Course Introduction
Medical Office Procedures
Textbook Exam Questions
Medical Office Procedures provides students with an in-depth understanding of the administrative tasks and protocols essential for effective operation within a medical office environment. The course covers topics such as patient scheduling, medical records management, insurance processing, billing, electronic health records (EHR), communication techniques, confidentiality and compliance with legal and ethical standards. Emphasis is placed on developing professional skills necessary for interacting with patients and healthcare professionals, maintaining a smoothly functioning workplace, and utilizing current office technologies commonly encountered in medical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Comprehensive Medical Assisting 6th Edition by Wilburta Q. Lindh
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47 Chapters
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1893 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Medical Assisting Profession
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the reason a medical assistant should ensure good personal hygiene?
A)Demonstrate a professional appearance
B)Protect clothing from materials
C)Protect patients from dirty clothes
D)Minimize body injury
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following qualities does a medical assistant who continually asks to leave early to go to other appointments need to develop?
A)Flexibility
B)Dependability
C)Initiative
D)Effective communication
Answer: B
Q3) Registration
A) voluntary
B) mandatory
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Health Care Settings and the Health Care Team
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Q1) How many years of a residency program is required for newly graduated M.D.s choosing to specialize in family practice, internal medicine, or pediatrics?
A)2 years
B)3 years
C)4 years
D)5 years
Answer: B
Q2) treats disorders of the ear, nose, and throat
A)emergency medicine
B)internal medicine
C)urology
D)otolaryngology
E)pediatrics
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is NOT considered a type of managed care operation?
A)Health maintenance organization
B)Preferred provider organization
C)Group practices
D)Independent provider association
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Coping Skills for the Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes a technique to prevent stress in the workplace?
A)Use color to create a bright, busy atmosphere.
B)Close the office, but answer the telephone during lunch.
C)Play loud music.
D)Know your limits and be aware of your body's needs.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a change that should take place after you have entered the burnout stage?
A)Change the computer desktop picture.
B)Think of the glass as half empty, instead of half full.
C)Make a concerted effort to say "No" to additional work.
D)Establish some long- and short-term realistic goals.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following best describes how to achieve long-range goals?
A)Set them to be accomplished in less than a year.
B)Do not adjust or change them.
C)Make short-term goals to get there.
D)Stick with the goal no matter what happens.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communication Skills
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Q1) You ask him, "Mr.Kind, how are you coming along on this new diet? " Which of the following best describes this form of communication?
A)Open-ended question
B)Compensation
C)Indirect statement
D)Expressing empathy
Q2) After the physician tells Mrs.James that it is too soon to fill her pain medication, she leaves the office, slamming the door behind her.
A) denial
B) displacement
C) repression
D) projection
E) rationalization
Q3) "Tell me what you have been doing since you retired," is an example of which interview technique?
A)Closed question
B)Indirect statement
C)Direct statement
D)Compensation
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Therapeutic Approach to the Patient With a
Life-Threatening Illness
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Q1) Which of the following is the main reason for discussing patient's needs with the patient?
A)To give the patient power in dealing with the illness
B)To provide the patient all the services he wants
C)To make sure all referrals are made
D)To give the family a patient "to do" list
Q2) allows an individual to make health care decisions for the patient when the patient is unable
A) living will or health care directive
B) durable power of attorney for health care
C) both
Q3) In the acronym TEAR, the "T" stands for which of the following?
A)To experience the pain of the loss
B)To adjust to what was lost
C)To accept the reality of the loss
D)To reinvest in a new reality
Q4) used in making end-of-life decisions to prolong life
A) living will or health care directive
B) durable power of attorney for health care
C) both
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Chapter 6: Legal Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the highest authority in the United States?
A)Contract law
B)Constitutional law
C)Criminal law
D)Civil law
Q2) Which of the following best describes an example of an incompetent party in a contract?
A)Person with a terminal illness
B)Person over 100 years of age
C)Person under the influence of narcotics or alcohol
D)Person who is legally sane
Q3) The provider is legally bound to treat a patient until:
A)the patient discharges from the provider
B)the provider formally withdraws from patient care
C)the patient no longer needs treatment
D)all of the above are correct
Q4) A large amount of money was stolen.
A) subject to criminal law
B) subject to civil law
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Chapter 7: Ethical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The leading cause of blindness in the United States is
A)macular degeneration
B)diabetes
C)stroke
D)spinal cord injury
Q2) A new provider in town buys a full-page advertisement that announces how fees are determined and rendered.
A) ethical
B) unethical
Q3) In an abuse case, the provider treats the "abuser" as a victim also.
A) ethical
B) unethical
Q4) A provider consults with another provider regarding the patient's condition without the patient's knowledge.
A) ethical
B) unethical
Q5) Dr.Allen returns a portion of his fee to Dr.Bailey as compensation for a referral.
A) ethical
B) unethical
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Chapter 8: Emergency Procedures and First Aid
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Sample Questions
Q1) acid-base balance impaired
A) neurogenic
B) cardiogenic
C) anaphylactic
D) metabolic
E) septic
Q2) laceration
A) tissue torn and uneven
B) superficial scraping
C) skin or part torn off
D) sharp object injury
Q3) Which of the following types of burns should be seen by the provider?
A)All burns involving the very young or the elderly
B)A burn involving an area larger than a child's hand
C)Any burns on face, hands, feet, or genitals
D)All of the above
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Chapter 9: Creating the Facility Environment
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Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate action to maintain patient privacy?
A)Leave the exam room door ajar.
B)Knock before entering.
C)Talk with the door open.
D)Have discussions with the patient in a corner of the office.
Q2) The use of music and water in some medical facilities produces favorable results with the exception of which of the following?
A)Reduces stress and anxiety
B)Refreshes the minds of patients
C)Reduces appointment times
D)Enhances healing
Q3) Which of the following does proper seating placement in a reception area respect?
(For example, some people do not like to be touched by strangers.)
A)Cultural biases
B)Prejudices
C)Comfort
D)Security
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11
Chapter 10: Computers in the Medical Clinic
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding defragmentation of a computer system?
A)It removes blank spaces left on the hard drive from deleted files.
B)It is easily done using a disk defragmenter included with the operating system (OS).
C)It can be performed in a very short period of time.
D)It should be performed during a time when the office is closed.
Q2) Viruses find their way onto a system through which of the following?
A)Opening e-mail attachments
B)Opening unauthorized software
C)Downloading programs from the Internet
D)All of the above
Q3) printer
A) data input device
B) data output device
C) data storage device
Q4) fax machine
A) data input device
B) data output device
C) data storage device
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Chapter 11: Telecommunications
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the purpose of a standard telephone pad for taking messages?
A)To have carbon copies in order to maintain written records
B)For emergency calls only
C)For making appointments
D)For screening calls
Q2) Which of the following phone calls should be referred to the provider?
A)Billing questions
B)Complaints about medical treatment or care
C)Questions regarding office hours
D)Patients requesting to schedule an appointment
Q3) prescription refill request
A) medical assistant
B) provider
Q4) The medical assistant should answer the telephone by the end of which ring in order to create a positive impression to the patient?
A)First
B)Second
C)Third
D)Fourth
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Chapter 12: Patient Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following situations will require the most time for an appointment?
A)Minor illness
B)Routine checkup
C)Suspicious rash
D)Complete physical examination, first visit
E)Blood pressure check
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a variable involved in scheduling appointments?
A)Patient's urgency of need
B)Referral from another provider
C)Implementation of payment at time of visit
D)Use of reminder systems
E)Implementation of cancellation and rescheduling policies
Q3) Which of the following actions for appointment scheduling is a courtesy for the patient?
A)Make appointment when it is most convenient for the patient.
B)Confirm the patient clearly understands the date and time of appointment.
C)Use reminder cards.
D)All of the above.
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14
Chapter 13: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a filing method used to identify and separate items to be filed in small subunits?
A)File folder
B)Identification label
C)Out sheets
D)Indexing units
E)Cross reference
Q2) What is NOT considered to be an advantage of the Manual Medical Record?
A)Currently established and understood
B)Easier to protect confidentiality
C)No worry of computer malfunction
D)Can be used by only one person at a time
Q3) Which of the following best describes the process of sorting through records and removing those that are not active?
A)Reminder system
B)Check-out
C)Cross-reference
D)Closed files
E)Record purging
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a correct example of the reference initials notation?
A)WL/jg
B)WL/JG
C)wl/jg
D)wl/JG
Q2) #
A) align type horizontally
B) center
C) move left
D) insert
E) insert space
F) paragraph indent
Q3) Which of the following letter styles omits the salutation and closing?
A)Full block
B)Modified block
C)Indented block
D)Simplified
Q4) humerus
A) spelled correctly
B) spelled incorrectly
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Medical Documents
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Q1) surgical procedure and sponge count
A) radiology report
B) operative report
C) autopsy report
D) pathology report
E) H & P
F) consultation
G) discharge summary
Q2) temporary anatomic diagnosis
A) radiology report
B) operative report
C) autopsy report
D) pathology report
E) H & P
F) consultation
G) discharge summary
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Chapter 16: Medical Insurance
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a category for referrals?
A)Post-dated
B)Regular
C)Urgent
D)STAT
Q2) Which of the following best describes insurance policies that require policyholders to select a primary care provider?
A)Traditional
B)Group
C)Major medical
D)Indemnity
Q3) usually must stay inside the provider network
A) managed care
B) traditional
Q4) Which of the following applies to Medicare coverage that pays for outpatient services?
A)Part A
B)Part B
C)Part C
D)Part D
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Chapter 17: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many major sections are in the Current Procedural Terminology reference book?
A)Four
B)Five
C)Six
D)Seven
Q2) Which of the following organizations developed ICD-10-CM in 1992?
A)American Medical Association
B)Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
C)World Health Organization
D)Health Care Financing Administration
Q3) Which of the following applies to the coding book used for specifying services and procedures performed in the medical office?
A)ICD-9-CM
B)RBRVS
C)CPT
D)EOB
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Chapter 18: Daily Financial Practices
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Q1) On the ledger card, which column is used for entering payments?
A)Credit column
B)Debit column
C)Balance column
D)Adjustment column
Q2) Which of the following accounts is debited when a check is written to pay invoices?
A)Accounts receivable
B)Accounts payable
C)Expenses
D)Checking
Q3) When is the recommended time for deposits?
A)Twice a week
B)Once a week
C)Daily
D)Monthly
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Chapter 19: Billing and Collections
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Q1) Which of the following must collect the money from the patient if the medical office pursues payment through small claims court?
A)Court
B)Insurance company
C)Clinic
D)Court appointment collection agency
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a service offered by collection agencies?
A)Provide intercept letters.
B)Provide credit ratings to providers' offices.
C)Trace patient accounts who are "skips."
D)Obtain funds from bankruptcy accounts.
Q3) Which of the following is used to gauge the effectiveness of the clinic's billing practices?
A)Collections ratio
B)Accounts receivable ratio
C)Desirable ratio
D)Delinquent accounts ratio
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21
Chapter 20: Accounting Practices
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Q1) Which would NOT be considered part of the ledger or journal entry?
A)Date of transaction
B)Account names involved
C)Dollar amount of charges
D)Total receipts
Q2) Which of the following bookkeeping and accounting systems includes charge slips or encounter forms?
A)Triple-entry system
B)Double-entry system
C)Single-entry system
D)Pegboard system
Q3) Which of the following best describes a primary need of medical facilities to monitor more information?
A)Increased staff
B)Decreased staff
C)Longer hours
D)Computerization
Q4) property taxes
A) fixed costs
B) variable costs
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Chapter 21: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis
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Q1) Which of the following is the step in the infection cycle when an infectious agent leaves the reservoir host?
A)Portal of exit
B)Portal of entry
C)Mode of transmission
D)Infectious agent
E)Susceptible host
Q2) Which of the following types of immunity is achieved following administration of vaccines?
A)Acquired active immunity
B)Artificial active immunity
C)Congenital passive immunity
D)Passive immunity
Q3) Which of the following links in the infection cycle would be broken by cleansing and sterilization?
A)Portal of exit
B)Portal of entry
C)Mode of transmission
D)Infectious agent
E)Susceptible host
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Chapter 22: The Patient History and Documentation
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Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the medical assistant with the uncommunicative patient?
A)Tell the patient that cooperation is mandatory.
B)Give the patient a sample problem list to review.
C)Let the physician interview the patient.
D)Inform the patient of guidelines for expected behavior.
Q2) assessment
A) weigh subjective and objective findings
B) vital signs
C) symptoms and patient's complaint
D) further tests and treatment
Q3) What should the medical assistant do if a patient refuses to answer a question regarding sexual history during the patient interview?
A)Skip the question completely.
B)Wait until the patient is ready to answer.
C)Force the issue and ask for answers.
D)Attempt to return to the question later.
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Chapter 23: Vital Signs and Measurements
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Q1) Which of the following is the meaning of "dyspnea"?
A)Labored breathing
B)Air in the pericardium
C)Rapid breathing
D)Abnormal gas in the pleura
E)Breathing while upright
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of respiration?
A)its involuntary
B)is triggered by varying levels of oxygen
C)its controlled by a specific part of the brain
D)carbon dioxide affects respiration
Q3) Which of the following blood pressure readings would indicate the patient is hypertensive?
A)160/100
B)120/88
C)118/80
D)100/50
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Chapter 24: The Physical Examination
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Q1) The provider completes the head and neck examination.He asks you to position the patient for a pelvic examination and Pap smear.Which of the following is the most appropriate position?
A)Sims'
B)Dorsal recumbent
C)Supine
D)Lithotomy
E)Prone
Q2) vitiligo
A) yellow
B) white patches
C) blue
D) no color
Q3) Which of the following is NOT noted as the patient is received and the history is taken?
A)Skin color
B)Grooming
C)Conversation ease
D)Answers to questions
E)Strength
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Chapter 25: Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Q1) When should a breast self-examination be performed?
A)During monthly menses
B)Just before menses
C)Seven days after menses
D)Five days after menses
Q2) A 30-year-old sexually active woman calls and states she last had a Pap smear 2 years ago.She asks whether she should make an appointment to come in for another Pap smear.In how many years should the medical assistant tell her that she is due for another exam according to American Cancer Society guidelines?
A)She is overdue by 1 year.
B)Get another smear next year.
C)Get another smear in 2 years.
D)Get another smear in 3 years.
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT detected in a wet mount?
A)Yeast
B)Clue cells
C)Chlamydia
D)Trichomonas
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Chapter 26: Pediatrics
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Q1) Which of the following is often omitted in the pediatric examination?
A)Pulse
B)Respirations
C)Height
D)Weight
E)Blood pressure
Q2) Which of the following best describes one of the major concerns when working with pediatrics patients?
A)Performing a comprehensive exam
B)Establishing rapport before an examination
C)Gaining trust by the end of the examination
D)Allowing parents to be present during examination
Q3) Which of the following is the appropriate area for measuring the head circumference?
A)From the occipital protuberance to the first spinal prominence
B)From the mid-forehead to the back of head
C)From the occipital protuberance to the supraorbital prominence
D)From the supraorbital prominence to the forehead
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28
Chapter 27: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following is a method of diagnosing testicular cancer after palpating the testicle and finding a mass?
A)Digital rectal examination
B)Colonoscopy
C)Ultrasound
D)Biopsy
Q2) Which of the following carries spermatozoa to the ejaculatory duct?
A)Vas deferens
B)Prostate
C)Urethra
D)Ureter
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a cause or erectile dysfunction?
A)thyroid disease
B)medications
C)atherosclerosis
D)stress/depression
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Chapter 28: Gerontology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common cause of diminished mental capacity?
A)Substance abuse
B)Side effects of over-the-counter drugs
C)Malnutrition
D)Side effects of prescription medications
E)Hypothermia
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an effective method of caring for the elderly?
A)Allow for private conversation.
B)Speak slowly as with children.
C)Empathize and listen.
D)Write instructions.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a major problem of aging in the gastrointestinal system?
A)Malnourishment
B)Poor eating habits
C)Peristalsis increases
D)Slowed metabolism
Q4) welts
A) psychological
B) physical
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Chapter 29: Examinations and Procedures of Body Systems
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Q1) Which of the following blood disorders is a result of a hereditary factor that causes the patient to have clumping in the blood vessels, impairing circulation?
A)Iron deficiency anemia
B)Lymphedema
C)Hodgkin disease
D)Sickle cell anemia
Q2) electromyography
A) urinary
B) respiratory
C) musculoskeletal
D) circulatory
E) sensory
F) blood and lymph
Q3) Which of the following digestive system disorders is misspelled?
A)Cholecystitis
B)Hepatitis
C)Diverticulitis
D)Chron's disease
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Chapter 30: Assisting With Minor Surgery
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Q1) What is considered to be the main advantage of electrosurgery?
A)Minimal scarring
B)Controlled bleeding
C)Pain free
D)Minimal healing time
Q2) lighted instrument used for viewing
A) scopes
B) scalpel
C) bayonet forceps
D) retractors
E) probes
Q3) Which of the following is considered a factor that could influence the effectiveness of chemical sterilization?
A)Wet items were added.
B)The lid was loose.
C)The exposure time was limited.
D)All of the above.
Q4) is applied directly to the wound
A) dressing
B) bandage
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Imaging
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Q1) Which of the following is an imaging procedure requiring injection of charged particles?
A)PET scan
B)CT scan
C)Ultrasound
D)MRI
E)Fluoroscopy
Q2) Which of the following is used as a contrast medium for kidney and gallbladder exams?
A)Barium
B)Air
C)Water
D)Iodine
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a side effect of radiation therapy?
A)Vomiting
B)Hair loss
C)Anorexia
D)Stomatitis
E)Diarrhea
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Rehabilitation and Therapeutic Modalities
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Q1) A physiological benefit from massage therapy is what?
A)Increased metabolism
B)Promotion of healing
C)Improving circulation
D)All of the above
Q2) moving the foot upward at the ankle joint
A) circumduction
B) dorsiflexion
C) pronation
D) rotation
E) supination
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a concern for safety when assisting patients to ambulate?
A)Make sure the patient is ready to walk.
B)Use a gait belt.
C)Patient should be wearing supportive, flat, rubber-soled shoes.
D)Ambulate for a minimum of 30 minutes.
E)Never hurry a patient.
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34
Chapter 33: Nutrition in Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chinese
A) Rice is the primary energy food; vegetables are lightly cooked.
B) Spices, especially curry, are popular.
C) Dark breads and fewer green vegetable salads are consumed.
D) Combinations of Spanish and Native American foods are popular.
E) Fish, vegetables, and rice often served fried.
Q2) Which of the following is the recommended percentage of total daily fat calories of an average person?
A)5
B)10-15
C)25-30
D)50-60
Q3) Mexican
A) Rice is the primary energy food; vegetables are lightly cooked.
B) Spices, especially curry, are popular.
C) Dark breads and fewer green vegetable salads are consumed.
D) Combinations of Spanish and Native American foods are popular.
E) Fish, vegetables, and rice often served fried.
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Chapter 34: Basic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) low to moderate dependence potential; written or oral; only refilled 5 times in 6 months
A) Schedule I
B) Schedule II
C) Schedule III
D) Schedule IV
E) Schedule V
Q2) Which of the following are the most utilized routes of administration?
A)Sublingual and inhalation
B)Oral and inhalation
C)Parenteral and sublingual
D)Parenteral and oral
E)Oral and sublingual
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a newer administration system for medications?
A)Transdermal
B)Implantable device
C)Ear injections
D)Infusion pumps
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Calculation of Medication Dosage and Medication Administration
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Q1) Which of the following is the number of pills needed per day for the order Allegra 60 mg TID?
A)Two
B)Three
C)Four
D)Six
Q2) What does the provider take into consideration when ordering an IV?
A)Clinical laboratory results
B)Patient's age
C)Patient's gender
D)Both a and b
Q3) Which of the following syringe types is most frequently used to inject minute amounts for allergy testing and allergy injections?
A)Hypodermic
B)Tuberculin
C)Insulin
D)Glass
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Cardiac Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the next step in the ECG procedure after the electropad sensors are removed?
A)Assist the patient as needed.
B)Turn the machine off.
C)Unplug the machine.
D)Give the tracing to the physician.
Q2) Why would the medical assistant place the power cord pointing away from the patient and not allow the cable to go underneath the table?
A)Causes interrupted baseline
B)Helps reduce AC interference
C)Helps reduce wandering baseline
D)Causes somatic tremor artifacts
Q3) Which of the following types of atrial arrhythmia is characterized by extremely rapid incomplete contractions?
A)Premature atrial contraction
B)Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
C)Atrial fibrillation
D)Sinus bradycardia
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Chapter 37: Regulatory Guidelines for Safety and Quality in the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) issued on the basis of approval by the CMS
A) COW
B) PPMP
C) Registration
D) Accreditation
E) Compliance
Q2) Which of the following is the major purpose of a material safety data sheet?
A)Provides information on expiration dates
B)Provides information to protect patients
C)Completes all OSHA regulations
D)Identifies hazardous ingredients, first aid procedures, and spill and leak procedures
Q3) When referencing to the National Fire Protection Association color and number method, what number has the lowest potential for hazard?
A)3
B)2
C)0
D)1
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Introduction to the Medical Laboratory
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Q1) To further ensure that test results are accurate, what test must be done along with the patient sample?
A)Proficiency test
B)Daily check
C)Calibration
D)Control test
Q2) Which of the following laboratory specialties performs testing for blood typing, cross matching, and the separation and storage of blood components?
A)Chemistry
B)Immunohematology
C)Microbiology
D)Hematology
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a method used to send a laboratory report to the provider?
A)Fax
B)E-mail
C)Electronically (using EHR software)
D)Manually delivered
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Chapter 39: Phlebotomy: Venipuncture and Capillary
Puncture
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Q1) When using the safer plastic vacuum tubes, which of the following is the correct order of draw?
A)Cultures, blue top (citrate), red top and/or SST
B)Blue top (citrate), red top and/or SST, cultures
C)Cultures, red top and/or SST, blue top (citrate)
Q2) Which of the following method(s) is used to perform a venipuncture?
A)Syringe method
B)Vacuum tube method
C)Butterfly method
D)All of the above
E)None of the above
Q3) Which of the following best describes why OSHA requires safety needles be made available to employees?
A)Eliminates the need for biohazard waste containers
B)Can only be used with specific guidelines
C)Prevents on-the-job needle stick injuries
D)Protects patients completely from accidental sticks
Q4) This is used less often in venipuncture.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
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Chapter 40: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following blood cells is NOT a granulocyte?
A)Eosinophil
B)Neutrophil
C)Lymphocyte
D)Basophil
Q2) Which of the following best describes erythrocyte indices?
A)Calculations that provide size and hemoglobin content of RBCs
B)Provides information for hematocrit
C)Allows for calculations of oxygen in hemoglobin
D)Abbreviated MCV, MCA, and MCC
Q3) Which of the following is the major component of the RBC that transports oxygen?
A)Serum
B)Hemoglobin
C)Plasma
D)Protein
Q4) hypochromic
A) Cells show marked variation in shape.
B) Cells show marked variation in size.
C) Cells have proper amount of hemoglobin.
D) Cells have large, pale central area.
42
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Chapter 41: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT included in the physical examination of urine?
A)Observing and recording color
B)Noting unusual urine odor
C)Noting excess glucose
D)Measuring specific gravity
Q2) Which of the following best describes what causes a foul odor in a urine sample?
A)Bacteria
B)Diabetes
C)Vitamins
D)Beets
Q3) Which of the following is an indication with the presence of casts and renal epithelial cells?
A)No concern
B)Possible diabetes
C)Possible kidney disease
D)Cancer
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Chapter 42: Basic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when handling microbiology specimens?
A)Look for leaks on the outside of the transporting container.
B)Wear gloves.
C)Use the appropriate container when sending specimens to an outside lab.
D)Handle the specimen as if it is not contaminated.
Q2) What is the organism that causes strep throat?
A)Group A, alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
B)Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococcus
C)Group B, alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
D)Group B, beta-hemolytic streptococcus
Q3) A wet mount is used to:
A)Stain bacteria
B)Suspend the organism in a liquid to study
C)Examine organisms under a microscope
D)Both b and c
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Chapter 43: Speciality Laboratory Tests
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Q1) Which of the following tests is NOT used in the screening for and diagnosis of tuberculosis?
A)Tine
B)Mantoux
C)Chest x-ray
D)BCG
Q2) A small sample of which of the following specimens is required for a CLIA-Waived IM test?
A)Serum
B)Capillary blood
C)Plasma
D)All of the above
Q3) Systemic inflammation is the predominant cause of what disease?
A)Blood clots
B)Irritable Bowel Syndrome
C)Heart disease
D)Diabetes
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Chapter 44: The Medical Assistant As Clinic Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) to follow a supervisor in order to learn facility protocol
A) benchmark
B) mentor
C) shadow
D) practicum/externship
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action of an office manager who makes a mistake?
A)Denies the mistake
B)Ignores the mistake
C)Admits the mistake and seeks to prevent it from happening again
D)Assigns someone else to correct the mistake
Q3) Which type of marketing tool would be most effective to announce new staff, promote a new service, or publicize a series of seminars?
A)Newsletter
B)Brochure
C)Press release
D)Special events
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Chapter 45: The Medical Assistant As Human Resources Manager
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Q1) safety issues
A) policy manual
B) procedures manual
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the objective of a smoking policy?
A)Promotes health
B)Sets an example for patients
C)Covers staff only
D)Encourages employee morale and productivity
Q3) When should an employer ideally pay for an employee's continuing education?
A)When the cost is inexpensive.
B)When the employer is afraid the employee is thinking of quitting.
C)When it benefits the employee on the job.
D)When the employee is really interested in the topic.
Q4) Implement using probationary reviews.
A) recruiting and hiring personnel
B) orienting and training personnel
C) dismissing employees
D) complying with safe working conditions
E) planning employee training and education
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Chapter 46: Preparing for Medical Assisting Credentials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only graduates from an accredited medical assistant program may sit for the CMA and RMA examination.Which of the following organization(s) accredits these programs?
A)ABHES and CAAHEP
B)AAMA and AMT
C)AMA and AMT
D)NHA
Q2) Students graduating from an ABHES-accredited school can be certified through which of the following organizations?
A)AAMA
B)AMA
C)AMT
D)Both a and c
Q3) Which of the following organizations awards the Certified Medical Assistant credential?
A)American Association of Medical Assistants
B)National Healthcareer Association
C)American Medical Technologists
D)Committee on Accreditation of Health Education Programs
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Chapter 47: Employment Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chronological résuméis NOT advantageous when:
A)Your work history is spotty
B)You are changing career goals
C)You are looking for your first job
D)All of the above are correct
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when writing a cover letter?
A)Make the letter lengthy to describe details about past experiences.
B)The last paragraph should state your reason for writing.
C)Reproduce it several times to use with multiple employers.
D)Address it to a specific individual whenever possible.
Q3) lectured
A) power verb
B) not a power verb
Q4) As of 2016, the national median annual salary for a medical assistant is:
A)$30,135
B)$45,100
C)$38,800
D)$18,900
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