Medical Physics
Test Bank
Course Introduction
Medical Physics explores the application of physics concepts, techniques, and methods to the diagnosis and treatment of human disease. The course covers fundamental topics such as radiation physics, imaging technologies (including X-ray, CT, MRI, and ultrasound), radiation therapy, dosimetry, and the principles of nuclear medicine. Students learn how various medical technologies operate, the physical principles underpinning these tools, and the safety measures necessary to protect both patients and healthcare workers. Emphasis is placed on the integration of physics in medical innovation, quality assurance, regulatory frameworks, and advancements in patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy 4th Edition by Washington
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38 Chapters
954 Verified Questions
954 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cancer: An Overview
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following biopsy methods cannot evaluate tumor architecture?
A) Fine needle aspiration
B) Core needle
C) Incisional
D) Excisional
Answer: A
Q2) What is the "workup"?
A) The initial nursing visit
B) The initial physician visit
C) A series of diagnostic examinations
D) A physical assessment of the patient
Answer: C
Q3) What is defined as the "study of the cause of disease"?
A) Etiology
B) Etymology
C) Epidemiology
D) Entomology
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Ethics and Legal Considerations of Cancer Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient/provider relationship model is best represented by the informed consent process?
A) Engineering
B) Priestly
C) Collegial
D) Contractual
E) Covenant
Answer: D
Q2) A civil lawsuit is punishable by which of the following?
A) Loss of property
B) Loss of liberty
C) Loss of life
D) All of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is a theory of ethics developed by Immanuel Kant?
A) Virtue ethics
B) Communitarianism
C) Contextual ethics
D) Deontology
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Principles of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would likely be a stage I tumor?
A) T1 N0 M0
B) T2 N1 M0
C) T3 N2 M0
D) T3 N1 M1
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a malignant tumor?
A) Grows by local invasion
B) Can be life threatening
C) Grows rapidly
D) Malignant cells are encapsulated with fibrous tissue
Answer: D
Q3) The cancer of chimney sweeps identified by Percival Pott in mid-eighteenth-century England was related to which of the following chemicals?
A) Hydrocarbons
B) Asbestos
C) Arsenic
D) Nitrosamines
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Overview of Radiobiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does oxygen retention affect radiosensitivity?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) No change
D) Varies by tissue
Q2) Which of the following terms describes the separation of water into hydrogen and oxygen following exposure to radiation?
A) Radiolysis
B) Radioactivity
C) Ionization
D) Duplication
Q3) The tolerance dose TD 50/5 for the lens of the eye is __________ to/than the TD 5/5 for the lens of the eye
A) less
B) greater
C) equivalent
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6
Chapter 5: Detection and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Cancer Society strongly recommends mass screening for all except which of the following?
A) Breast cancer
B) Lung cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Colorectal cancer
Q2) A subjective indication of a disease or a change in condition as perceived by the patient is a ________.
A) sign
B) symptom
C) syndrome
D) screening
Q3) A physician used auscultation, the act of listening to sounds within the body.The instrument often used in this procedure is the ____________.
A) sphygmomanometer
B) stethoscope
C) pulse oximeter
D) flowmeter
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Chapter 6: Medical Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Components of a modern x-ray tube include which of the following?
A) Cathode filament
B) Rotating anode
C) Glass envelope
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following modalities does not use radiation in image production and acquisition?
A) CT
B) Nuclear medicine
C) MRI
D) Mammography
Q3) Additive pathologies affect tissue density such that the affected anatomy may appear _________ on the radiograph.
A) lighter than normal
B) darker than normal
C) unchanged
D) hypoechoic
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Chapter 7: Treatment Delivery Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the half-life of a cobalt 60 source?
A) 30 years
B) 1,600 years
C) 5.26 years
D) 74.2 days
Q2) Image-guided radiation therapy (IGRT)can be accomplished with
I.ultrasound units
II.computed tomography (CT)scanner
III.kV imager
IV.cone beam
V.simulator
A) I, III, and IV
B) II, III, and V
C) I, II, III, and IV
D) III, IV, and V
Q3) Of the following treatment units, which has the least amount of skin sparing?
A) Orthovoltage
B) Cobalt
C) 4 MV beam
D) 10 MV beam
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Chapter 8: Treatment Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical situations do not lend themselves to the reproducible placement of localization marks?
I.Mobile skin surfaces
II.Elderly or obese patients
III.Areas covered by dressings
IV.Sloping surfaces such as the breast
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) I, II, and III
D) I, II, III, and IV
Q2) Informed consent consists of which of the following?
I.Purpose
II.Treatment alternatives
III.Benefits and risks
IV.Disclaimer
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) I, II, and III
D) I, II, III, and IV
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Radiation Oncology Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should Standard Precautions be used?
A) When exposure to blood is likely
B) When exposure to saliva is likely
C) During all patient care procedures
D) During patient procedures requiring sterile asepsis
Q2) Which of the following is the term used to indicate the number of antibodies present in a blood sample?
A) Vaccine
B) Titers
C) Pathogens
D) Antibiotics
Q3) Which of the following is the ability of an infectious agent to cause clinical disease?
A) Virulence
B) Incubation
C) Pathogenicity
D) Convalescence
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11
Chapter 10: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skin reactions include all except which of the following?
A) Erythema
B) Alopecia
C) Dry desquamation
D) Moist desquamation
Q2) Special attention is needed in caring for which of the following?
A) Elderly
B) Children
C) Adolescents
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the 10 most commonly used and helpful verbal responses?
A) Reflecting
B) Confronting
C) Repeating
D) Summarizing
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Pharmacology and Drug Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiolucent contrast agents are those that ______________________.
A) appear dark on x-ray
B) appear white on x-ray
C) have high atomic numbers
D) absorb x-ray photons easily
Q2) An allergic reaction to the administration of certain drugs may cause urticaria.Urticaria describes ________________.
A) pain
B) hives
C) nausea
D) fainting
Q3) Intrathecal administration means that medications are injected directly into which of the following?
A) Brain
B) Spinal canal
C) Bone joint
D) Urinary bladder
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Chapter 12: Applied Mathematics Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transposition of numbers in a patient's chart is an example of which type of error?
A) Systematic
B) Random
C) Blunder
D) None of the above
Q2) Find the log of log453.
A) 2.656
B) 6.116
C) -19.08
D) 8.752
Q3) Solve for x in the equation x<sup>8</sup>/x<sup>6</sup> = 100.
A) -10
B) ±10
C) 10
D) 1
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Chapter 13: Introduction to Radiation Therapy Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common photon interaction that occurs in the energy range used in radiation therapy?
A) Photoelectric
B) Compton
C) Photodisintegration
D) Thomson
Q2) The number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus is known as _______________.
A) atomic weight
B) strong force
C) atomic mass number
D) nuclear stability
Q3) There are four major quantities that are important in radiation physics.They are radiation exposure, radiation absorbed dose, radiation dose equivalent, and
A) radioactivity
B) magnetism
C) electromagnetism
D) frequency
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Aspects of Brachytherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the half-life of gold 198?
A) 27 days
B) 27 years
C) 2.7 days
D) 3.8 days
Q2) The radioisotope used to treat uveal melanoma of the eye is _________________.
A) iridium 192
B) cesium 137
C) gold 198
D) iodine 125
Q3) The radionuclide with radon as its daughter product is __________________.
A) cobalt 60
B) cesium 137
C) iridium 192
D) radium 226
Q4) The average or mean life of iridium 192 is __________ days.
A) 51
B) 74
C) 107
D) 148
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Chapter 15: Special Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electronic portal imaging devices (EPID)can ___________________.
I.use MV and kV
II.take orthogonal images
III.send images to multiple locations
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) I and III
D) I, II, and III
Q2) Stereotactic treatments have been improved on linear accelerators because of which of the following advances?
A) High-quality in-room imaging
B) Tighter mechanical specifications
C) Small field treatments
D) Only a and b
Q3) Cranial stereotactic treatments began with which of the following?
A) Cyber knife
B) Proton accelerator
C) Gamma knife
D) SBRT
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Particle Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is one common characteristic for uniform and nonuniform scanning systems that they both are able to do?
A) Can also be called intensity modulated proton therapy
B) Geometrically cover the tumor volume with one beam
C) Deliver a uniform dose throughout the tumor with one beam
D) Incorporate simultaneous boosts
Q2) The tumor types treated in the earliest years of proton therapy included those in or near which of the following? (Select two.)
A) Eye
B) Spine
C) Brain
D) Liver
Q3) The water equivalent thickness (WET)of an immobilization device used during proton therapy can affect which of the following attributes of the beam?
A) Linear energy transfer
B) Symmetry
C) Range
D) Energy
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18
Chapter 17: Radiation Safety and Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which agency provides information and recommendations in the public interest concerning radiation measurements and protection?
A) ACR
B) NCRP
C) ALARA
D) AER
Q2) Which particles can be electrons?
A) Alpha particles
B) Beta particles
C) X-rays
D) Gamma-rays
Q3) The monthly dose equivalent limit to an embryo/fetus is ____ mSv.
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 5
D) 50
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Patient Safety in Radiation Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Place the three levels of burnout in progressive order.
I.Depersonalization
II.Emotional exhaustion
III.Reduced personal accomplishment
A) I, II, III
B) II, III, I
C) II, I, III
D) III, II, I
Q2) The step in the plan-do-study-act improvement cycle associated with making adjustments to address a problem is the ______________ step.
A) plan
B) do
C) study
D) act
Q3) Transformational leaders likely focus on the ______________.
A) tasks to be completed
B) methods for completing tasks
C) rationale for tasks
D) reward and punishment
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Quality Improvement in Radiation Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) TJC's indicator measurement system (IM system)focuses primarily on which of the following?
A) Acute inpatient care
B) Quality indicators
C) Electronic data
D) Peer review
Q2) The tolerance for light/radiation field coincidence on the linear accelerator is _____ mm.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) In general, the major components of a QI plan include which of the following?
A) Evaluation of patterns
B) Assessment of individual clinical events
C) Action to be taken to resolve problems
D) Weekly meeting of QI committee
E) a, b, and d
F) a, b, and c
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Surface and Sectional Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lambdoidal suture is formed by which bones?
I.Frontal
II.Sphenoid
III.Parietal
IV.Temporal
V.Occipital
A) I, III
B) I, III.
C) V, III
D) IV, V
Q2) Which organ begins at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage and travels through the diaphragm to the cardiac sphincter?
A) Trachea
B) Bronchus
C) Esophagus
D) None of the above
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22
Chapter 21: Simulator Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the conventional simulator, the _____________ represent(s)the radiation field.
A) blades
B) wires
C) OID
D) collimator assembly
Q2) The Hounsfield unit for fat would be _________________.
A) +1000
B) -500
C) -100
D) 100
Q3) The patient couch tabletop is created out of this material, which has a low density and low x-ray absorption.
A) Plastic carbonate
B) Carbon fiber
C) Steel
D) Polystyrene
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Computed Tomography Simulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using intravenous (IV)contrast to enhance the anatomy of the brain, the best interval for contrast administration should be before the scan by _____________.
A) 30 seconds
B) 60 seconds
C) 30 minutes
D) 60 minutes
Q2) Image registration or fusion has all of the following characteristics except which of the following?
A) It ensures that the patient is in the same position for all scans.
B) It identifies preoperative volume.
C) It is useful for determining the extent of the tumor.
D) It uses two sets of images that are similar.
Q3) What is a maximum intensity projection, or MIP?
A) Measurement of table translation
B) Result of noise on an image
C) Relationship between the matrix size and the pixel size on an image
D) Fused scan that shows the maximum amount of tumor movement during the respiratory cycle
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24
Chapter 23: Photon Dosimetry Concepts and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician prescribes the AP/PA field to be weighted 3:1 for the posterior field.How much dose is coming from the AP and the PA if total dose prescribed is 200 cGy?
A) AP = 50 cGy, PA = 150 cGy
B) AP = 75 cGy, PA = 125 cGy
C) AP = 150 cGy, PA = 50 cGy
D) AP = 175 cGy, PA = 25 cGy
Q2) As the field size increases, the PDD does what?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains the same
D) No effect
Q3) The intensity of a radiation beam is measured at 10 mR/hr at a distance of 20 cm.What will be the intensity of this beam at 30 cm?
A) 22.5 mR/hr
B) 4.44 mR/hr
C) 6.67 mR/hr
D) 15 mR/hr
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25
Chapter 24: Photon Dose Distributions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a plot of target or normal structure volume as a function of dose?
A) BEV
B) DVH
C) DRR
D) REV
Q2) Which of the following accounts for target motion and uncertainty in positioning?
A) GTV
B) CTV
C) PTV
D) Treated volume
Q3) The internal target volume (ITV)is the __________.
A) GTV + CTV
B) CTV + IM
C) PTV - GTV
D) ITV + SM
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Chapter 25: Electron Beams in Radiation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given a mean energy of an electron beam is 6 MeV, what is the depth of the 50% isodose line?
A) 2.5 mm
B) 14.4 mm
C) 2.5 cm
D) 14.4 cm
Q2) Surface dose values for electron beams in the 6- to 20-MeV range vary from
A) 100% to 105%
B) 95% to 100%
C) 80% to 90%
D) 70% to 80%
Q3) To produce a therapeutically useful electron beam, the stream of electrons leaving the electron gun must contact the ___________ before exiting the gantry head.
A) target
B) scattering foil
C) flattening filter
D) mirror and bulb assembly
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Chapter 26: Electronic Charting and Image Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIPAA provides guidelines and regulations for which of the following?
A) Computerizing medical records
B) Patients' right and responsibilities
C) Standards of care
D) Use and disclosure of patient information
Q2) ________ is (are)online management of the entire order tracking and documentation process from order entry to return of results.
A) EMR
B) Computerized physician order entry (CPOE)
C) Medical imaging
D) All of the above
Q3) What are standards of care?
A) Set of education standards for a profession
B) Compilation of the customs and behaviors of a profession
C) Set of moral and religious conduct
D) All of the above
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28
Chapter 27: Bone, Cartilage, and Soft Tissue Sarcomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common form of primary bone cancer?
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Fibrosarcoma
D) Chordoma
Q2) What type of bone marrow is contained in the diaphysis of long bones?
A) Red
B) White
C) Blue
D) Yellow
Q3) Primary bone tumors comprise approximately ___ of all tumors.
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%
Q4) Bone scans are used to evaluate which of the following?
A) Histology of the specimen
B) Spread of metastatic disease
C) Extent of soft tissue involvement
D) None of the above
29
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Chapter 28: Lymphoreticular System Tumors
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Q1) Which treatment field for HD includes the mediastinal lymph node chain?
A) Mantle
B) Inverted-Y (abdominal portion)
C) Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)
D) All of the above
Q2) What is the most common long-term side effect of total lymphoid irradiation?
A) Skin erythema
B) Dysphagia
C) Secondary malignancy
D) Developmental anomalies
Q3) What landmark is typically used to determine the lower border of the mantle field?
A) T10
B) T12
C) Carina
D) Xyphoid
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Chapter 29: Endocrine System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which gland is prolactin (PRL)produced?
A) Pancreas
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
Q2) Which of the following is the most common type of functioning pituitary adenoma?
A) Prolactin secreting
B) Growth hormone secreting
C) TSH secreting
D) Chromophobe adenoma
Q3) Cancer of which of the following endocrine glands has the highest incidence rate?
A) Thyroid
B) Adrenal
C) Pituitary
D) Parathyroid
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Chapter 30: Respiratory System Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What performance status score is assigned to patients with disabilities who require special care and assistance but not hospitalization?
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
E) 60
Q2) What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
A) Immunity
B) Exchange of gases
C) Production of somatostatin
D) Metabolism
Q3) What is the total dose delivered to a primary lung cancer?
A) 3000 cGy
B) 4000 cGy
C) 5000 cGy
D) Greater than 6000 cGy
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Chapter 31: Head and Neck Cancers
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Q1) Which salivary gland is associated with the Stensen duct?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Minor
Q2) What is the most common form of larynx cancer?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Basal cell
C) Squamous cell
D) Transitional cell
Q3) What defines the superior radiation field border for the treatment of a low-staged larynx cancer?
A) Superior aspect of the hyoid
B) Cricoid cartilage
C) Inferior aspect of the mandible
D) Roof of the mouth
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Chapter 32: Central Nervous System Tumors
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Q1) Which of the following beam arrangements is most typical for treatment of a malignant primary brain tumor?
A) Parallel opposed whole brain fields
B) Small fields with 1 to 3 cm margins
C) Oblique fields to include the supraorbital ridge
D) Large fields with 5 to 10 cm margins
Q2) Epilation may be permanent when the cranium is treated beyond the threshold dose of ______ cGy.
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 3000
D) 4000
Q3) What defines the inferior radiation field border for the treatment of the whole brain for palliation?
A) 1-cm flash
B) Superior orbital ridge
C) External auditory meatus
D) Both b and c
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34
Chapter 33: Digestive System Tumors
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Q1) What condition is most closely associated with gastroesophageal reflux?
A) Barrett esophagus
B) Gardner syndrome
C) Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D) Tenesmus
Q2) What is the most common histologic type of cancers that occur in the lower third of the esophagus?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Transitional cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Renal cell carcinoma
Q3) The Whipple is a surgical procedure associated with cancer of which organ?
A) Pancreas
B) Esophagus
C) Stomach
D) Colon
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Chapter 34: Gynecological Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chlamydia infections are a risk factor for developing which female reproductive cancer?
A) Ovarian
B) Cervical
C) Vaginal
D) Vulvar
Q2) Who has the most significant risk of developing ovarian cancer?
A) 35-year-old woman with one child
B) 35-year-old woman with five children
C) 65-year-old woman with one child
D) 65-year-old woman with five children
Q3) What is the common name for the female external genitalia?
A) Vulva
B) Mons pubis
C) Labia
D) Perineum
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Chapter 35: Male Reproductive and Genitourinary Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) A total dose of 7200 cGy in fractions of 180 cGy is used to treat which male reproductive cancer?
A) Prostate
B) Testicle
C) Penis
D) All of the above
Q2) What is the most common form of bladder cancer?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Transitional cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Renal cell carcinoma
Q3) What is the 5-year survival of all stages of prostate cancer combined?
A) 39%
B) 59%
C) 79%
D) 99%
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Chapter 36: Breast Cancer
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Q1) According to the Radiation Therapy Oncology Group bright erythema with patchy, moist desquamation is an example of skin morbidity grade ______.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Q2) What stage is a 6-cm breast cancer in the upper inner quadrant?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
Q3) What T stage is a breast cancer that is a 1.5-cm tumor near the nipple?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
E) T4
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Chapter 37: Pediatric Solid Tumors
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Q1) Which pediatric brain tumor often mimics medulloblastomas?
A) Ependymomas
B) Low-grade astrocytomas
C) High-grade astrocytomas
D) CNS germ cell tumors
Q2) Wilms' tumors are cancers of which organ?
A) Kidney
B) Bone
C) Skeletal muscle
D) Smooth muscle
Q3) Pituitary adenomas in children that are not successfully managed by surgery and hormonal suppression may be treated with radiation using which of the following?
A) Single-field electrons
B) Multiple-field photons
C) HDR brachytherapy
D) Multiple-field electrons
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Chapter 38: Skin Cancers and Melanoma
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Q1) When radiation is used to treat a nonmelanoma skin cancer, which of the following treatment techniques offers the best cosmetic effect?
A) Parallel-opposed high-energy photons
B) Single field low-energy photon
C) Single field low-energy electron
D) Interstitial brachytherapy
Q2) Bolus may be used with electron therapy to _______________.
I.compensate for missing tissue
II.maximize surface dose
III.reduce underlying tissue dose
A) I, III
B) II, III
C) I, II
D) I, II, III
Q3) Which layer of the epidermis contains melanocytes?
A) Stratum basale
B) Stratum spinosum
C) Stratum granulosum
D) Stratum corneum
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Page 40