Medical Office Procedures
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Office Procedures is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the knowledge and practical skills necessary for effective administrative operations within a healthcare environment. The course covers key topics such as patient scheduling, medical records management, insurance processing, billing, coding, and effective communication in a medical setting. Emphasis is placed on confidentiality, professionalism, and the use of modern office technology, including electronic health records (EHR) systems. Students will develop an understanding of healthcare laws and regulations as well as the interpersonal skills needed to interact with patients and healthcare professionals, preparing them for roles in clinics, hospitals, and physician offices.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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Q1) The way an individual looks at information and sees it as real
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: F
Q2) A comprehensive portfolio includes which of the following?
A) Examples of work completed in each course
B) Certificates or awards
C) Proof of the skills achieved
D) Letters of recommendation
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q3) The process of considering new information and internalizing it to create new ways of examining information is called____________.
Answer: reflection
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Q1) The principal U.S. agency for providing essential human services is the
Answer: DHHS
The DHHS (Department of Health and Human Services) provides essential human services.
Q2) Salk and Pasteur developed the polio vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q3) The organization that is a clearinghouse for information and statistics associated with healthcare is the
A) CDC.
B) USAMRIID.
C) WHO.
D) DHHS.
Answer: A
Q4) Doctors of osteopathy usually practice allopathic medicine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Q1) Checking personal e-mail several times a day in the medical office is always acceptable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q2) Which statement best describes the relationship of administrative and clinical medical assisting responsibilities?
A) Administrative duties require the least interpersonal contact.
B) The two are equally important for maintaining a high-quality medical practice.
C) Clinical duties offer more variety in the type of work performed.
D) Clinical tasks are more difficult to learn than are administrative tasks.
Answer: B
Q3) One of the medical assistant's most important characteristics is a strong
Answer: work ethic
Work ethics are sets of values based on the moral virtues of hard work and diligence. They involve a whole range of activities, from individual acts to the philosophy of the entire office.
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not the role of the medical assistant in communicating with patients?
A) Advising
B) Listening
C) Observing
D) Responding
Q2) The needs we have as humans, at the most basic level, include A) esteem and recognition.
B) love.
C) safety.
D) food and shelter.
Q3) "Don't worry, I'm sure everything will be fine" is an example of A) giving advice.
B) providing unwarranted assurance.
C) reflective response.
D) talking too much.
Q4) Active listening is the skill of _____________ and clarifying what the speaker has said.
Q5) ____________ communications are usually most accurate.
Q6) When a message is ___________, it is converted into intelligible form.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Q1) Which of the following civil laws most directly affect the medical profession?
A) Tort law
B) Contract law
C) Administrative law
D) All of the above
Q2) Special damages are injuries that are not a necessary consequence of a physician's negligent act or omission.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Once a patient has decided to file a lawsuit against a physician, the first step is to find a(n) __________ to accept the case.
Q4) Respondeat superior is a Latin term meaning
A) "Let the master answer."
B) "Buyer, beware."
C) "The thing speaks for itself."
D) "Respond as soon as possible."
Q5) Much of our law is based on previous judicial and jury decisions called ordinances. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the example of organ donation and distribution of scarce or costly medications?
A) Ethical distress
B) Ethical dilemma
C) Dilemma of justice
D) Locus of authority
Q2) When a person has wronged another person, the person in the wrong has the duty to
A) become a surrogate.
B) express fidelity.
C) express an opinion.
D) make reparations.
Q3) In the allocation of health resources, the criterion (or criteria) should be which of the following?
A) Likelihood of benefit
B) Duration of benefit
C) Urgency of need
D) All of the above
Q4) The provision of care to medical colleagues or their families and staff is called
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Q1) Which of the following describes a phrase without a main clause and is a major error in writing?
A) Complete sentence
B) Verb
C) Noun
D) Fragment
Q2) Which medical assistant has a good work ethic?
A) Angela, who arrives on time every day
B) Roy, who completes his duties and leaves early
C) John, who is sick often and has missed several days of work
D) Mac, who complains to the patients about his workload
Q3) Which of the following is an output device?
A) Printer
B) Scanner
C) Light pen
D) Keyboard
Q4) A kilobyte is approximately 2,410 bits.
A)True
B)False
Q5) DVD stands for ________________________.
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Q1) A computerized appointment system often is able to __________ a message to highlight its importance.
Q2) The medical assistant should be extremely careful when using a speakerphone because
A) the service is expensive.
B) it is distracting.
C) the call can be traced.
D) confidentiality can be violated.
Q3) When answering incoming calls, what is the first thing the caller should hear?
A) The name of the facility
B) Your name
C) Your offer to help or assist
D) All of the above
Q4) A minimum of __________ items of information is needed to take a phone message correctly.
Q5) Having a keen sense of what to do or say to maintain good relations with others is called __________.
Q6) STAT means "as soon as possible."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________, in almost all cases, need their parent's permission to be treated by a physician.
Q2) A process required by some insurance carriers in which the provider obtains permission to perform certain procedures or services or refers a patient to a specialist is called a preauthorization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The facilities available at the office do not influence the number of patients the physician can see in a day.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glass partitions should never be used in today's medical offices.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical assistant must take care not to offer medical advice to the patient. A)True
B)False
Q6) A space of time between events is an interval.
A)True
B)False Page 11
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Q1) The medical assistant should check to make sure all patients have left the facility before locking up and leaving for the day.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) ___________ is an itemized list of goods shipped that shows the balance due and any transactions that affect the account.
Q3) A(n) _____________ is a list of items ordered and items shipped.
Q4) Books, manuscripts, and computer-recorded items are classified as __________ mail.
A) first class
B) standard
C) media
D) bulk
Q5) For practices that do not use e-prescribing, where should extra prescription pads be stored?
A) In the exam room
B) In the provider's pocket
C) In a locked cabinet
D) Any of the above
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "R" entry in the SOAPER charting method means
A) rationale.
B) response.
C) repeat.
D) reinforce.
Q2) The patient owns the medical record.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is not true regarding the reasons for keeping accurate medical records?
A) The medical record provides critical information for other caregivers.
B) Effects of various treatments can be tracked and statistics gleaned from them.
C) The patient's family may want to examine the records and correct errors.
D) Accurate records are vital for financial reimbursements.
Q4) Outguides are heavy guides used to replace a folder that has been removed temporarily.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ information is provided by the patient.
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Q1) The abbreviation that is the equivalent of "unspecified" is __________.
Q2) The coder should always refer to the Tabular Index first.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the second most common medical document from which diagnostic statements can be extracted?
A) Encounter form
B) Treatment notes
C) Discharge summary
D) Radiology, laboratory, or pathology report
Q4) Main terms appear in bold type.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following terms applies to the period from the last month of pregnancy to 5 months after giving birth?
A) Antepartum
B) Childbirth
C) Postpartum
D) Peripartum
Q6) The cause of a disorder is its __________.
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Q1) Total splenectomy
A) 38115
B) 38102
C) 38101
D) 38100
Q2) Basic metabolic panel
A) 80048
B) 80050
C) 80051
D) 80053
Q3) __________ codes are separated and reported individually.
Q4) New patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204
Q5) CPT-4 codes have __________ digits.
Q6) The dollar value of each basic unit value used in anesthesia coding is called the
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Q1) Health insurance benefits are determined by
A) indemnity schedules.
B) service benefit plans.
C) relative value studies.
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following pays the hospital surgical room fee?
A) Disability
B) Basic medical
C) Surgical
D) Hospital
E) Both C and D
Q3) Health insurance typically covers services and procedures considered medically necessary. Most insurance policies also cover "elective" procedures, such as certain cosmetic surgeries, that are not considered medically necessary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A physician can choose whether to accept Medicaid patients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Q1) Only physicians can be providers of medical services.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Federal Tax ID number (Box 25) for the provider filing the claim can be presented as
A) Social Security Number (SSN).
B) Employer Identification Number (EIN).
C) National Provider Identification (NPI).
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) The date in block 14 is the date
A) of the filing of the claim.
B) of the onset of the illness.
C) the patient signed the claim.
D) the provider signed the claim.
Q4) The patient's name is found in block
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Q1) In the physician's office, the accounts payable is the amount of money that all patients owe the physician.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following needs to occur when a check is returned from the bank for NSF?
A) The payment posted to the patient account must be reversed.
B) A charge line item must be added with the amount of the NSF check.
C) The original payment must be deleted.
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following should be considered when using a collection agency?
A) Net back
B) Fee percentage
C) Fee charged by the collection agency
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) The recording of business and accounting transactions is called
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Q1) If the bank charges a fee of $12 each time the average balance drops below $5,000, and this has happened seven times during the year, what is the total in these fees that the physician will pay?
Q2) The checks received today include $56, $78, $57, $43, and $5,633.12. What is the total amount in checks that will be added to the deposit?
Q3) A(n) __________ check has a detachable form that is used to itemize or specify the purpose for which the check is drawn.
Q4) The deposit is $3,290. The checkbook balance is $16,561, but the mortgage payment on the physician's building is paid the same day, which is $3,500. What is the checkbook balance?
Q5) Banks ask to be notified within a reasonable time if the customer finds a(n) __________ on his or her bank statement.
Q6) Which of the following types of accounts requires a minimum balance and draws interest at the highest rates?
A) Checking account
B) Savings account
C) Money market savings account
D) All of the above
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Q1) Before advertising for a new employee, the office manager should be sure to review the job _____________, so that a fair interview and evaluation can be conducted.
Q2) The types of staff meetings include informational, problem solving, _______________, and work sessions.
Q3) Which of the following is an unlawful pre-employment inquiry?
A) "Are you over 18 years of age?"
B) "Do you have a mental impairment that could interfere with this job?"
C) "Have you been convicted of a crime?"
D) "How many children do you have?"
Q4) A group of employees who stick together during difficult times could be called A) cohesive.
B) adaptive.
C) affable.
D) meticulous.
Q5) Intrinsic motivation is more difficult to discover than extrinsic motivation but is longer lasting.
A)True
B)False
Q6) No supervisor enjoys giving a(n) ____________ that is less than positive.
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Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Q1) Creating or changing attitudes, beliefs, and perceptions by influencing people with purchased broadcast time, print space, or other forms of written and visual media is called _____________.
Q2) The four Ps do not include
A) product.
B) practicality.
C) placement.
D) price.
Q3) The phase of planning during which the problem or goals are reviewed is the _____________ stage.
Q4) Match the Coordinated Care PCMH Domain with the appropriate descriptors. (Select all that apply.)
A) Partnering with patients and families
B) Sharing quality data and improvement activities
C) Efficient care transitions
D) Oriented towards the whole person
E) Team-based approach
F) Clinical decision-support tools
G) Across all elements of the health care system
Q5) _____________ boxes are a great way to get patient and employee input.
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Q1) Rosa is responsible for training a new employee in medical aseptic hand washing. Which of the following should Rosa emphasize?
A) Using hot, running water
B) Carefully washing around all rings
C) Using an adequate amount of soap and rubbing in a circular motion around all fingers
D) Carefully drying the hands with a sterile disposable drape
Q2) Most pathogens prefer dry, hot environments for growth and multiplication.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Alcohol hand rubs, when used properly, are as effective at reducing the incidence of nosocomial infections.
A)True B)False
Q4) As a medical assistant, it is important that you understand the inflammatory response. Describe the step-by-step process that occurs with an inflammatory reaction.
Q5) Rosa is responsible for administering the hepatitis B vaccine to a new employee. Describe the immunization schedule for this vaccine.
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following involves asking a question or summarizing a patient's thoughts?
A) Restatement
B) Clarification
C) Reflection
Q2) The physician's initial impression of the patient's presenting problem is called the
Q3) When you begin working in the healthcare environment, it will be important that you follow HIPAA regulations about patient confidentiality. Summarize four important factors to consider when complying with HIPAA.
Q4) The medical assistant is responsible for performing the systems review.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ is the physician's approach to managing the patient's health problem.
Q6) Which of the following explains a sign of disease?
A) Patient c/o pain
B) Reports of dizziness for 3 days
C) Abdominal cramping for 2 weeks
D) Elevated blood pressure
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Q1) Mr. Ignatio tells Taylor, the medical assistant, that he is really worried about developing foot ulcers because of his diabetic condition. Taylor has only 10 minutes to spend on patient education today, and he planned to review glucometer techniques. What is the best approach?
A) Tell Mr. Ignatio they will discuss his circulation problems at the next visit.
B) Continue with the lesson on glucometers, because that material is more important.
C) Give Mr. Ignatio a handout about foot care.
D) Explain the importance of foot care and then cover questions about his glucometer.
Q2) Diagram and explain how to develop and implement a patient teaching plan.
Q3) To accept the severity of a disease, the patient first must understand the potential complications of the disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Copies of teaching materials should be available in other __________ when possible.
Q5) Discuss the guidelines for patient education.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Q1) No connection exists between a high alcohol intake and the occurrence of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A nondietary source of vitamin K is
A) sunlight.
B) intestinal bacteria.
C) medication.
Q3) Naturally occurring antioxidants are not commonly associated with which of the following foods?
A) Fruits
B) Vegetables
C) Fish
D) Certain seasonings
Q4) A patient with a _________ malabsorption disorder may experience deficiencies in vitamins A, D, E, and K.
A) protein
B) cholesterol
C) fat
D) carbohydrate
Q5) __________ can be neutralized by antioxidant-rich foods.
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Q1) When an adult is diagnosed with essential hypertension, the systolic pressure is _____ and/or the diastolic pressure is _______.
A) 120 to 130/80 to 89
B) 130 to 139/85 to 95
C) 140 to 159/90 to 99
D) 160 or over/100 or over
Q2) As a blood pressure cuff is deflated, the last tapping sound is the __________ pressure.
A) mean arterial
B) systolic
C) diastolic
D) pulse
Q3) Which of the following pulses is auscultated with a stethoscope?
A) Apical
B) Brachial
C) Temporal
D) Radial
Q4) A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has difficulty breathing, or
Q5) Describe the role of the medical assistant in obtaining vital signs.
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Q1) __________ is a method of examination that uses tapping or striking the body with fingers or a small hammer to determine alterations in sound or vibration.
Q2) Transillumination is used to evaluate the sinus cavities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which examination position is used for rectal or sigmoid examinations?
A) Dorsal recumbent
B) Knee-chest
C) Lithotomy
D) Trendelenburg's
Q4) The medical term for chewing food is mastication.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Bending both the knees and the back is the best method of picking up a heavy object.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Measuring the circumference of an infant's head is an example of __________.
Q7) A body __________ is composed of several organs and their associated structures.
Q8) __________ are classified according to their shape and whether they are layered. Page 29
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) The FDA has established standards that must be followed by generic drug manufacturers. Explain at least three of these.
Q2) Which of the following drugs is classified as an antibiotic?
A) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
B) Glyburide (Micronase)
C) Ranitidine (Zantac)
D) Terfenadine (Seldane)
E) Triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide)
Q3) A cumulative effect results if a medication is absorbed faster than it is metabolized.
A)True B)False
Q4) The FTC is responsible for monitoring the advertisement of prescription drugs. A)True B)False
Q5) Ibuprofen is classified as both an antipyretic and an anti-inflammatory agent. A)True
B)False
Q6) Drugs used to increase urinary output and to reduce blood pressure are
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many milligrams equal 0.75 g?
A) 75 mg
B) 750 mg
C) 7.5 mg
D) 7,500 mg
Q2) Convert 524 mg tog.
A) 52,400 g
B) 5,240 g
C) 0.524 g
D) 5.24 g
Q3) If the drug label states, "250 mg/mL," this means that each tablet has 250 mg of the drug.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The lot number of the drug is an important item on the label, in case the medication is recalled by the pharmaceutical company that produced it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The fraction 9/8 is an example of a(n) __________ fraction.
Q6) The __________ is the bottom number of a fraction.
Page 32
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Q1) When administering a subcutaneous and/or intramuscular injection, you would gently pull back on the plunger to
A) reduce discomfort to the patient.
B) make sure the needle is not in a blood vessel.
C) make sure you are in the right site.
D) make sure you have the right medicine.
Q2) Dorothy is responsible for assisting Dr. Thau with pediatric allergy testing. What route of administration will be used?
A) Intradermal
B) Subcutaneous
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Intramuscular
Q3) Which of the following gauged needles are commonly used for subcutaneous injections?
A) 25 and 26
B) 27 and 28
C) 31
D) 14 and 18
Q4) List and describe the seven rights of safe drug administration.
Q5) __________ is an enlarged, hardened reaction produced by the Mantoux test.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Q1) Which of the following should be done immediately when administering first aid to a patient with a partial-thickness chemical burn?
A) Apply a burn ointment.
B) Break the blisters.
C) Cover the burn with dry gauze.
D) Flood the affected area with water.
E) Give pain medication.
Q2) Which of the following is one of the primary differences between administering CPR to an adult and administering it to a child?
A) Administer 3 rescue breaths if there is no breathing.
B) Perform compression/breath ratios at 15:2.
C) Compress the sternum with the heel of one hand.
D) Check the pulse more frequently.
Q3) A temporary loss of neurologic function that is caused by a problem with blood flow to the brain tissues is called a
A) CVA.
B) stroke.
C) TIA.
D) carotid occlusion.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and
Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) Conduction hearing loss is caused by a problem that originates in the cochlea.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Summarize the purpose of eye irrigations and the instillation of eye medications.
Q3) In a surgical procedure called __________, an excimer laser is used to treat refractive errors.
Q4) A tympanogram can help detect the presence of fluid in the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A patient with photophobia is afraid to leave home. A)True
B)False
Q6) The semicircular canals are responsible for maintaining balance and equilibrium. A)True
B)False
Q7) Cochlear implants treat sensorineural hearing loss.
A)True B)False
Q8) Summarize the method of instilling eye drops. Page 35
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an acute inflammatory disorder characterized by painful vesicular eruptions on the trunk of the body and occasionally on the face?
A) Herpes simplex
B) Herpes zoster
C) Verrucae
D) All of the above
Q2) Why is the dermal layer sometimes referred to as the "true skin"?
A) It is the outer layer that is visible to others.
B) It comprises the largest percentage of total skin mass.
C) It provides the body with protection from dehydration.
D) It contains the substance that gives the skin its distinctive color.
Q3) Individuals being treated for head lice must be retreated after 5 days to destroy any surviving lice and/or nits that have hatched.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Charese Blackman, age 28, was seen in the office today for removal of a malignant melanoma. The physician wants to make sure Ms. Blackman is aware of the changes in a mole that might indicate another problem. Explain the ABCDE rule to her.
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4227
Sample Questions
Q1) Signs and symptoms of which of the following diseases include loose, semi-formed stool; melena if the ulcers break through blood vessels; pain or tenderness in the right lower quadrant; anorexia; weight loss; anemia; and fatigue?
A) Ulcerative colitis
B) Crohn's disease
C) Appendicitis
D) Irritable bowel syndrome
Q2) Cytoprotective medications help protect the tissues lining the stomach and small intestine and are used in the treatment of H. pylori infections of the GI system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Constipation can be treated with
A) a low-fiber diet.
B) a bland diet.
C) a BRAT diet.
D) water.
Q4) The acronym GERD stands for __________.
Q5) The appendix is located in the __________ region of the abdomen.
Q6) The gallbladder is located in the __________ of the abdomen.
Page 38
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ is marked by hypertension and anuria.
Q2) Which of the following is more common in men and is typically caused by chlamydia or gonorrhea bacteria?
A) Urethritis
B) Cystitis
C) Pyelonephritis
D) Glomerulonephritis
Q3) Renal scanning is contraindicated in which of the following patients?
A) Child with Wilms' tumor
B) Pregnant woman
C) Patient with chronic UTIs
D) Patient with an iodine allergy
Q4) UTIs frequently are caused by Escherichia coli from the anal region.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Testicular tumors generally are benign.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) ___________ forms on the male genitalia within a few days of exposure to the gonorrhea bacillus.
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the four hormones that control the mammary glands, which hormone stimulates the development of the duct system?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Prolactin
D) Oxytocin
Q2) Bleeding between menses is called
A) metrorrhagia.
B) menorrhagia.
C) amenorrhea.
D) dysmenorrhea.
Q3) The thinning of the cervix during labor, which is measured from 0% to 100%, is called
Q4) A fluid-filled cyst in one of the vestibular glands that are located on either side of the vaginal orifice is called a __________________.
Q5) Stage ______ is the stage of labor in which the placenta is delivered.
A) I
B) II
C) III
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fifth disease is caused by coxsackievirus and results in ulcer formation in the mouth and throat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Myringotomy may be required when a child suffers from chronic A) colic.
B) otitis media.
C) asthma.
D) croup.
Q3) All states screen newborns for cystic fibrosis using either a genetic or blood test. A)True
B)False
Q4) A middle ear infection is called A) otitis media.
B) otitis externa.
C) otalgia.
D) meningitis.
Q5) _______________ is the medical term for the spaces covered by thick membranes between the sutures of an infant's skull.
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) When adjusting a walker, make sure the top of the walker is just below the patient's waist, at the height of the iliac crest.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is used to diagnose carpel tunnel syndrome?
A) Tinel test
B) Phalen test
C) Electrodiagnostic test
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) If a partner is helping you transfer a patient from a wheelchair, the wheels of the chair need not be locked.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Electromyography is helpful in diagnosing problems associated with which disorder?
A) Damage to a joint from RA
B) Complications from a nondisplaced fracture
C) Complications from advanced fibromyalgia
D) Nerve involvement from a herniated lumbar disk
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure in the brain controls the autonomic nervous system and regulates endocrine processes?
A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Ventricles
D) Cerebellum
Q2) CSF circulates around the brain and spinal cord in the epidural space.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient with MS who shows worsening of symptoms is experiencing a(n) ________________ of the disease.
Q4) Bell's palsy is a sudden paralysis of the seventh cranial nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Patients with peripheral neuropathy may complain of episodes of vertigo and syncope.
A)True B)False
Q6) The __________________ closely regulates what substances enter the brain tissue.
43
Q7) Supportive cells of the nervous system are called ______________ cells.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two of your patients are being seen in the office today. One is suspected of having hypothyroidism and the other hyperthyroidism. Summarize three signs and symptoms you would expect to see in each patient.
Q2) Which of the following is an intermediate-acting insulin that is taken at bedtime to prevent nighttime drops in blood glucose levels?
A) NPH
B) Novolin R
C) NovaLog
D) Aspart
Q3) The first signs of diabetic neuropathy are numbness, pain, or tingling in the hands, feet, or legs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a condition in which serum levels of thyroid hormones are excessively high?
A) Myxedema
B) Cretinism
C) Goiter
D) Thyrotoxicosis
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The treatment for viral pneumonia is palliative.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A blood test to help diagnose tuberculosis is
A) WBC count.
B) WBC with diff.
C) QuantiFERON-TB Gold test.
D) Mantoux.
E) PPD.
Q3) The exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen between lung tissue and the bloodstream occurs in the
A) bronchi.
B) bronchiole.
C) alveolar ducts.
D) alveolar sacs.
Q4) The physician may order either oxygen therapy or bronchodilators if a patient's pulse ox is below 92%.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical term for a low level of oxygen in the blood is __________.
Page 45
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _________ are the blood vessels that carry oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart.
A) pulmonary veins
B) pulmonary arteries
C) superior vena cava
D) inferior vena cava
Q2) Which of the following diseases develops because of widespread atherosclerotic plaque buildup in the arteries outside the heart, especially in the legs?
A) Arteriosclerosis
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Aneurysm
D) Peripheral arterial disease
Q3) Echocardiography is used in the diagnosis of incompetent cardiac valves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Endocarditis can result in permanent damage to the mitral valve.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Patients with __________ must pay particular attention to a sudden weight gain.
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the Mini-Mental Status Exam and how it is used to diagnose dementia.
Q2) Synthesis of vitamin D is not affected by aging changes in the integumentary system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Presbycusis is defined as ringing in the ears.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The family of an aging patient in the practice contacts you about the need for home-based help for their mother. Summarize the services available in the area to help aging individuals remain in their homes.
Q5) Aging patients may develop __________ because of a lack of dietary fiber and chronic constipation.
Q6) _____________ is the leading cause of death among men and women.
A) Heart disease
B) Diabetes
C) Cancer
D) Stroke
Q7) List five suggestions the medical assistant can make to help prevent falls at home.
Page 47
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ is the electric recording of the heart at rest.
Q2) If a patient has dyspnea or orthopnea, which of the following positions is acceptable for performing an electrocardiogram?
A) Semi-supine position
B) Semi-Fowler's position
C) Prone position
D) Dorsal recumbent position
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following devices monitors the heart rhythm and delivers a shock to the heart if it detects a dangerous ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation?
A) ICD
B) Pacemaker
C) Holter monitor
D) All of the above
Q4) After electrical stimulation the ventricles contract, emptying oxygen-rich blood into the pulmonary artery.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ on an ECG machine creates the image on the ECG paper.
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The radiographic view in which the coronal plane of the body or body part is parallel to the film plane (AP or PA) is a(n) __________ projection.
Q2) Patients on long-term steroid therapy are at increased risk for developing osteoporosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _______________ is an imaging method in which radioactive materials are injected into the body or ingested to provide information about the function of organs and tissues.
A) Nuclear medicine
B) Ultrasound
C) MRI
D) IVU
Q4) Which of the following fluoroscopic examinations would have the patient swallow a barium sulfate suspension?
A) Upper gastrointestinal series
B) Lower gastrointestinal series
C) Intravenous urogram
D) Arthrogram
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbiology specimens must be collected in sterile containers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chemical analysis of urine is looking for which of the following?
A) Crystals
B) Yeasts
C) Parasites
D) Nitrites
Q3) Categories of tests performed in the clinical laboratory are assigned by the FDA on the basis of the
A) potential risk to public health.
B) expense to the patient.
C) ease of performance.
D) instrumentation and supplies needed.
Q4) The bottom diamond (white) of the national fire protection association identification system indicates which of the following?
A) Flammability
B) Health hazard
C) Special hazard information
D) Reactivity or stability hazard
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about the pH of urine?
A) The average pH of freshly voided urine is 9.
B) The urinary pH varies with the diet.
C) The urine pH is alkaline if the patient has bacteriuria.
D) A urine pH below 7 indicates alkalinity.
Q2) For the most accurate results, urine specimens should be kept refrigerated and processed within 2 hours of collection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A 24-hour urine sample is ordered to determine which of the following?
A) Ketone levels
B) Creatinine clearance rates
C) Proteinuria
D) Anuria
Q4) Crushing injuries and MIs can result in _____________.
Q5) The cycle of urine production in the nephron unit is reabsorption, filtration, and secretion.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The sugar most commonly found in urine is __________.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first step OSHA recommends for the effective management of an accidental sharps exposure?
A) Injury reported to the supervisor
B) Site is washed for 10 minutes with antimicrobial soap
C) Referred to a physician for confidential assessment and follow-up
D) Incident report is completed
Q2) Which of the following Vacutainer tubes is routinely used for hematology testing?
A) Lavender topped
B) Red topped
C) Green topped
D) Light blue topped
Q3) A winged infusion set is also known as a
A) Hemagard tube.
B) Velcro tourniquet.
C) butterfly needle.
D) luer adapter.
Q4) Describe the postexposure management of a needle stick.
Q5) __________ is the liquid portion of the blood that contains clotting agents.
Q6) The typical site for a capillary puncture in an adult is the __________ finger.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Platelets
A) assist in the delivery of oxygen to tissues.
B) are elevated in thrombocytopenia.
C) are fragments of a larger cell called a poikilocyte.
D) None of the above
Q2) Which statement is true about leukocytes?
A) Leukocytes are the largest circulating blood cells.
B) Granulocytes have segmented nuclei.
C) Neutrophils are the most numerous WBCs in circulation.
D) Bacterial infections stimulate increased production of neutrophils.
E) All of the above are true.
Q3) If a capillary tube is not plugged, it must be filled with a special clay before centrifugation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not detected in a liver panel test?
A) GGT
B) ALT
C) ALP
D) CBC
53
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gram-positive cell has a thick layer of peptidoglycan with no lipid layer surrounding it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The rapid detection test that assists in the diagnosis of stomach ulcers detects
A) Clostridium perfringens.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Helicobacter pylori.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q3) Microscopically, a sputum specimen containing positive AFB appears
A) pink.
B) blue.
C) purple.
D) green.
Q4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the organism that causes tuberculosis and also is an anaerobe.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A viral cell invades a host cell and uses its ______________, including carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins, to reproduce.
Page 54
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nylon suture material is nonabsorbent and strong and has a high degree of elasticity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ethyl chloride is a topical anesthetic spray that acts as a vapocoolant to control pain associated with minor surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The jaws of this instrument are shorter and look stronger than hemostat jaws.
A) Needle holder
B) Bayonet forceps
C) Splinter forceps
D) Towel forceps (towel clamp)
Q4) One method of controlling epistaxis is to apply silver nitrate sticks to the bleeder site.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Proper preparation of a surgical site removes all organisms from the area.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A large, gaping wound that must heal from the bottom of the wound outward heals by first intention.
A)True
B)False
Q2) No harm is done if a sterile field gets wet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nonsterile individuals should never reach over a sterile field.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define sanitization, disinfection, and sterilization. Include in your answer how each is performed.
Q5) What is the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life?
A) Disinfection
B) Germicide
C) Sanitization
D) Sterilization
Q7) A(n) __________ wound is infected with pathogens. Page 56
Q6) A(n) __________ is a wound that appears jagged and irregular and is usually caused by trauma.
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a cover letter, a statement such as "I believe I have the qualities you require" should be placed in which of the following locations?
A) The first paragraph
B) The second paragraph
C) The start of the final paragraph
D) The signature block
Q2) The four phases of the job interview process include preparation, the actual interview, follow-up, and negotiation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Internet is one of the most important tools the medical assistant can use to find out about job opportunities and information on healthcare facilities in the area.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Self-management skills are the abilities the medical assistant needs to perform a job, such as performing venipuncture or billing insurance.
A)True
B)False
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Page 58