Medical Physiology
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Medical Physiology explores the fundamental mechanisms by which the human body functions, focusing on the integration of systems at cellular, tissue, organ, and systemic levels. The course covers essential topics including cell physiology, neurophysiology, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, gastrointestinal, endocrine, and reproductive systems, emphasizing homeostatic control and adaptation to challenges. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory exercises, and clinical case studies, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of normal body processes and foundational knowledge essential for recognizing and addressing pathophysiological conditions in medical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are designing a study to assess the effects of a new treatment for hypertension.What ethical considerations would you employ when monitoring your progress?
Answer: Major considerations should involve assessing the efficacy of the treatment such that the control group patients are not deprived as well as ensuring that the experimental treatment is not less effective than the standard treatments.
Q2) Refer to Table 1.3.
A.Write a hypothesis regarding the effects of breakfast consumption on reaction time.
B.What is the dependent variable? What is the independent variable?
Answer: A.A prediction such as "Eating breakfast prior to testing improves reaction time of subjects (compared to subjects who did not eat breakfast)" is appropriate.
B.The independent variable is breakfast consumption; the dependent variable is reaction time.
Q3) Why is it necessary to label the axes of a graph?
Answer: A graph with no axis labels is meaningless-without knowing what trend is being illustrated, there is no communication of scientific information.
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Solutions are formed with water and ________ solutes which dissolve in them.
Answer: hydrophilic
Q2) Your swimming buddy, Mario, jumped into a pool parallel to the water surface.When he stood up, he yelled "ouch," and you noticed that the skin on his chest and belly looked red and irritated.How would you describe the properties of water to explain to Mario why this happened? Why doesn't it hurt when pool water is penetrated perpendicular to the surface, as with a hands-first or feet-first dive?
Answer: Because Mario was parallel to the water surface, the force of his mass was spread out over a relatively large area of the water, making the force per unit water lower than in a typical dive.The surface tension of water, while not strong enough to keep Mario from penetrating the water surface, was strong enough to momentarily resist him.The force of the water pushing back on Mario, however briefly, was enough to cause pain.In a typical dive position, the force of Mario's entire mass is spread only over a tiny area of the water, and thus the force per unit water surface is greater.This higher force is sufficient to immediately break the hydrogen bonds and overcome the surface tension.
Q3) When a nitrogenous base is bonded to a pentose sugar and a phosphate, a ________ is formed.
Answer: nucleotide
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4
Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common types of cancer in America include colon cancer, skin cancer, breast cancer, cervical cancer, and prostate cancer.What do all of these cancers have in common and why are they so prevalent in our society?
Answer: All of these structures have epithelial tissue that is reproducing at a rapid rate.Because they undergo mitosis so often if a failure of apoptosis occurs or if a mutation alters the DNA of one of the cells, the new copies of the existing cells will cause an increase in the cancerous cells at a much faster rate than in other tissues that divide at a much slower rate.
Q2) The types of junction proteins important in nerve growth and development are
A) claudins.
B) occludins.
C) CAMs.
D) connexins.
E) integrins.
Answer: C
Q3) Describe the progression of a fertilized egg, from totipotent cell through pluripotent and multipotent stem cells.How might stem cells be of therapeutic value? What is plasticity?
Answer: This is discussed in the "Tissue Remodeling"
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) An enzyme that transfers chemical groups among substrates is a
A) hydrolase.
B) lipase.
C) transferase.
D) ligase.
E) kinase.
Q2) Chemical reactions that release energy are said to be ________.
Q3) The ________ is the portion of the mRNA that contains the coding sequence of the gene.
Q4) The protein in the mitochondria that captures the kinetic energy of moving H ions and converts it to the stored energy of ATP is called
A) ATP synthase.
B) lactate dehydrogenase.
C) oxidative phosphorylase.
D) glucokinase.
Q5) The ________ of glycogen from many glucose molecules is an ________ reaction.
A) decomposition, endergonic
B) synthesis, exergonic
C) decomposition, exergonic
D) synthesis, endergonic
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membrane protein pores that can be opened and closed are called ________ channels.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT involved in creating the resting potential of a neuron?
A) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell
B) diffusion of sodium ions into the cell
C) resting membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions
D) resting membrane permeability for potassium ions greater than sodium ions
Q3) You mix one liter of 300 mOsM NaCl with two liters 450 mOsM glucose.
A.What is the osmolarity of the new solution?
B.What is the final osmolarity of the NaCl in the new solution?
C.What is the final osmolarity of glucose in the new solution?
D.What is the tonicity of this new solution compared to a red blood cell with 300 mOsM nonpenetrating solute?
Q4) Hyposmotic solutions
A) have higher concentrations of solutes than hyperosmotic solutions.
B) have lower concentrations of solutes than other hyposmotic solutions.
C) have the same concentration of solutes as hyperosmotic solutions.
D) have lower concentrations of solutes than hyperosmotic solutions.
E) None of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A few gases are known to act as signal molecules, including ________, ________, and ________.
Q2) When epinephrine combines with alpha adrenergic receptors on smooth muscle in intestinal blood vessels, the blood vessels ________; however, when epinephrine binds to beta-2 adrenergic receptors on certain skeletal muscle blood vessels, the vessels
Q3) Cells that respond to signals are usually called A) responders.
B) receivers.
C) targets.
D) contacts.
E) junctions.
Q4) All molecules secreted by nerve cells (neuromodulators, neurotransmitters, and neurohormones)are known as ________.
Q5) Blood glucose levels are kept fairly steady in healthy people through the action of the hormones insulin and glucagon.Insulin decreases blood glucose by promoting glucose uptake by cells, whereas glucagon increases blood glucose by promoting release of glucose from cells.Describe these hormone actions as simple reflex pathways, identifying the stimulus, integrating center, efferent pathway, and response.
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) adrenal medulla
A)prolactin
B)insulin
C)aldosterone
D)melatonin
E)calcitonin
F)Epinephrine
Q2) Candace is a normal-looking 15-year-old girl but has never had a menstrual period, though she has other signs of puberty such as breasts and pubic and axillary hair.During a pelvic exam her physician determines that she has no uterus.Blood tests reveal that she has elevated amounts of testosterone in her blood, similar to that expected in young adult males.Name two typical sources of testosterone.Given the lack of a uterus, what is the likely source of testosterone in this case? What may be wrong with her? (Hint: Consider general principles of hormone secretion and action.)Why is there no uterus? What genetic test may confirm this suspicion?
Q3) How does the embryological origin of the two distinct parts of the pituitary gland relate to the control of secretion and the types of hormones produced?
Q4) The study of hormones is known as the field of ________.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) Action potentials are primarily associated with the membranes of A) dendrites only.
B) cell bodies only.
C) axons only.
D) dendrites and axons.
E) cell bodies and axons.
Q2) Why are mitochondria necessary at axon terminals?
Q3) oligodendrocytes
A)central nervous system
B)peripheral nervous system
Q4) A damaged neuron has a better chance of survival and repair if the ________ is/are undamaged.
A) cell body
B) axon
C) dendrites
D) Schwann cells
E) axon and dendrites
Q5) satellite cells
A)central nervous system
B)peripheral nervous system
10
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) unmyelinated, consists of cell bodies, dendrites, and axon terminals
A)gray matter
B)white matter
C)ascending tracts
D)descending tracts
E)propriospinal tracts
Q2) Symptoms of the fight-or-flight reaction include all of these EXCEPT
A) hunger.
B) pounding heart.
C) sweating palms.
D) increased blood pressure.
E) pupillary dilation.
Q3) all lobes
A)primary somatic sensory cortex
B)visual cortex
C)auditory cortex
D)association areas
Q4) corpus callosum
A)structure is composed of gray matter
B)structure is composed of white matter
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nociceptors activate ________ pathways that provide protection by allowing rapid responses to noxious stimuli.
Q2) A sudden flash of bright light would cause
A) parasympathetic activation to contract the pupillary constrictor muscles.
B) sympathetic activation to contract the pupillary constrictor muscles.
C) parasympathetic activation to contract the pupillary dilator muscles.
D) sympathetic activation to contract the pupillary dilator muscles.
E) contraction of the ciliary muscle.
Q3) Identify the False statement regarding sensory receptor cells.
A) Threshold is the minimal stimulus intensity required to generate an action potential.
B) Sensory transduction converts stimulus energy into a receptor potential.
C) Each type of sensory receptor responds only to the stimulus that defines the receptor.
D) A graded potential is referred to as a receptor potential.
E) Many sensory receptor cells are NOT nerve cells.
Q4) Endolymph is a unique fluid in the cochlear duct that contains more ________ and less ________ than the typical extracellular fluid.
Q5) Discuss the structure of the retina, including any distinguishing "regions."
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Dual innervation" refers to an organ receiving
A) two nerves from the spinal cord.
B) both autonomic and somatomotor nerves.
C) both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves.
D) nerves from both the brain and the spinal cord.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) The adrenal medulla is closely allied with this system.
A)True only for the sympathetic division
B)True only for the parasympathetic division
C)True for both divisions
Q3) target receptor for preganglionic neurons
A)acetylcholine
B)norepinephrine
C)cholinergic nicotinic receptor
D)adrenergic receptor
E)cholinergic muscarinic receptor
Q4) It is important during stress or emergencies (fight-or-flight).
A)True only for the sympathetic division
B)True only for the parasympathetic division
C)True for both divisions
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Chapter 12: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Smooth muscle cells of blood vessels are described as integrating centers.Outline the various inputs that affect smooth muscle cells and how those are integrated.
Q2) Sketch and label a relaxed sarcomere, then draw the same sarcomere in a contracted state.The myofilaments may be represented as simple lines.
Q3) The interaction between Ca² and calmodulin in smooth muscle cells has been described as a second messenger system.Develop an argument to support this position, using another second messenger system you have studied for comparison.
Q4) the muscle cell membrane
A)muscle fiber
B)fascicle
C)sarcolemma
D)myofibril
E)t-tubules
Q5) A(n)________ contraction describes the opening of stretch-activated channels in smooth muscle cells in response to a distortion of the cell membrane that is commonly observed in ________.
Q6) Store-operated calcium channels open in response to ________.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most reflexes are regulated by ________.
Q2) Upon testing the knee jerk reflex during a routine physical, a nurse notices that the reflex is hyperactive.What could be the explanation for this? If instead the reflex was hypoactive, what may the nurse conclude?
Q3) our experiences tell us how to behave; bracing yourself in anticipation would be an example
A)somatic
B)autonomic
C)spinal
D)cranial
E)innate
F)acquired
G)polysynaptic
Q4) In order to flex a limb, the extensors must first be relaxed and vice versa.This is done by a process called ________.
Q5) The motor neurons associated with intrafusal muscle fibers are referred to as ________ motor neurons.
Q6) ________ reflexes involve skeletal muscles.
Q7) ________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints.
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Starling's law of the heart, the cardiac output is directly related to the A) size of the ventricle.
B) heart rate.
C) venous return.
D) thickness of the myocardium.
E) end-systolic volume.
Q2) If there is a blockage between the AV node and the AV bundle, how will this affect the appearance of the electrocardiogram?
A) The PR interval will be smaller.
B) The QRS interval will be longer.
C) There will be more P waves than QRS complexes.
D) There will be more QRS complexes than P waves.
E) The T wave will disappear.
Q3) Drugs known as beta blockers will
A) increase heart rate.
B) decrease heart rate.
C) increase stroke volume.
D) increase cardiac output.
E) decrease the end-systolic volume.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lymphatic system
A) has heart-like pumps called lymph nodes.
B) stores blood when circulatory demand is low.
C) empties the lymph vessels into the veins near the clavicles.
D) can be removed without health consequences.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) Fenestrated capillaries are present in
A) skeletal muscles.
B) cardiac muscle.
C) the liver.
D) the spleen.
E) skin.
Q3) Restoring lost fluid from the capillaries back to the circulatory system is one of the major functions of the ________ system.
A) urinary
B) thirst-quenching
C) lymphatic
D) immune
E) digestive
Q4) Define and describe the mechanism of myogenic autoregulation.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common pathway of coagulation begins with the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.
C) release of tissue factor by a damaged endothelium.
D) activating of a clotting factor that converts prothrombin to thrombin.
E) activation of a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
Q2) The porphyrin ring of heme contains an atom of A) magnesium.
B) calcium.
C) iron.
D) sodium.
E) copper.
Q3) Under normal circumstances, aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by the A) spleen.
B) yellow bone marrow. C) kidneys.
D) digestive tract.
E) thymus gland.
Q4) What is a differential white cell count and when is it used?
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Q5) What is the difference between hemostasis and homeostasis, or are they the same?
Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ is an instrument that measures the volume of air moved with each breath.
Q2) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract,
A) expiration occurs.
B) intrapulmonary pressure increases.
C) intrapleural pressure decreases.
D) the volume of the lungs decreases.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Pulmonary ventilation refers to the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
C) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space.
D) movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells.
E) utilization of oxygen.
Q4) How would a spirometer tracing be different in a person with a collapsed lung? Why? What must occur to restore the respiratory function to normal?
Q5) In the disease ________, many symptoms are due to destruction of elastic fibers in the lung.
Q6) Distinguish between intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressure.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) A molecule that blocks the activity of carbonic anhydrase would
A) interfere with oxygen binding to hemoglobin.
B) cause an increase in blood pH.
C) increase the amount of bicarbonate formed in the blood.
D) decrease the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately ________ mm Hg.
A) 40
B) 45
C) 50
D) 70
E) 100
Q3) At a PO of 70 mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is ________% saturated with oxygen.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
E) over 90
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urine is carried to the external environment by the ________.
Q2) The process of filtration in the kidney is most accurately described as A) highly specific.
B) completely nonspecific.
C) relatively nonspecific.
Q3) Which statement is NOT True?
A) The blood supply to the kidneys comes through the renal arteries.
B) As much as one fourth of the cardiac output may flow to the kidneys at any given moment.
C) The kidneys do not reabsorb filtered waste products.
D) The urinary bladder is filled by two ducts, called ureters, and emptied by the single urethra.
E) Women are more likely to develop urinary tract infections than men.
Q4) Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed by A) diffusion.
B) symport with sodium.
C) cotransport.
D) countertransport.
Q5) Trace a drop of water through the urinary system, beginning with the plasma in the renal artery.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) AQP2 water pores are added to the cell membrane by ________ and withdrawn by ________ in a process known as ________.
A) exocytosis, endocytosis, membrane recycling
B) endocytosis, exocytosis, membrane recycling
C) membrane recycling, exocytosis, endocytosis
D) membrane recycling, endocytosis, exocytosis
Q2) The two organ systems that work together to regulate most aspects of the body's water balance are
A) digestive and respiratory.
B) urinary and respiratory.
C) cardiovascular and respiratory.
D) urinary and cardiovascular.
E) digestive and cardiovascular.
Q3) A rise in angiotensin II levels would result in increased
A) blood pressure.
B) retention of sodium ions at the kidney.
C) water retention.
D) blood volume.
E) All of these effects.
Q4) How do kidneys alter urine concentration?
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protein digestion is completed here.
A)mouth
B)stomach
C)rectum
D)small intestine
E)large intestine
Q2) G cells of the stomach secrete A) cholecystokinin.
B) secretin.
C) gastrin.
D) enterokinase.
E) pepsin.
Q3) The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the A) serosa.
B) adventitia.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) mucosa.
E) submucosa.
Q4) Defects in which channel lead to the disease cystic fibrosis? Which ion does this channel transport?
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Q1) A diet of pure carbohydrate would produce an RQ of ________.
Q2) GLUT4 transporters are
A) only stored in cytoplasmic vesicles.
B) only inserted in response to glucagon.
C) only inserted into the plasma membrane by endocytosis.
D) only found in adipose and skeletal muscles.
E) stored in cytoplasmic vesicles and found in adipose and skeletal muscles.
Q3) Diet-induced thermogenesis is highest after ingestion of A) spicy foods, like jalapeno peppers.
B) fats.
C) proteins.
D) carbohydrates.
Q4) ________ are lipoproteins that are formed in the intestine to carry lipids into circulation.
Q5) The synthesis of glucose from a noncarbohydrate precursor is referred to as A) glycogenesis.
B) glycogenolysis.
C) glycolysis.
D) gluconeogenesis.
E) glycogen.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following could describe the function of 11 Beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase?
A) An enzyme located in renal tubules that acts on cortisol.
B) It converts cortisol to a less active form.
C) It aids in preventing crossover effects from cortisol.
D) It converts cortisol to a form with a lower specificity for mineralocorticoid receptors there.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q2) Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone
A) calcitonin.
B) thyroid hormone.
C) parathyroid hormone.
D) growth hormone.
E) testosterone.
Q3) Crossover effects are sometimes seen among
A) most hormones.
B) all hormones.
C) peptide/protein hormones.
D) steroid hormones.
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics are drugs that destroy or inhibit the growth of A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) multicellular pathogens such as hookworms.
D) viruses and bacteria.
E) viruses, bacteria, and multicellular pathogens such as hookworms.
Q2) A substance that induces fever is known as a(n)
A) opsonin.
B) chemotaxin.
C) acute phase protein.
D) pyrogen.
E) cytokine.
Q3) ________ have been found to be the precursor cells of macrophages.
A) Eosinophils
B) Basophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Monocytes
E) Lymphocytes
Q4) ________ are fixed macrophages located in the epithelia of the skin.
Q5) Compare and contrast the roles of cytotoxic T cells and NK cells.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Redistribution of blood flow during exercise results from A) vasodilation only.
B) vasoconstriction only.
C) vasodilation in skeletal muscle and vasoconstriction in viscera.
D) vasoconstriction in skeletal muscle and vasodilation in viscera.
Q2) Exercise hyperventilation results from signals from
A) muscle and joint mechanoreceptors and proprioceptors only.
B) the carotid body chemoreceptors only.
C) activating pulmonary stretch receptors only.
D) muscle and joint mechanoreceptors and proprioceptors and from the carotid body chemoreceptors.
E) muscle and joint mechanoreceptors and proprioceptors, the carotid body chemoreceptors, and activating pulmonary stretch receptors.
Q3) During exercise, skeletal muscle receives approximately ________% of blood flow.Where is this blood redistributed from?
Q4) arterial PO during exercise compared to rest
A)increase
B)decrease
C)no change
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The erectile tissue that immediately surrounds the urethra is the
A) membranous urethra.
B) penile urethra.
C) glans penis.
D) corpus spongiosum.
E) corpus cavernosum.
Q2) Mucus functions as a lubricant in the semen.Which of the following produces mucus?
A) seminiferous tubules
B) prostate gland
C) seminal vesicle
D) bulbourethral glands
E) epididymis
Q3) Identify the False statement.
A) Androgens control the development of reproductive organs in the male fetus.
B) Estrogens control the development of the reproductive organs in the female fetus.
C) Females have one less active chromosome than males.
D) Gametogenesis begins in the female fetus.
E) Meiosis is never completed in most oocytes.
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