Medical Office Procedures
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Office Procedures provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the administrative tasks and best practices required in a medical office environment. The course covers essential skills such as patient scheduling, medical record management, billing and coding, effective communication, and confidentiality in handling sensitive information. Students will also learn about professional interactions with healthcare providers and patients, the use of common office equipment, and compliance with legal and ethical standards in healthcare settings. Through practical exercises and case studies, students gain the foundational knowledge necessary for efficient and effective medical office operations.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Language Immerse Yourself 2nd Edition by
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Page 2
Susan M. Turley
Chapter 1: The Structure of Medical Language
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308 Verified Questions
308 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare facility can release a patient's medical record information only to:
A) an authorized healthcare provider.
B) the patient's insurance company.
C) a healthcare quality monitoring organization.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) The prefix that means slow is ____________.
Answer: brady-
Q3) The prefix hyper- means below; deficient.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Which of the following is the skill that involves relaying the medical language?
A) thinking and analyzing
B) reading
C) writing
D) listening
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Body in Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The suffix found in the medical word lymphatic means : A) condition.
B) lymph; lymphatic system.
C) pertaining to.
D) the study of.
Answer: C
Q2) The combining form pelv/o- means :
A) lung.
B) straight.
C) hip bone.
D) child.
Answer: C
Q3) The trachea,lungs,heart,and esophagus are all found in the: A) cranial cavity.
B) thoracic cavity.
C) abdominal cavity.
D) pelvic cavity.
Answer: B
Q4) The combining form extern/o- means ____________.
Answer: outside
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Chapter 3: Gastroenterology - Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly separates the medical word colonoscopy into its component word parts?
A) prefix col/o-, combining form noscop/o-, suffix -y
B) prefix colon/o-, suffix -scopy
C) combining form col/o-, suffix -noscopy
D) combining form colon/o-, suffix -scopy
Answer: D
Q2) The digestive enzymes amylase and lipase are produced by the liver.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Vermiform means :
A) pink.
B) small.
C) wormlike.
D) all of the above
Answer: C
Q4) ____________ is the semisolid mixture of partially digested food,saliva,and digestive juices in the stomach.
Answer: Chyme
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Chapter 4: Pulmonology - Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of drugs would not be given to treat COPD?
A) bronchodilator drugs
B) corticosteroid drugs
C) expectorant drugs
D) antiviral drugs
Q2) The combining form phren/o- means ____________.
A) air; lung
B) thorax
C) carbon monoxide
D) diaphragm; mind
Q3) A patient diagnosed with bronchitis has an inflammation of the ____________.
A) alveoli
B) bronchi
C) chest
D) lungs
Q4) Auscultation is the process of ____________ the lungs.
A) assessing
B) evaluating
C) listening to
D) tapping on
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Chapter 5: Cardiology - Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An angiography is a/an ____________.
A) instrument used to examine an artery
B) mechanism for viewing a blood vessel
C) process of recording a blood vessel
D) record or picture of an artery
Q2) Most women experience angina pectoris as:
A) indigestion or nausea.
B) anxiety.
C) fatigue and trouble sleeping.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which word parts do you need to build a medical word that means inflammation of a vein?
A) -ous, ven/o-
B) -ose, varic/o-
C) -itis, phleb/o-
D) -oma, ather/o-
Q4) Palpation is an uncomfortable sensation felt in the chest during a premature contraction of the heart.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Hematology and Immunology - Blood and Lymphatic System
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210 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient appeared pale and complained of being tired.Examination of her blood showed microcytic,hypochromic red blood cells.Her diagnosis would be:
A) pernicious anemia.
B) leukemia.
C) hemorrhage.
D) iron deficiency anemia.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A) A red blood cell is also known as an erythrocyte.
B) Erythrocytes are the most numerous type of blood cell.
C) Erythrocytes are unusual in that they are just cell fragments.
D) Hemoglobin is a red, iron-containing molecule that carries oxygen.
Q3) Nine proteins in the plasma that help in the immune response by drilling holes in a bacterium,virus,or parasite are known as ____________ proteins.
Q4) Which antibody is found on the surface of B cells?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) red blood cell antigen B
D) IgG
Q5) Describe what a phlebotomist does.
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Chapter 7: Dermatology - Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of sweating and the sweat itself are both known as ____________.
Q2) Lisa developed anaphylaxis after being stung by a bee.Describe anaphylaxis and list three symptoms or signs of this condition that could be life threatening.
Q3) All of the following are types of skin grafts except ____________.
A) autograft
B) synthetic
C) dermatome
D) xenograft
Q4) A lipoma is a tumor of fat cells,which are known as ____________ .
Q5) All of these combining forms mean sweat except:
A) hidr/o-.
B) sudor/i-.
C) diaphor/o-.
D) hirsut/o-.
Q6) Which is a congenital abnormality in which there are extra fingers or toes?
A) syndactyly
B) polydactyly
C) senile lentigo
D) papilloma
Q7) The adjective form of gangrene is ____________.
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Chapter 8: Orthopedics - Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form rheumat/o- means :
A) inflammation.
B) joint.
C) disease.
D) watery discharge.
Q2) Which is a surgical procedure performed to fuse the bones in a degenerated,unstable joint?
A) arthrodesis
B) amputation
C) arthrocentesis
D) joint replacement surgery
Q3) An abnormal,excessive C-shaped or S-shaped lateral curvature of the spine is known as ____________.
Q4) The bony edges of the fontanels fuse together to become immobile in early adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is gout?
Q6) The ____________ is the lower jaw bone,the only movable bone in the skull.
Q7) A benign tumor of cartilage is known as a ____________.
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Chapter 9: Orthopedics - Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trigger points in the muscles that are tender to touch and feel firm are characteristic of which condition?
A) fibromyalgia
B) rhabdomyosarcoma
C) muscular dystrophy
D) restless legs syndrome
Q2) Rigor mortis is the medical name for muscle atrophy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A muscle biopsy is a surgical procedure to:
A) cut the fascia and release built up blood and tissue fluid in patients with compartment syndrome.
B) suture together the torn ends of a muscle following an injury.
C) make a definitive diagnosis when muscle weakness could be caused by many different muscular diseases.
D) suture together the torn ends of a tendon following an injury.
Q4) A ____________ is a surgical procedure to suture together a torn muscle after an injury.
Q5) The combining form pod/o- means ____________.
Q6) The combining form extens/o- means ____________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Neurology - Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ is a radiologic procedure in which a radiopaque contrast dye is injected into the subarachnoid space at the level of the L3 and L4 vertebrae,which in turn outlines the spinal cavity.
Q2) The most common type of dementia is ____________.
A) Alzheimer's
B) senile
C) receptive
D) multi-infarct
Q3) A neurotransmitter is a chemical messenger that travels across the synapse between neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not one of the meanings of the combining form myel/o-?
A) bone marrow
B) axon
C) myelin
D) spinal cord
Q5) A patient with a ___________intervertebral disk might benefit from surgery such as a diskectomy or laminectomy.
Page 12
Q6) Proprioception is the medical word for body ____________.
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Chapter 11: Urology - Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which surgical procedures remove a severely damaged kidney from a patient with end-stage kidney failure and insert a new kidney from a donor?
A) nephrectomy, transplantation
B) cystoscopy, lithotripsy
C) stone basketing, nephropexy
D) urethroplasty, nephrectomy
Q2) The plural form of glomerulus is ____________.
Q3) Glomerulonephritis is a kidney complication that can follow a streptococcal or viral infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ____________ is a 12-inch tube that extends from the renal pelvis of the kidney to the bladder.There are two of them in every person.
Q5) Another name for a KUB is a:
A) flat plate of the abdomen.
B) cystoscopy.
C) catheterization.
D) cystocele.
Q6) When the bladder is empty,the mucosa collapses into folds called ____________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Male Reproductive Medicine - Male
Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammation of the anatomical structure that stores mature spermatozoa is called: A) orchitis.
B) epididymitis.
C) urethritis.
D) prostatitis.
Q2) The abbreviation ED stands for:
A) erection distress.
B) erectile disease.
C) erectile dysfunction.
D) erectile drug.
Q3) Morphology evaluation of spermatozoa means evaluation of the:
A) number of sperm.
B) motility of sperm.
C) shape of sperm.
D) size of sperm.
Q4) In an uncircumcised male,the urethral meatus is covered by the prepuce.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
Q5) The adjective form of penis is ____________.
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Chapter 13: Gynecology and Obstetrics - Female
Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Krista Selcher is pregnant with twins at 30 weeks' gestation.She begins to go into labor.For treatment,the physician would order:
A) an amniocentesis.
B) tocolytic drugs.
C) hormone replacement therapy drugs.
D) a TRAM flap.
Q2) A hydatidiform mole is an abnormal union of the ovum and spermatozoon that produces hundreds of fluid-filled sacs but no ____________.
A) HCG
B) uterus
C) embryo
D) tumor
Q3) The moment of conception to the moment of birth is known as the period of ____________.
Q4) Which of the following words is misspelled?
A) oophorectomy
B) ceserean section
C) galactorrhea
D) hysterectomy
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Chapter 14: Endocrinology - Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gigantism results from hypersecretion of the growth hormone in childhood,whereas ____________ results from hypersecretion of the growth hormone in the adulthood.
Q2) Antidiabetic drugs like DiaBeta,Micronase,and Januvia are given by subcutaneous injection to treat diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these endocrine glands also functions as a gland in the digestive system?
A) thymus gland
B) pancreas
C) thyroid gland
D) testes
Q4) Which is the process where two hormones work together to achieve a result?
A) activation
B) stimulation
C) synergism
D) tolerance
Q5) The adjective form of pancreas is ____________.
Q6) The adjective form of pancreas is ____________.
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Chapter 15: Ophthamology - Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tonometry and gonioscopy are tests done to detect glaucoma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The light sensitive cells in the retina that only respond to color are the rods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient is admitted to the emergency room after being involved in a car accident.The patient hit his head on the steering wheel causing extensive damage.The surgeon diagnosed a fractured orbit,among other injuries.What is the orbit?
A) a sensory nerve in the cranium
B) a round opening in the iris
C) a dark, yellow-orange area in the retina
D) a bony socket in the skull
Q4) The combining forms "phac/o-" and "phak/o-" mean:
A) capsule (enveloping structure).
B) iris (colored part of the eye).
C) lens (of the eye).
D) pupil (of the eye).
Q5) A patient whose best visual acuity is 20/200 is legally ____________.
Q6) Why are most babies' irises slate blue at birth?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Otolaryngology - Ears, nose, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following words are related to a treatment for otitis media,except:
A) otoscopy.
B) myringotome.
C) tympanostomy.
D) PE tube.
Q2) A ____________ is a hollow cavity lined with mucous membrane within a cranial or facial bone.
Q3) Epistaxis is the medical word for:
A) earache.
B) nosebleed.
C) dizziness.
D) sore throat.
Q4) Removal of areas of lymphoid tissue from the pharynx is abbreviated T&A.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All of the following abbreviations refer to the ear except:
A) TMJ.
B) EAC.
C) TM.
D) AD.
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Chapter 17: Psychiatry
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ disorder is also known as manic depressive disorder.
Q2) Bipolar disorder has mood swings between ____________ and ____________. A) euphoria, mania
B) hyperactivity, impulsiveness
C) depression, cyclothymia
D) mania, depression
Q3) The combining form hebe/o- in hebephrenic schizophrenia means : A) dramatic.
B) youth.
C) pleasure.
D) human being.
Q4) The____________ is the outward display on the face of the inward emotions and thoughts.
Q5) ____________ is a neurotransmitter for the sympathetic division of the nervous system that prepares the body for "fight or flight."
Q6) Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of ____________,the gradual deterioration of mental function.
Q7) ____________ disorder is also known as manic-depressive disorder.
Q8) ____________ is the fear of heights.
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Chapter 18: Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abbreviation Bx means ____________.
Q2) Through the action of DNA,which of the following controls all of the activities that take place within the cell,such as the production of cellular proteins and the production of enzymes to control metabolism in the cell?
A) mitochondria
B) nucleus
C) ribosomes
D) RNA
Q3) ____________ is a cancer that shows characteristic Reed-Sternberg cells on biopsy.
A) Fibrosarcoma
B) Endometrial carcinoma
C) Malignant melanoma
D) Hodgkin's lymphoma
Q4) Carcinomatosis means :
A) a toxic level of cancer in the blood.
B) abnormal cells that look like cancer.
C) a condition of carcinoma in a specific site.
D) cancerous tumors in multiple sites.
Q5) What is the TNM system and what is it used for?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Radiology and Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electron beam tomography,as used in the Virtual Physical and Virtual Colonoscopy,does not expose the patient to any radiation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a meaning for the combining form tom/o-?
A) cut
B) incise
C) layer
D) slice
Q3) ____________ is a radiopaque contrast medium made of small,chalky particles suspended in a liquid and used for radiologic procedures of the digestive tract.It is normally swallowed or instilled in the rectum and colon.
Q4) Which eponym refers to technology used to produce audible sounds from the body (such as blood flowing though an artery or the heartbeat of a fetus)?
A) Curie
B) Rem
C) Roentgen
D) Doppler
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Chapter 20: Medical Terminology and Word Building
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dermatology is the ____________ of the skin.
Q2) Which word parts do you need to build a medical word that means medical treatment for the mind?
A) -ist, therap/o-
B) -ia, de-, ment/o-
C) -iatry, psych/o-
D) -ia, an-, esthes/o-
Q3) The combining form hepat/o- means ____________.
Q4) A suffix:
A) can be a single letter or a group of letters.
B) can be placed anywhere in the medical word.
C) must be a single letter.
D) modifies the meaning of the prefix in the word.
Q5) The combining form append/o- means appendix.
A)True B)False
Q6) The combining form hepat/o- means ____________.
Q7) The prefix endo- means above; more than normal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Anatomy and Medical Terminology:
Understanding the Human Body and Language of Medicine
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Q1) For the patient's history,the physician asks about all of the following things that relate to the patient's symptoms except:
A) the location of the symptoms.
B) when the symptoms started.
C) what the patient thinks the symptoms mean.
D) how severe the symptoms are.
Q2) The combining form pulmon/o- means :
A) air.
B) breathe.
C) respiration.
D) lung.
Q3) Using the coronal plane to divide the body,the front of the body is the anterior or ____________ section.
Q4) Of the following combining forms,which one means collection of symptoms?
A) syn-
B) surg/o-
C) symptomat/o-
D) There is no combining form that means collection of symptoms.
Q6) The combining form heredit/o- means genetic ____________. Page 23
Q5) In the medical word orthopedics,the combining form orth/o- means
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Chapter 22: Digestive System and Disorders
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Q1) A temporary stopping of peristalsis following surgery is known as a postoperative ileus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a patient experiences difficult or painful eating and swallowing,the patient is said to have:
A) anorexia.
B) dyspepsia.
C) dysphagia.
D) gastritis.
Q3) The combining form abdomin/o- means ____________.
Q4) Small areas on the intestinal walls that contain white blood cells to destroy microorganisms are called:
A) Peyer's patches.
B) haustra.
C) villi.
D) mucosa.
Q5) The enzyme gastrin is produced by the stomach.
A)True
B)False
25
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Chapter 23: Respiratory System Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phrenic nerve stimulates the ____________ to begin the process of inhalation.
Q2) Which syllable is the primary accented syllable in the pronunciation of the medical word bronchopulmonary (brong-koh-pul-moh-nair-ee)?
A) brong
B) pul
C) moh
D) nair.
Q3) The protein-fat compound that reduces surface tension and keeps the walls of the alveoli from collapsing is called ____________.
Q4) The combining form turbin/o- means ____________.
A) mucosa
B) breathe
C) scroll-like structure
D) septum
Q5) A common respiratory system test,ABG stands for ____________
Q6) Attachments on a bronchoscope can remove foreign bodies,suction thick mucus,or perform a _________ to remove a piece of tissue.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Cardiovascular System - Medical Terminology
and
Procedures
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Q1) Most women experience angina pectoris as:
A) indigestion or nausea.
B) anxiety.
C) fatigue and trouble sleeping.
D) all of the above.
Q2) The heart muscle gets the oxygenated blood it needs from the blood within its four chambers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The mitral valve is located between the:
A) left atrium and the left ventricle.
B) left ventricle and the aorta.
C) right atrium and the right ventricle.
D) right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
Q4) A cardiac exercise stress test is also known as a ____________ exercise stress test because the patient walks on a motorized moving walkway.
Q5) Rheumatic heart disease is a/an _____________ response to an untreated streptococcal infection.
Q6) The combining form sphygm/o- means ____________.
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Chapter 25: Blood and Immune System
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Q1) Lymphedema of the arm is a common complaint of patients after surgery for breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The combining forms hem/o- and hemat/o- both mean ____________.
A) blood
B) carry
C) iron
D) red
Q3) A bone marrow aspiration is done by taking red marrow from the:
A) blood
B) lymph node
C) iliac crest
D) spleen
Q4) Tumor necrosis factor destroys cancerous cells and endotoxins produced by certain bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An immature erythrocyte that is just released into the blood is known as a
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Chapter 26: Skin Care: Understanding the Integumentary
System and Common Skin Conditions
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Q1) The meaning of guarding or protecting refers to the combining form:
A) phylact/o-.
B) sensitiv/o-.
C) cutane/o-.
D) lip/o-.
Q2) What type of drug is used to treat ringworm?
A) antiviral
B) antibiotic
C) antipruritic
D) antifungal
Q3) By looking at the definition of the combining form pil/o-,we can tell that a pilonidal cyst is initially caused by an abnormal ____________.
Q4) Keratin in the epidermis absorbs ultraviolet light to protect DNA in skin cells from undergoing genetic mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cyanosis,icterus,and port wine stains are all related to changes in the skin
Q6) The combining form xer/o- means ____________.
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Chapter 27: Medical Terminology and Anatomy
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Q1) A DEXA scan is done to determine the extent of osteomyelitis in a patient's bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The facial bones protect the eyes and internal structures of the nose,mouth,and upper throat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Arthrography is a radiologic procedure that uses a radiopaque contrast dye injected into a joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A fracture caused by a disease process such as osteoporosis,bone cancer,or metastasis to the bone is called a ____________ fracture
Q5) The adjective peroneal refers to the ____________.
A) fibula
B) hallux
C) sacrum
D) radius
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Chapter 28: Muscle and Movement: A Comprehensive Guide to Anatomy and Conditions
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Q1) A semisolid or fluid-containing cyst located on a tendon is known as a ____________.
A) contusion
B) sprain
C) hypertrophy
D) ganglion
Q2) Straightening and extending a joint to increase the angle between two bones or two body parts is called ____________.
Q3) The combining form chir/o- means ____________.
Q4) A rhabdomyoma is a benign tumor that arises from striated or skeletal muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which is an uncomfortable twitching of the muscles of the legs,particularly the calf muscles,along with an indescribable tingling,aching,or crawling-insect sensation?
A) muscular dystrophy
B) restless legs syndrome
C) myalgia
D) tremor
Q6) The prefix ad- means ____________.
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Chapter 29: Neurology and Nervous System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a surgical procedure that is used to treat a herniated disk?
A) craniotomy
B) laminectomy
C) neurorrhaphy
D) ventriculoperitoneal shunt
Q2) Proprioception is related to:
A) pain.
B) nerve damage.
C) body position.
D) sensation.
Q3) A ventriculoperitoneal shunt is performed to remove excess cerebrospinal fluid associated with hydrocephalus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The study of the anatomy,physiology,diseases,tests,and surgeries of the nervous system is known as ____________.
Q5) A herniated intravertebral disk is known as a slipped disk.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cystocele is an abnormal passageway connecting the bladder to the vagina.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Polyuria is an indication of the presence of a urinary tract infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The state of having a kidney stone is known as ____________.
Q4) All of the following are associated with a urinalysis,except:
A) TNTC.
B) hpf.
C) pH.
D) BUN.
Q5) Which of the following is a disease that affects the kidneys?
A) ESRD
B) BUN
C) GU
D) KUB
Q6) The ____________ is a reservoir for storing urine.
Q7) The word for urinary frequency and increased voluntary urination at night is called
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Chapter 31: Male Genitourinary System and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postcoital pain occurs after sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The testes are the male ____________ or sex glands.
Q3) Semen and urine both use the urethra to go to the outside of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A vasovasostomy is used to reconstruct the vas in a patient who has previously had an orchiectomy and now wishes to have more children.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A varicocele can be the cause of:
A) impotence.
B) infertility.
C) urinary hesitancy and dribbling.
D) premature ejaculation.
Q6) The gonads or sex glands in the male are the ____________.
Q7) The passageway in the groin through which the testis travels as it descends from the abdominal cavity to the scrotum is called the ____________ canal.
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Chapter 32: Smear and Other Female Reproductive Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which syllable is the primary accented syllable in the pronunciation of the medical word oogenesis (oh-oh-jen-eh-sis)?
Q2) The time from the moment of conception to the moment of birth is known as ____________.
A) fertilization
B) gestation
C) trimester
D) postpartum
Q3) Inserting a needle into the pregnant uterus and aspirating fluid to be tested is known as an ____________.
Q4) All of the following are true about the surgical procedure D&C except:
A) the uterine wall is scraped.
B) it is a form of assisted reproductive technology.
C) it removes retained tissues after an incomplete abortion.
D) the cervix is first dilated.
Q5) Effacement is the thinning of the cervical wall during labor.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ____________ of the uterus is the round,dome-like part.
Q7) The process of forming a mature ovum is known as ____________.
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Chapter 33: Psychiatric Disorders and Therapies
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Q1) Which disorder involves repetitive pulling out of hair from the head?
A) pedophilia
B) pyromania
C) trichotillomania
D) kleptomania
Q2) Obtaining sexual arousal by deliberately causing abuse,pain,humiliation,or bondage to another person is known as:
A) voyeurism.
B) sadism.
C) rape.
D) transvestism.
Q3) Bulimia is an extreme eating disorder characterized by a decrease in food intake to the point of starvation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The feeling that someone is trying to hurt or kill you when this is not true is known as a ____________ of persecution.
Q5) The _________ connects the hippocampus to the thalamus and amygdaloid bodies.
Q6) A/An ____________ is an intense state of feelings.
Page 36
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Chapter 34: Cancer Terminology and Diagnosis
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Q1) The ____________ is a gel-like substance that fills the cell.
Q2) All of the following are true about cancer cells except ____________.
A) They form a tumor that is irregular in shape and not encapsulated
B) They often divide more rapidly than normal cells
C) There is only one primary site but there may be several secondary sites
D) The greater the number of undifferentiated cells, the better the prognosis
Q3) All are forms of environmental radiation except:
A) asbestos
B) sunlight
C) nuclear weapons
D) x-rays
Q4) An implantable wafer containing a chemotherapy drug is implanted in a tumor before it has been removed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An example of brachytherapy would be:
A) insertion of radioactive substances intravenously for thyroid cancer.
B) insertion of radioactive substances into the lymphatic system for leukemia.
C) external beam radiation directed at the chest for lung cancer.
D) placing a radioactive implant directly into the bladder for bladder cancer.
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Chapter 35: Radiologic Procedures and Imaging Techniques
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Q1) The most common type of chest x-ray is done with the patient standing with the chest next to the x-ray plate.This is a/an ____________ chest x-ray.
A) posteroanterior
B) anteroposterior
C) lateral
D) oblique
Q2) On x-ray,areas of high density are said to be ____________.
Q3) The combining form later/o- means :
A) back.
B) front.
C) middle.
D) side.
Q4) The MUGA scan assesses ____________ function.
A) liver
B) lung
C) colon
D) heart
Q5) A ventilation-perfusion scan is also known as a V/Q scan or a ____________ scan.
Q6) The abbreviation for chest x-ray is ____________. Page 38
Radiation exposure is measured in ____________.
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