal, endocrine, and reproductive systems. Students delve into how organs interact and respond to internal and external changes, integrating principles of biochemistry and anatomy. Designed for those entering health-related fields, Medical Physiology provides crucial insights into the physiological basis of disease and the science behind clinical practice, fostering a systems-based understanding essential for future healthcare professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Vanders Human Physiology 15th Edition by Eric P. Widmaier Dr
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Chapter 1: Homeostasis: A Framework for Human Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Circadian rhythms are biological rhythms with what main characteristic?
A)They are cyclical,like the 28-day female menstrual cycle.
B)They are cyclical,like the rhythmic beating of the heart.
C)They are voluntary rhythms,like the time you decide to eat lunch each day.
D)They cease to occur when a person is in a dark environment.
E)They repeat approximately every 24 hours,like daily spikes in hormone secretion.
Answer: E
Q2) The types of cells that are specialized to communicate with other cells and control their activities are
A)epithelial cells.
B)muscle cells.
C)connective tissue cells.
D)neurons.
E)Two of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) ________ is the term describing regulation of cellular activity by chemical mediators produced by that same cell.
Answer: Autocrine
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Chapter 2: Chemical Composition of the Body and Its
Relation to Physiology
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Q1) Which chemical group does glucose best fit into?
A)Monosaccharides
B)Disaccharides
C)Polysaccharides
D)Glycoproteins
E)Phospholipids
Answer: A
Q2) What are the two main atoms in lipids,and what type of bonds connect them?
A)Carbon and oxygen,connected by polar covalent bonds.
B)Carbon and hydrogen,connected by non-polar covalent bonds
C)Carbon and hydrogen,connected by ionic bonds
D)Carbon and hydrogen,connected by hydrogen bonds
E)Oxygen and hydrogen,connected by hydrogen bonds
Answer: B
Q3) In general,polar molecules will dissolve in polar solvents,while nonpolar molecules cannot.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Cellular Structure, Proteins, and Metabolic Pathways
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reactions of the Krebs cycle
A)take place in the cytosol of human cells.
B)generate ATP directly by substrate-level phosphorylation.
C)are important for the metabolism of carbohydrates but not other molecules.
D)take place only when no oxygen is present.
E)produce pyruvate and lactate as end products.
Answer: B
Q2) Ammonia is
A)a waste product of fatty acid metabolism.
B)exhaled by the lungs into the air.
C)processed by the liver to form urea,a less toxic compound.
D)a waste product of fatty acid metabolism and is excreted by the kidneys into urine.
E)a polypeptide containing many amino acids.
Answer: C
Q3) Intracellular fluid is defined as the fluid in the cytosol and organelles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Movement of Solutes and Water Across Cell
Membranes
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Q1) Which would be true if substance X was moving into a cell by primary active transport?
A)A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the concentration of X inside the cell increase to 5 millimolar.
B)A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the concentration of X inside the cell increase to 1 millimolar.
C)A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the concentration of X inside the cell decrease to 0.5 millimolar.
D)A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the size of the cell shrink.
E)A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the size of the cell swell.
Q2) Transport of solute molecules across an epithelium is often used to create osmotic pressure and therefore direct the movement of water molecules.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cell Signalling in Physiology
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Q1) Amplification during a second-messenger cascade is beneficial because amplification
A)takes small molecules and makes polymers out of them.
B)results in the production of more of the first messenger.
C)allows a cell to respond to more different hormones.
D)allows small amounts of hormones to produce large responses in target cells.
Q2) First messengers may bind to a membrane receptor that is an ion channel,which promotes a change in membrane polarity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some glucose transport proteins can also bind fructose,another six-carbon monosaccharide,but not lycine,an amino acid,because transport proteins exhibit ________ for their ligands.
A)saturation
B)competition
C)affinity
D)affiliation
E)specificity
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Chapter 6: Neuronal Signaling and the Structure of the
Nervous
System
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Q1) A genetic mutation that results in faulty SNARE receptor protein complexes would have only very mild effects on the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is TRUE about the Na ,K ATPase pump in neurons?
A)It generates a small electrical potential such that the inside is made negative with respect to the outside.
B)It maintains a concentration gradient for K such that diffusion forces favor movement of K into the cell.
C)It maintains an electrical gradient at the equilibrium potential of K .
D)It transports equal numbers of sodium and potassium ions with each pump cycle.
E)It pumps 3 Na ions into the cell for every 2 K ions it pumps out.
Q3) Which is one of the major inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS?
A)Glutamate
B)Dopamine
C)Norepinephrine
D)Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
E)Beta-endorphin
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Chapter 7: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The density of receptors in a receptive field is usually greatest in the periphery of the field.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Your fingertips are highly sensitive,yet geographically small areas of your body.You expect the area of the somatosensory cortex that receives afferent stimuli from them to be quite small as well.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is TRUE about receptor potentials?
A)They are action potentials.
B)They always trigger action potentials.
C)They vary in magnitude with stimulus strength.
D)They propagate without decrement.
E)They generally occur at the axon hillock of afferent neurons.
Q4) The response of a bipolar cell,that is whether it acts to bring about an "ON pathway" or an "OFF pathway," depends on the amount of glutamate released by photoreceptor cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Consciousness, the Brain, and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) A brainstem nucleus that is strongly implicated in the mechanism for selective attention is the locus ceruleus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are counseling a pair of tired parents.All three of their children have been waking in the night frequently for the past few months.You ask them several questions about their parenting habits,which of the following might be the problem?
A)Their kids are growing.
B)Their kids are talking too much before bed and becoming excited.
C)Their kids are going to bed hungry.
D)Their nighttime baths are too hot,elevating their body temperatures.
E)Their kids are genetically predisposed to nightwaking.
Q3) A drug that blocks dopamine receptors is likely to be addictive.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Neurotransmitters involved in the reward pathways include enkephalin,dopamine,and epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Muscle
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Q1) In a laboratory experiment you have treated a muscle cell with a calcium channel blocker.The membrane still depolarizes,but the concentration of calcium never increases in the cytosol.Which of the following describes what will happen next?
A)Only one cross-bridge cycle will occur but no second cycle.
B)Binding of myosin to actin will take place.
C)Tropomyosin will continue to cover the myosin binding sites on actin and no cross-bridges will form.
D)A single twitch in skeletal muscle but no sustained contraction.
E)Contraction will occur,but the muscle will be stuck in the contracted state and unable to relax.
Q2) Rigor mortis is caused by
A)buildup of lactic acid.
B)lack of Ca² .
C)depletion of glycogen.
D)lack of ATP.
E)deficient acetylcholine receptors.
Q3) Actin has an ATPase enzyme.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Control Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is TRUE about reflexes initiated by muscle spindle activation?
A)They have a monosynaptic component.
B)They result in activation of gamma motor neurons.
C)They result in activation of extrafusal muscle fibers.
D)The "knee-jerk" reflex is an example.
E)They inhibit the activation of muscles that are stretched.
Q2) Why do people with Parkinson's disease experience resting tremors?
A)Damage to the cerebellum alternately activates agonist/antagonist muscle pairs.
B)Excess glutamate is released in the premotor areas of the motor cortex.
C)Dopamine-secreting tumors directly activate alpha motor neurons.
D)Acetylcholinesterase at neuromuscular junctions is inactivated.
E)Activation of the sensorimotor cortex is reduced when the substantia nigra fails to deliver dopamine to the basal nuclei.
Q3) You are a neurosurgeon exploring a patient's right primary motor cortex during awake brain surgery.As you stimulate various areas,you are asking the operating room nurses to watch for the resulting muscle contractions on the left side of the patient's body.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) It's final exam time and you're finding yourself extremely stressed out.If we examined your blood,which of the following would we be likely to find?
A)Increased secretion of corticotropin from the anterior pituitary
B)Increased secretion of corticotropin from the hypothalamus
C)Increased secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)from the hypothalamus
D)Negative feedback to the adrenal cortex by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
E)Decreased secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)by the hypothalamus
Q2) Growth hormone secretion is stimulated by exercise.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which would result from a vitamin D deficiency?
A)Hypercalcemia
B)An increase in bone mass
C)An increase in parathyroid hormone levels
D)Increased intestinal absorption of calcium
Q4) Dietary protein is necessary to achieve normal growth in infants and children.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly compares the factors involved in bulk flow of fluid in systemic and pulmonary capillaries?
A)The protein oncotic pressure inside pulmonary capillaries is significantly greater.
B)There are no lymphatic vessels to remove fluid from lung interstitial fluid.
C)The hydrostatic pressure inside pulmonary capillaries is significantly lower.
D)The protein oncotic pressure is lower in pulmonary interstitial fluid than in typical systemic interstitial fluid.
E)The Starling's forces overwhelmingly favor reabsorption all along the length of pulmonary capillaries.
Q2) Parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine onto cells in the atria of the heart,but not onto cells of the ventricles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases action potential conduction velocity through the AV node.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Respiratory Physiology
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Q1) Following strenuous exercise,blood levels of lactic acid are ________ compared to pre-exercise levels.This change in acid concentration causes a reflex ________ in ventilation by activating ________.
A)decreased;decrease;peripheral chemoreceptors
B)decreased;decrease;central chemoreceptors
C)increased;increase;baroreceptors in the aortic arch
D)increased;increase;central chemoreceptors
E)increased;increase;peripheral chemoreceptors
Q2) Which of the following drugs,administered as an aerosol spray,would be most likely to help a patient during an asthmatic attack?
A)Pulmonary surfactant
B)A -adrenergic agonist
C)A muscarinic agonist
D)Histamine
E)A -adrenergic antagonist
Q3) In the systemic circulation,the PO of arterial blood exceeds the PO of venous blood,while the reverse is true for the pulmonary circulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Kidneys and Regulation of Water and Inorganic Ions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the rate-limiting (regulated)step for stimulating the secretion of aldosterone?
A)Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in the blood
B)Secretion of angiotensinogen by the liver
C)Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I in the blood
D)Secretion of ACTH by the anterior pituitary
E)Secretion of angiotensin II by the kidney
Q2) Atrial distension is a stimulus for the secretion of atrial natriuretic factor,which stimulates the reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You are an EMT and arrive at the scene of an opioid overdose.The overdose victim is breathing extremely slowly and shallowly.When you arrive at the ER,you report that the medical team should watch out for signs of
A)metabolic acidosis.
B)respiratory acidosis.
C)metabolic alkalosis.
D)respiratory alkalosis.
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Chapter 15: The Digestion and Absorption of Food
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Q1) Suzanne is really into yoga.She has a goal of spending an entire day in an inverted (upside down)position.To do this,she'll need to eat in the inverted position.Unfortunately,because food moves from the pharynx to the stomach by gravity alone,she will find it impossible to eat while inverted.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Regurgitation of food from the stomach into the esophagus
A)is ordinarily inhibited by the upper esophageal sphincter.
B)causes irritation of the esophageal mucosa.
C)is called retropulsion,and is essential for gastric digestion.
D)is ordinarily prevented by the lower esophageal sphincter.
E)is called secondary peristalsis.
Q3) In general,sympathetic stimulation increases gastric secretion and motility,while parasympathetic stimulation decreases these two processes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Flatus is primarily a result of air being swallowed with food.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Regulation of Organic Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Q1) Pituitary growth hormone has effects on protein metabolism similar to those of insulin,but its effects on carbohydrate and lipid metabolism are similar to those of elevated cortisol.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During exercise,glucose uptake by muscle cells is increased because of increased insulin secretion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cholesterol is metabolized to bile salts in the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During the postabsorptive phase of metabolism
A)glycogen in muscle cells is broken down to glucose,which is released into the blood.
B)liver glycogen is broken down to glucose,which is released into the blood.
C)triacylglycerols in adipose tissue are broken down to glucose by lipolysis.
D)the liver exports lactate to the muscles,which use it for fuel.
E)glycerol and fatty acids are rapidly assembled into triglycerides in adipose tissue.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Reproduction
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Q1) During meiosis,crossing-over results in the exchange of homologous genes from one of a pair of chromatids to the other with no net change in possibilities for genetic expression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The acrosome reaction is triggered by
A)deposition of sperm into the female reproductive tract.
B)capacitation of sperm.
C)estrogen.
D)binding of the heads of sperm to the zona pellucida.
E)the first meiotic reduction division of the ovum.
Q3) The follicular phase of the ovarian cycle coincides with which phase or phases of the uterine cycle?
A)Both the menstrual phase and the secretory phase
B)The secretory phase
C)Both the follicular phase and the secretory phase
D)Both the proliferative phase and the secretory phase
E)Both the menstrual phase and the proliferative phase
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Chapter 18: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is TRUE regarding the immune system cells?
A)Plasma cells are derived from T cells.
B)Macrophages are derived from basophils.
C)Macrophages are derived from monocytes.
D)The immune cells found within the bloodstream are called erythrocytes.
E)Neutrophils are classified as lymphoid cells.
Q2) Adaptive immune responses differ from innate immune responses in that the former are mediated by lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The appearance of the signs and symptoms of AIDS in an HIV-infected individual generally appear after the virus has had enough time to replicate within host tissue cells and to cause death and destruction of cells critical to mounting a normal immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q4) HIV preferentially attacks cytotoxic T cells.
A)True
B)False
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