Medical Office Procedures
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Office Procedures introduces students to the fundamental administrative tasks required in a healthcare setting, focusing on the role of the medical office assistant. The course covers scheduling appointments, patient record management, medical billing and coding, handling insurance claims, and maintaining confidentiality in accordance with HIPAA regulations. Students will also learn effective communication skills for interacting with patients and healthcare professionals, telephone etiquette, and the use of electronic health records (EHR) systems. By the end of the course, students will be prepared to efficiently manage daily operations in various medical office environments.
Recommended Textbook
Comprehensive Medical Assisting 6th Edition by Wilburta Q. Lindh
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47 Chapters
1893 Verified Questions
1893 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Medical Assisting Profession
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CARE bill set specific requirements that needed to be met by all persons performing medical imaging procedures.Onwhich of the following dates was the bill introduced to the senate?
A)March 1, 2007
B)January 1, 2007
C)March 30, 2007
D)January 30, 2007
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a practicum to the medical assistant student?
A)The staff can observe the student before employment.
B)The student has the ability to apply knowledge and skill in a real-world medical setting.
C)The student can understand that more than one acceptable method of performance may exist.
D)The student can begin to establish a network of support through colleagues. Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Health Care Settings and the Health Care Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who best knows the patient's body and financial situation?
A)The doctor
B)The patient
C)The insurance company
D)The physician
Answer: B
Q2) A Medical Laboratory Technologist is credentialed by the A)CAAHEP
B)ABHES
C)ASCP
D)NCCPA
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following best describes how alternative health therapies are being perceived?
A)As taking care of oneself
B)The first step before seeing a medical provider
C)A complement to traditional health care
D)A replacement for traditional health care
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Coping Skills for the Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can help prevent stress and panic associated with too much work?
A)Antidepressants
B)Planning and prioritization
C)Procrastination
D)Bright colors in the workplace
Answer: B
Q2) Plan ahead for each task performed by obtaining needed equipment and supplies.
A) long-term goal
B) short-term goal
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is NOT associated with the body's psychological response to stress?
A)Anxiety
B)Depression
C)Immune system disorders
D)Eating problems
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communication Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) When communicating within the health profession, which would not be considered a technique to keep in mind?
A)Good communication skills are necessary in establishing rapport with patients.
B)Patients feel respected when they are called by their full name.
C)Patients should be encouraged to not verbalize their feelings.
D)Patients should be given technical information in a manner they can understand.
Q2) Rather than implying that a patient is simply overreacting, a professional should
A)be sincere, empathetic, and nonjudgmental.
B)reject the patient's ideas or comments if they are wrong.
C)speak for the patient so they do not need to speak.
D)remain silent.
Q3) The common gesture of finger-tapping might mean which of the following?
A)Indifference
B)Impatience
C)Discouragement
D)Anger
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Chapter 5: The Therapeutic Approach to the Patient With a Life-Threatening Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic action of the medical assistant when a patient is estranged from his family?
A)Notify the patient's family.
B)Notify the patient's friends.
C)Give the patient referral for a local support group.
D)Develop a personal friendship with the patient.
Q2) Criteria that may identify an illness as AIDS includes which of the following?
A)Opportunistic infection
B)Tumor
C)Severe body wasting
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of Kübler-Ross's stages of grief?
A)Anger
B)Bargaining
C)Demanding
D)Denial
E)Acceptance
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Legal Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a provision of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?
A)Former abusers of drugs/alcohol cannot be denied employment.
B)Disabled individuals are allowed access to public services.
C)Persons with HIV/AIDS cannot be refused medical treatment by health professionals because of their health status.
D)The law applies to all businesses.
Q2) HIPAA law is identified in how many titles?
A)2
B)7
C)6
D)5
Q3) Which of the following best describes the tort applicable to the injury to another person's reputation, name, or character through written words?
A)Battery
B)Libel
C)Invasion of privacy
D)Slander
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Chapter 7: Ethical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CDC recommends that voluntary screening for HIV/AIDS become a routine part of medical care for patients between the ages of
A)15-70
B)21-65
C)25-60
D)13-64
Q2) Hospice discourages
A)CPR
B)IV therapy
C)Feeding tubes
D)all of the above
Q3) In the course of a physical examination, a provider discovers that his patient has a sexually transmitted disease, and he reports this information to the State Board of Health.
A) ethical
B) unethical
Q4) The medical chart and the information in it are withheld because of an unpaid bill.
A) ethical
B) unethical
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Chapter 8: Emergency Procedures and First Aid
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Sample Questions
Q1) more than one fracture line with several bone fragments present
A) greenstick
B) simple
C) compound
D) comminuted
E) Colles
F) depressed
G) spiral
H) impacted
Q2) A patient stumbles through the door just as the office opens, and the provider is not in.He says he experienced a sharp blow to the stomach, is holding his abdomen, and then pitches forward and falls on the floor in the waiting room.As you go to the patient, you see he is not responding but has a rapid and weak pulse and shallow breathing.What is the next thing you do?
A)Take his vital signs.
B)Try to revive him to see what happened.
C)Do a quick exam to see whether there are injuries.
D)Have a staff member call EMS.
E)Call the provider on her cell phone.
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10
Chapter 9: Creating the Facility Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should the receptionist or administrative medical assistant arrive to open the facility?
A)Same time as the first patient arrives
B)Five minutes before the first patient arrives
C)Twenty minutes before the first patient arrives
D)One hour before the first patient arrives
Q2) Which of the following is NOT in compliance with ADA requirements?
A)One accessible entrance with protection from the weather
B)An accessible passenger-loading zone
C)Ten percent of the total parking spaces at outpatient facilities marked handicapped
D)Five wheelchairs available for use at every door entrance
Q3) Which of the following best describes making facilities and equipment available to all users?
A)Facilitation
B)Debilitating
C)Accessibility
D)Empowerment
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Chapter 10: Computers in the Medical Clinic
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following abbreviations applies to a compact disk that allows data to be erased and rewritten?
A)CD
B)CD-ROM
C)CD-R
D)CD-RW
Q2) Which of the following best describes the starting point for a meaningful information security system?
A)Hacker software
B)Comprehensive security policy
C)Antivirus programs
D)Passwords
Q3) Data storage memory is:
A)permanent
B)volatile
C)read-only
D)lost after the computer is turned off
Q4) standard telephone modem (dial-up)
A) hardwired system
B) wireless system
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Chapter 11: Telecommunications
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Sample Questions
Q1) insurance information
A) medical assistant
B) provider
Q2) provider's family
A) medical assistant
B) provider
Q3) Which of the following best describes a system that answers the call and provides the caller with a choice of departments or services that can be accessed by pressing a specified number on the touch-tone telephone?
A)Facsimile machine
B)Automated routing unit
C)Electronic mail
D)Answering service
Q4) What is the primary reason for repeating information back to a caller while screening calls?
A)Gives the caller a chance to clarify and/or confirm information
B)Lets the caller know you are listening
C)Gives appearance of professionalism
D)Keeps you focused
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Chapter 12: Patient Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) When screening phone calls, what question would NOT be considered appropriate to determine the urgency of the situation?
A)Is the patient in immediate need of medical assistance?
B)How far are you from the facility?
C)Is there any bleeding?
D)Are there chest pains?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a reason why the medical office should retain all records for legal purposes?
A)Identify how many no-shows a patient has
B)Determine how many canceled appointments a patient has
C)Verify a patient has been seen
D)Keep track of how many patients are seen for a specific condition
Q3) Which of the following, regarding appointments, should always be documented in the patient's medical record?
A)Time change of appointment
B)Patient arrival late for appointment
C)Cancellation or no-show of appointment
D)Patient inquiry of time of appointment
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14
Chapter 13: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an error has been made and you need to correct a medical record, what must be done?
A)Use Wite-Out® to cover the error and rewrite.
B)Use a single red line and your initials.
C)Cross out with a black pen.
D)Do nothing and continue writing.
Q2) When EMRs from multiple sources are combined into one database for a patient, what term is used?
A)EHR
B)EMR
C)ERS
D)None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a filing method used to identify and separate items to be filed in small subunits?
A)File folder
B)Identification label
C)Out sheets
D)Indexing units
E)Cross reference
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many incorrect punctuation marks are in the letter?
A)None
B)Two
C)Five
D)Four
Q2) =
A) align type horizontally
B) center
C) move left
D) insert
E) insert space
F) paragraph indent
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a document that may be signed by the medical assistant?
A)Medical reports to insurance companies
B)Provider's personal letters
C)Provider's correspondence to other providers
D)Notification of collection procedures
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Medical Documents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of report chronicles the details of a surgical procedure?
A)Radiology report
B)Pathology report
C)Autopsy report
D)Operative report
Q2) When editing a transcription document, and you flag a certain area.What does this mean?
A)It is ready to be put on a legal document.
B)It needs a physician's signature.
C)You are unable to interpret the flagged area.
D)There is an incorrect spelling.
Q3) surgical procedure and sponge count
A) radiology report
B) operative report
C) autopsy report
D) pathology report
E) H & P
F) consultation
G) discharge summary
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of charges the provider would have to write off if insurance did not cover it, is known as what?
A)Usual customary fee
B)Write-off
C)Deduction
D)Adjustment
Q2) preventive treatment provided
A) managed care
B) traditional
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a category for referrals?
A)Post-dated
B)Regular
C)Urgent
D)STAT
Q4) annual deductible
A) managed care
B) traditional
Q5) fee-for-service payment
A) managed care
B) traditional
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many diagnosis codes will the preceding scenario require?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
E)Five
Q2) Which of the following is a convention used when there is not enough information to find a more specific code?
A)NEC
B)NOS
C)V codes
D)E codes
Q3) On completion of the processing of the claim, the insurance company sends what to the insured person?
A)POS
B)Claim remittance
C)EOB
D)1490 form
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Chapter 18: Daily Financial Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the form given to Medicare patients explaining that the cost of a procedure is the responsibility of the patient?
A)Waiver of fees
B)Advanced beneficiary notice
C)Medical necessity form
D)Patient responsibility form
Q2) The encounter form is also known as the:
A)Charge slip
B)Multipurpose billing form
C)Superbill
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a procedural step when disbursing the petty cash funds?
A)Sort all vouchers by account.
B)List all accounts involved.
C)Total vouchers for each account.
D)Write a check to replace funds.
E)Add receipts to original petty cash amount
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Chapter 19: Billing and Collections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Billing that occurs by dividing up all accounts alphabetically into groups and then sending them out at different times is known as what?
A)Monthly billing
B)Alphabetical billing
C)Cycle billing
D)Group billing
Q2) Which of the following best describes a monthly billing system?
A)Patients are billed monthly in alternating cycles.
B)All bills are completed in a few days and mailed.
C)Accounts are divided into groups and billed monthly, but in different weeks.
D)Accounts are divided up alphabetically and mailed on the 15th of the month
Q3) Which of the following must the collection of fees be directed to when a patient dies?
A)Executor of the estate
B)Small claims court
C)Probate court
D)Deceased's insurance carrier
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21
Chapter 20: Accounting Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) laboratory procedures
A) fixed costs
B) variable costs
Q2) Which of the following accounting systems is based on the principle that assets equal liabilities plus owner's equity.This system requires time and skill and provides a comprehensive financial picture with built-in accuracy controls?
A)Single entry
B)Double entry
C)Pegboard
D)Computerized
Q3) Which of the following is an unwritten promise to pay for credit purchases or services?
A)Debt collection
B)Cost ratio
C)Accounts payable
D)Cost accounting
Q4) depreciation
A) fixed costs
B) variable costs
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Chapter 21: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant during a medical aseptic hand wash?
A)Allow clothing to touch sink.
B)Only touch inside of sink with hands.
C)Turn off faucet with a dry paper towel.
D)Use the same towel to shut off faucet.
E)Hold hands upward.
Q2) Which of the following are examples of a reservoir in the infection cycle?
A)Excretions and secretions
B)Immunosuppressants and the elderly
C)Equipment and water
D)Respiratory tract and broken skin
E)Protozoa and fungi
Q3) Which medical asepsis process uses various chemicals that can destroy many pathogenic microorganisms?
A)Sanitization
B)Ultrasound
C)Disinfection
D)Sterilization
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Chapter 22: The Patient History and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have picked up your equipment and the supplies necessary to obtain a medical history from a new patient.You introduce yourself to the patient after confirming her identity.Then you attempt to put her at ease.What is the next thing you should do?
A)Wash your hands.
B)Begin to ask questions.
C)Explain the purpose and importance of information gathering.
D)Ask about allergies.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of the provider's notice of its privacy act according to the HIPAA privacy rule?
A)Describes patient's rights
B)Explains facilities practices related to PHI
C)Explains where to file a complaint
D)Describes various treatments
Q3) Which of the following best describes the patient's idea of treatment success?
A)Curing the disease
B)Understanding what caused the illness
C)Being able to successfully manage the disease
D)Understanding the physiology of the disease
E)Getting medications
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Vital Signs and Measurements
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of pulse to be documented in assessment?
A)Volume
B)Rate
C)Rhythm
D)Expansion
Q2) How should the thermometer be inserted when using an electronic thermometer to take an oral temperature?
A)Under the tongue to the side of the mouth
B)Under the tongue in the center of the mouth
C)Under the tongue next to the teeth
D)Between the teeth and the cheek
Q3) Which of the following is the average normal range of adult diastolic blood pressure?
A)30-50 mmHg
B)60-80 mmHg
C)110-140 mmHg
D)140-180 mmHg
E)70-100 mmHg
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Chapter 24: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) vitiligo
A) yellow
B) white patches
C) blue
D) no color
Q2) used primarily for proctologic and sigmoid examinations and procedures
A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Fowler's
E) Proctologic
Q3) used for patients with cardiovascular and respiratory problems
A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Fowler's
E) Proctologic
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Itching and soreness followed by genital vesicles which heal in 10 -14 days is caused by:
A)Chlamydia
B)Trichomonas
C)Gonorrhea
D)Herpes
Q2) A 30-year-old sexually active woman calls and states she last had a Pap smear 2 years ago.She asks whether she should make an appointment to come in for another Pap smear.In how many years should the medical assistant tell her that she is due for another exam according to American Cancer Society guidelines?
A)She is overdue by 1 year.
B)Get another smear next year.
C)Get another smear in 2 years.
D)Get another smear in 3 years.
Q3) alpha fetal fetoprotein
A) produces an image of the fetus
B) takes a sample of tissue
C) used to rule out neural tube defects
D) takes a fluid sample for congenital anomalies
E) aspirates blood from fetal umbilical cord vessels
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Chapter 26: Pediatrics
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Q1) Which of the following is most often caused by Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus?
A)Otitis media
B)Tonsillitis
C)Chickenpox
D)Asthma
E)Frequent colds
Q2) Which of the following is the name of the vaccine given for polio?
A)DPT
B)IPV
C)HiB
D)HBV
E)Varicella
Q3) Which of the following is the name of the vaccine given for chickenpox?
A)DPT
B)IPV
C)HiB
D)HBV
E)Varicella
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following disorders are characteristic of pain in the back, muscle aches, and urinary frequency?
A)Benign prostatic hypertrophy
B)Prostatitis
C)Prostate cancer
D)Testicular cancer
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a cause or erectile dysfunction?
A)thyroid disease
B)medications
C)atherosclerosis
D)stress/depression
Q3) Which is an incorrect statement while explaining a self-testicular exam to a patient?
A)Examine yourself after a cool shower.
B)Stand in front of a mirror.
C)If you find a lump, notify the doctor right away.
D)Exams should be performed once a month.
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Chapter 28: Gerontology
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Q1) Which of the following is an untrue fact regarding aging?
A)Aging is a progressive and slow process.
B)Individual lifestyle has no effect on aging.
C)There are no diseases specific to aging.
D)There is a wider range of what is considered "normal" function among older adults than among younger people.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the common musculoskeletal problems of the elderly?
A)Decreased muscle strength
B)Decreased mobility
C)Increased stiffness
D)Increased fractures
E)Increased flexibility
Q3) Which of the following is a consequence of failure to report elder abuse?
A)Fine
B)Misdemeanor charge
C)Felony charge
D)No charge
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Chapter 29: Examinations and Procedures of Body Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when performing eye instillation?
A)Instruct the patient to move the eye up and down during instillation of drops.
B)Instruct the patient to stare at a fixed spot during instillation of drops.
C)Tell the patient to look down at the floor during instillation.
D)Pull up on the upper eyelid and down on the lower lid.
Q2) What breathing test measures airflow, volume, and capacity?
A)Chest x-ray
B)Pulmonary function test
C)Pulse oximetry
D)All the above
Q3) Which of the following does a patient with a new cast NOT need to report to the provider?
A)Bad odor coming from the cast
B)Numbness, tingling, or inability to move the fingers or toes
C)Burning sensation over the bony area
D)Itching and dry skin
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Chapter 30: Assisting With Minor Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the smallest suture size?
A)0
B)1
C)1-0
D)6-0
Q2) Which of the following is the primary purpose of surgical asepsis?
A)To clean and disinfect contaminated surfaces
B)To prevent microorganisms from entering the body during invasive procedures
C)To prevent exposing the body to microorganisms
D)To sterilize the skin
Q3) Fiber-optic endoscopes uses which type of sterilization?
A)Gas
B)Steam
C)Chemical
D)Dry heat
Q4) If a sterile field that is not poly-lined gets wet, it is still considered sterile.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Imaging
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Q1) Which of the following must be of the highest resolution more than any other x-ray?
A)Ultrasound
B)Mammogram
C)Flat plate
D)CT scan
Q2) Which of the following is NOT commonly used as a contrast medium?
A)Barium
B)Air
C)Water
D)Iodine
Q3) Which of the following is an imaging procedure requiring injection of charged particles?
A)PET scan
B)CT scan
C)Ultrasound
D)MRI
E)Fluoroscopy
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Chapter 32: Rehabilitation and Therapeutic Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) moving the hand to put the palm up
A) circumduction
B) dorsiflexion
C) pronation
D) rotation
E) supination
Q2) Which of the following is NOT included in the medical assistant's role with rehabilitation modalities in the ambulatory care setting?
A)Providing understanding and encouragement
B)Acknowledging frustrations at loss of function and challenges
C)Prescribing types of therapies
D)Respecting dignity
E)Encouraging good body mechanics
Q3) Which of the following is most appropriate when transferring a patient?
A)Lift the patient by the arms or armpits.
B)Use a gait belt around the patient's waist always.
C)Have the patient put her arms around your neck or on your shoulders.
D)Tell the patient not to try to help you.
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Chapter 33: Nutrition in Health and Disease
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Q1) Which of the following best classifies most dietary fiber?
A)Protein
B)Carbohydrate
C)Fat
D)Vitamin
E)Mineral
Q2) Chinese
A) Rice is the primary energy food; vegetables are lightly cooked.
B) Spices, especially curry, are popular.
C) Dark breads and fewer green vegetable salads are consumed.
D) Combinations of Spanish and Native American foods are popular.
E) Fish, vegetables, and rice often served fried.
Q3) The sale of which of the following was banned by the FDA in the United States?
A)Herbal supplements
B)Soy products
C)Natural hormones
D)Ephedra
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Chapter 34: Basic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) low to moderate dependence potential; written or oral; only refilled 5 times in 6 months
A) Schedule I
B) Schedule II
C) Schedule III
D) Schedule IV
E) Schedule V
Q2) gives the potential dangers of the drug
A) description
B) precautions
C) warnings
D) contraindications
E) adverse reactions
Q3) gives the origin and chemical composition of the drug
A) description
B) precautions
C) warnings
D) contraindications
E) adverse reactions
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Calculation of Medication Dosage and Medication Administration
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Q1) Which of the following medications does NOT require massage to the site after administration?
A)Insulin
B)Imferon
C)Heparin
D)All the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a part of a syringe?
A)Barrel
B)Plunger
C)Flange
D)Needle
Q3) What does the provider take into consideration when ordering an IV?
A)Clinical laboratory results
B)Patient's age
C)Patient's gender
D)Both a and b
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Chapter 36: Cardiac Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about Holter monitor electrodes?
A)They are disposable.
B)The electrodes contain an electrolyte gel.
C)There are only 6 to 7 electrodes used.
D)The electrodes are applied in different locations than in a resting ECG.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an artifact caused by electrical interference?
A)Patient sneeze
B)Patient cough
C)AC interference
D)DC interference
Q3) Which of the following is true about a treadmill stress test?
A)It is an invasive ECG tracing.
B)It is taken under uncontrolled conditions.
C)The stress test is monitored closely by the provider.
D)Electrodes are applied to the arms, chest, and legs.
Q4) ? Which of the following best describes how the augmented leads are recorded?
A)Before the bipolar
B)After the precordial leads
C)After the bipolar leads
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Chapter 37: Regulatory Guidelines for Safety and Quality in the Medical Laboratory
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Q1) mandate
A) formal order to obey certain rules and regulations
B) organized into a notebook for employee use
C) barrier used in the laboratory to capture chemical vapors
D) government agency from which written CLIA '88 guidelines may be obtained
E) sample tests performed to determine whether a specific degree of accuracy is achieved
Q2) Which of the following organizations is responsible for test categorization and CLIA studies?
A)CMS
B)OSHA
C)United States Department of Labor
D)Medicaid
Q3) lab meets CLIA regulations after inspection
A) COW
B) PPMP
C) Registration
D) Accreditation
E) Compliance
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Chapter 38: Introduction to the Medical Laboratory
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Q1) How is the light intensity adjusted?
A)Use high power.
B)Use oil immersion.
C)Use condenser.
D)Use the fine adjustment.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about caring for a microscope?
A)Carry the microscope by the oculars.
B)Keep the microscope uncovered when not in use to avoid turning the knobs.
C)Clean the lens with standard tissue.
D)Use oil only with oil-immersion lens.
Q3) Which of the following departments monitors any drug usage and the therapeutic levels of medication prescribed to patients?
A)Toxicology
B)DNA
C)Serology
D)Clinical chemistry
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Chapter 39: Phlebotomy: Venipuncture and Capillary
Puncture
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Q1) toxicology testing
A) light gray top
B) light blue top
C) lavender/purple top
D) dark blue/royal blue top
E) red top
Q2) When a blood pressure cuff is used as a tourniquet, the cuff should be maintained at what pressure ?
A)Slightly below the systolic pressure
B)Slightly above the systolic pressure
C)Slightly above the diastolic pressure
D)Slightly below the diastolic pressure
Q3) Pull gently with plunger.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
Q4) How many liters of blood does the body contain? A)3
B)6
C)8 D)10
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Chapter 40: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most numerous of the white blood cells?
A)Monocytes
B)Lymphocytes
C)Neutrophils
D)Eosinophils
Q2) Which of the following is the major component of the RBC that transports oxygen?
A)Serum
B)Hemoglobin
C)Plasma
D)Protein
Q3) Platelets or thrombocytes are involved in doing what in the blood?
A)Fighting infection
B)Coagulation
C)Carry's oxygen
D)All the above
Q4) normochromatic
A) Cells show marked variation in shape.
B) Cells show marked variation in size.
C) Cells have proper amount of hemoglobin.
D) Cells have large, pale central area.
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Chapter 41: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an abnormal substance in urine?
A)Urea
B)Ammonium
C)Chloride
D)Fat
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about the examination of urine?
A)Urine should be examined within 24 hours of voiding.
B)Urine should be refrigerated for at least 1 hour before examination.
C)Urine should be examined within 2 hours of voiding.
D)Urine should never be refrigerated.
Q3) Which of the following are significant crystals that need to be documented?
A)Ammonium biurate
B)Uric acid
C)Triple phosphate
D)Calcium oxalate
Q4) When casts are formed, what accumulates in the kidney tubules?
A)Protein
B)pH
C)Specific gravity
D)Ketones
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Chapter 42: Basic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient has a bacterial infection that is not responding to the antibiotic, what test might the physician order?
A)Differential stain
B)C & S
C)KOH
D)All the above
Q2) After the agar plate has been inoculated and properly labeled, what must you do with the plate?
A)Nothing, agar plates require nothing special.
B)Place it back with the other agar plates in the original package.
C)Leave it right-side-up, and place in the proper environment for growth.
D)Turn it upside down, and place in the proper environment for growth.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the results of a Gram stain?
A)All bacteria will turn yellow.
B)Gram negative bacteria will turn purple.
C)Gram positive bacteria will turn purple.
D)Gram positive bacteria will not have any color.
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Chapter 43: Speciality Laboratory Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited condition in which the baby cannot metabolize which of the following properly?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Fats
C)Protein
D)Vitamin A
Q2) Which organ is responsible for producing cholesterol?
A)Heart
B)Kidney
C)Liver
D)Spleen
Q3) When is semen analysis NOT performed?
A)Complete PE
B)Evaluate vasectomy effectiveness
C)Determine paternity
D)Substantiate rape cases
Q4) blood typing
A) found on the surface of red blood cells
B) hemagglutination
C) protein molecules that are found in serum
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Chapter 44: The Medical Assistant As Clinic Manager
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Q1) A summary report of which of the following payroll forms must be sent to the Social Security Administration each year according to federal law?
A)W-4
B)W-6
C)941
D)W-2
Q2) Social networking should NOT be used in which of the following ways?
A)To criticize the competition
B)To recruit new employees
C)To build community
D)To engage customers
Q3) to follow a supervisor in order to learn facility protocol
A) benchmark
B) mentor
C) shadow
D) practicum/externship
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Chapter 45: The Medical Assistant As Human Resources Manager
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Q1) emergency protocol
A) policy manual
B) procedures manual
Q2) Provide a current job description.
A) recruiting and hiring personnel
B) orienting and training personnel
C) dismissing employees
D) complying with safe working conditions
E) planning employee training and education
Q3) Provide an in-house demonstration on new office equipment.
A) recruiting and hiring personnel
B) orienting and training personnel
C) dismissing employees
D) complying with safe working conditions
E) planning employee training and education
Q4) Which of the following may NOT be an effective tool for recruiting?
A)Facebook
B)LinkedIn
C)Networking
D)Newspaper advertisements
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Chapter 46: Preparing for Medical Assisting Credentials
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Q1) Annie is taking the CMA (AAMA) examination and is worried because she has no training in legal issues and needs a resource.Which of the following describes her best resource for this information pertinent to the medical office?
A)Another medical assistant practitioner
B)Her lawyer
C)State codes
D)Current medical assisting textbook
Q2) Which of the following is NOT included in the criteria for applicants sitting for the RMA examination?
A)Be a graduate of an accredited high school
B)Be of good moral character
C)Be at least 16 years of age
D)None of the above
Q3) When must a student enroll as an AAMA member to be eligible for the reduced student rate?
A)During the first year of employment
B)Before starting a job
C)Immediately after graduation
D)Before graduation
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Chapter 47: Employment Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing for an interview, which of the following items should NOT be included in your portfolio?
A)A copy of your birth certificate
B)A copy of your transcripts
C)An extra copy of your resume
D)A copy of your first aid training certificate
Q2) In order to determine the best qualified candidate, employers use software that searches for specific keywords in a textrésumé.Which of the following wound NOT be considered a keyword:
A)Salary requirement
B)Job-specific skills
C)Technologic terms
D)Types of degrees
Q3) The most important quality an employer looks for in an employee is:
A)Attitude
B)Appearance
C)Job history
D)Salary requirements
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