

Medical Office Procedures
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Medical Office Procedures introduces students to the administrative functions required in a healthcare setting. This course covers essential skills such as patient scheduling, medical record management, insurance processing, billing and coding, telephone etiquette, and effective communication within a medical office. Emphasis is placed on maintaining patient confidentiality, understanding healthcare regulations, and utilizing electronic health record (EHR) systems. Through practical exercises and simulations, students develop the competence and professionalism needed to efficiently support medical staff and enhance patient experiences in a clinical environment.
Recommended Textbook
Step by Step Medical Coding 2016 1st Edition by Carol J. Buck
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27 Chapters
1233 Verified Questions
1233 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Reimbursement, Hipaa, and Compliance
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The incentive to Medicare participating providers is:
A)direct payment on all claims
B)a 5% higher fee schedule
C)faster processing
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) RBRVS ________________________________________
Answer: Resource Based Relative Value Scale
Q3) Medicare sets the payment level for assistant surgeons at a percentage of the fee schedule amount for the ____ surgical service.
A)global
B)united
C)partial
D)subsequent
Answer: A
Q4) The amount determined by multiplying the RVU weight by the geographic index and the conversion factor is called the __________ __________ amount.
Answer: fee schedule
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Chapter 2: An Overview of ICD-10-CM
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are 21 chapters in the ICD-10-CM.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q2) ICD-10-CM codes have a maximum of five characters.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) The ICD-10-CM, the WHO version, does not include a procedure classification.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) ICD-10-CM codes are alphanumeric, with all codes beginning with a number.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q5) All ICD-10-CM codes have seven characters.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: ICD-10-CM Outpatient Coding and Reporting
Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long-term (current) use of aspirin.
ICD-10-CM Code: ___________________
Answer: Z79.82
Q2) If the pre- and postoperative diagnoses are different, the preoperative diagnosis should be reported.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Section IV of the Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting applies to both the inpatient and outpatient settings.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Corneal ulcer with hypopyon of left eye.
ICD-10-CM Code: ___________________
Answer: H16.032
Q5) Screening colonoscopy for colon cancer.
ICD-10-CM Code: ___________________
Answer: Z12.11
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Chapter 4: Using ICD-10-CM
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rubella meningoencephalitis.
ICD-10-CM Code:____________________
Q2) It is important to follow any cross-reference instructions in the Index of the I-10, such as see also.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Aphasia and cognitive defects, as a result of nontraumatic intracranial hemorrhage.
ICD-10-CM Codes:____________________, ____________________
Q4) Each unique I-10 diagnosis code may be reported more than once for an encounter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Section IV of the Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting contains information regarding outpatient coding.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Acute and chronic prostatitis due to Escherichia coli bacterial infection.
ICD-10-CM Codes: _________________, _________________,
Q7) Primary hypertension.
ICD-10-CM Code:____________________
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Chapter 5: Introduction to CPT
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repeat procedure by the same individual
A)-76
B)-51
C)-54
D)-50
Q2) In which CPT appendix would additions, deletions, and revisions be found?
A)Appendix A
B)Appendix B
C)Appendix C
D)Appendix D
Q3) An unlisted procedure code:
A)is a procedure or service not found in the CPT manual
B)is located in the Section Guidelines
C)is located at the end of a subsection or subheading
D)all of the above
Q4) What year was CPT first developed and published?
A)1966
B)1970
C)1983
D)none of the above
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Chapter 6: Introduction to Level II National Codes HCPSC
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Sample Questions
Q1) Temporary national codes for items or services requiring uniform national coding between one year's update and the next.
A)G, K, Q
B)E, D, A
C)J, S, T
D)P, L, J
Q2) A modifier:
A)subtracts from the definition of the code
B)adds to the HCPCS code number
C)provides additional information to the third-party payer
D)increases third-party payer reimbursement
Q3) This modifier indicates required Waiver of Liability statement issued.
A)GX
B)GY
C)GA
D)GL
Q4) Do not report HCPCS modifiers with ________ CPT Category II codes.
Q5) There are more than 50 alphabetical modifiers available for assignment to add further specificity to the five-digit national code. List the modifiers that reference a waiver of liability.
8
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Chapter 7: Modifiers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modifier -58, staged or related procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period, is used to indicate:
A)a patient is taken back to the operating room for surgical treatment of a complication resulting from a previous surgery
B)services provided usually bundled into one payment were provided as separate services
C)a service was repeated
D)a subsequent surgery was planned at the time of the first surgery
Q2) Modifier -80, Assistant Surgeon, is used when:
A)two surgeons perform a distinct part of the surgery
B)the surgery is complex and requires several physicians
C)a second surgeon provides assistance to the primary surgeon
D)all of the above
Q3) The modifier that indicates only the professional component of the service was provided is:

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Evaluation and Management EM Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) associated signs and symptoms
A)worst Ive ever had
B)continuous
C)chest
D)some relief with rest
E)on exertion
F)tightness
G)since last night
H)some shortness of breath
Q2) The four types of patient status are: ________________, ___________________, ________________, and ____________________
Q3) Mr. Smith presents to the Emergency Department at the local hospital for chest pain and is seen by the ED physician on duty. The physician obtains an extended HPI, an extended ROS, and a pertinent PFSH. What is the level of history?
A)problem-focused
B)expanded problem-focused
C)detailed
D)comprehensive
Q4) Complexity of medical decision making is based on what three elements?
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Chapter 9: Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the type of sedation that allows a procedure to be performed without pain to the patient, but the patient is not completely asleep?
A)block
B)conscious or moderate
C)general
D)regional
Q2) Assign a CPT anesthesia code for percutaneous liver biopsy. CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) Daily hospital management of epidural, continuous drug administration. CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) Concurrent modifiers are used to describe:
A)number of cases an anesthesiologist is directing or supervising at one time
B)services provided by multiple physicians on the same day
C)multiple services provided on the same day
D)none of the above
Q5) Local anesthesia is a type of anesthesia that provides a decreased level of consciousness.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ____________________ of the CPT manual lists some HCPCS modifiers.
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Chapter 10: Surgery Guidelines and General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) 37184-37218
A)Spine: Arthrodesis
B)Excision-Benign Lesions
C)Endovascular Repair of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
D)Transcatheter Procedures
Q2) What code is used to report routine postoperative care?
A)No code
B)99212
C)99024
D)99211
Q3) Parenthetical phrases that sometimes follow a code or code group provide further information about codes that may be applicable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Supplied Materials
A)Evaluating the patient in the postanesthesia recovery area
B) Special Services and Reports are presented in the Medicine Section
C)List drugs, trays, supplies, and materials provided
D)Complexity of service
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Chapter 11: Extension 1: Chapter-Specific Guidelines:
ICD-10-CM Chapters 1-10
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acute lymphangitis of left upper arm.
ICD-10-CM Code: ____________________
Q2) Identify all infections documented as antibiotic resistant with code Z16.-, Infection with drug resistant microorganisms, which is placed before the infection code.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The secondary cancer should be listed before the primary cancer if the secondary cancer is the reason for the visit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Atherosclerotic coronary artery disease with history of stent placement via angioplasty in the native right coronary artery.
ICD-10-CM Codes: ____________________, _____________________
Q5) Hypertensive congestive heart failure with hypertension and chronic kidney disease, stage 4.
ICD-10-CM Codes: ____________________, ___________________, _________________
Q6) Cataract due to type 2 diabetes mellitus.
ICD-10-CM Code: ____________________
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Chapter 13: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a treatment method for a dislocation?
A)external fixation
B)applying gentle traction
C)rotating limb while applying pressure
D)attaching a weight to the patient
Q2) Arthroscopic medial meniscus repair.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) Using codes from the wound exploration category requires the coder to assess the extent of the procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You cannot report codes for open wound exploration (20100-20103) if the wound is sufficient in size to accomplish the repair and the wound does not need to be enlarged. A)True
B)False
Q5) Trigger finger release.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q6) Arthrocentesis is aspiration of a joint, and the codes used to report the service are in the range of ____________________.
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Chapter 14: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Location: Hospital
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Pilonidal cyst.
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Same.
PROCEDURE PERFORMED: Excision of pilonidal cyst, simple.
ANESTHESIA: General endotracheal anesthesia with 30 cc of local infiltrated directly into the wound.
PROCEDURE IN DETAIL: After good general endotracheal anesthesia, the patient was carefully placed in the prone position. Care was taken to pad dependent areas. The area around the pilonidal cyst was shaved, prepped, and draped sterilely. After this, a total of 30 cc of Marcaine was injected into the area around the pilonidal sinus and a small elliptical incision was made to include the two sinuses. Wide dissection was carried down to the coccyx to include all inflamed tissue. After this, the wound was irrigated. Hemostasis was obtained with electrocautery. The wound was packed with Vaseline gauze and dressed. The patient tolerated the procedure well and was returned to the recovery room in good condition.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q2) To correctly code lesion excision, you must know the behavior (benign/malignant) as well as the site, ____________________, and ____________________ of the lesion(s).
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Page 15

Chapter 14: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because most third-party payers do not pay for cosmetic surgery, the physician must carefully document ____ to ensure reimbursement for noncosmetic procedures.
A)prognosis of the patient's condition
B)medical necessity
C)treatment plan
D)none of the above
Q2) If the physician performs a lavage of the maxillary sinus, what is he/she doing?
A)washing the maxillary sinus
B)taking a biopsy within the maxillary sinus
C)opening the maxillary sinus
D)reshaping the maxillary sinus
Q3) A 14-year-old boy presents at the Emergency Department experiencing an uncontrolled anterior nosebleed. The ED physician packs his nose with gauze and within 10 minutes the nosebleed stops.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) Bronchoscopy with placement of catheter for intracavitary radioelement application.
CPT Code: ____________________
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Page 16

Chapter 15: Extension 2: Chapter-Specific Guidelines:
ICD-10-CM Chapters 11-14
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55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Direct infection of the left ankle due to leprosy (Mycobacterium leprae).
ICD-10-CM Codes: _____________________, ______________________
Q2) Postgastrectomy dumping syndrome.
ICD-10-CM Code:_____________________
Q3) A stress fracture is the same as a pathologic fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patient with arthropathy of left hip associated with dysentery due to enteritis Yersina enterocolitica.
ICD-10-CM Codes: _____________________, _____________________
Q5) There are two types of direct infections; reactive arthropathy and postinfective arthropathy.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Loose body in the right ankle joint.
ICD-10-CM Code:____________________
Page 17
Q7) Crohn's disease of the small and large bowel complicated by pyoderma gangrenosum.
ICD-10-CM Codes:____________________, ___________________
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Chapter 16: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If fluoroscopic guidance is used during the insertion of a pacemaker, it is bundled with the primary procedure and cannot be reported separately.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A percutaneous transluminal balloon angioplasty of the right renal artery from a right femoral artery access.
CPT Codes: (Surgery Codes)____________________, ____________________ (Radiology Code, professional component only)____________________
Q3) An example of a noninvasive cardiology procedure/service is:
A)placement of a temporary pacemaker
B)placement of an intra-aortic balloon assist device
C)cardiovascular stress test
D)angioplasty
Q4) Within the cardiovascular system, what is compared to the branches of a tree?
A)veins
B)arteries
C)vascular families
D)coronary vessels
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18

Chapter 17: Hemic, Lymphatic, Mediastinum, and Diaphragm
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mediastinum category code range is ____________________.
Q2) ____ is a malignant disease of the bone marrow in which excessive white blood cells are produced.
A)Anemia
B)Leukocytosis
C)Leukemia
D)Leukopenia
Q3) The physician repairs a large laceration of the diaphragm that occurred during a car accident from the seat belt the patient was wearing through a transabdominal approach.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) The physician performs a complete axillary lymphadenectomy.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) What word describes a lymphadenectomy in which only the lymph nodes are removed?
A)radical
B)partial
C)segmental
D)limited
CPT Code: ____________________ Page 19
Q6) Imbrication of the diaphragm for eventration, transabdominal, nonparalytic.
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Page 20

Chapter 18: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examination of the entire colon
A) Colonoscopy
B) Proctosigmoidoscopy
C) Sigmoidoscopy
D) Laparoscopy
Q2) Surgical repair of reducible inguinal hernia of a 4-month-old male, initial repair.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) Exploration of abdominal and pelvic cavities
A) Colonoscopy
B) Proctosigmoidoscopy
C) Sigmoidoscopy
D) Laparoscopy
Q4) I&D of a peritonsillar abscess.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) If totally unrelated to the condition requiring critical care, code 43752 can be coded with the critical care codes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Urinary and Male Genital Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ureteral endoscopy through an established ureterostomy with irrigation and the removal of a foreign body.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q2) Cystourethroscopy with insertion of permanent urethral stent.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) Urethral biopsy.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) What do the letters in UPP stand for?
A)urethral positive positioning
B)urodynamic penetrating pressure
C)urethral pressure positioning
D)urethral pressure profile
Q5) The Urinary System subsection is first arranged anatomically.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Priapism is when a male cannot obtain an erection.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The patient had a 3.8 cm testicular laceration repair from a baseball injury. CPT Code: ____________________
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Chapter 20: Reproductive, Intersex Surgery,
Female
System, and Maternity Care and Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Removal of cerclage sutures under general anesthesia. CPT Code: ____________________
Q2) Total abdominal hysterectomy with an anterior/posterior colporrhaphy and an enterocele repair. (Separate the codes with a comma in your response as follows: XXXXX, XXXXX.)
CPT Codes: ____________________, ____________________
Q3) ____________________ describes cutting into the vagina to gain access to the pelvic cavity.
Q4) Partial removal of the vaginal wall, vaginectomy.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) This term describes an incision of the vagina to gain access to the peritoneal cul-de-sac to explore or to drain an abscess.
A)perineoplasty
B)colpocentesis
C)colpocleisis
D)oophorectomy
Q6) Amniocentesis. Code only the procedure, not the radiological service.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q7) Code a diagnostic hysteroscopy.
CPT Code: ____________________ Page 23
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Page 24
Chapter 21: Extension 3: Chapter-Specific Guidelines :
ICD-10-CM Chapters 15-21
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adverse effect occurs when a drug has been correctly prescribed and properly administered and the patient develops a reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Codes from Chapter 16, the perinatal codes, should be used on the mother's record to identify fetal conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The perinatal period extends from before birth through 28 days after birth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A congenital anomaly is an abnormality one was born with.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Multiple closed fractured ribs to the right side, after falling down a staircase at home, initial encounter.
ICD-10-CM Codes:

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Chapter 22: Endocrine and Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burr hole
A) method of identifying a specific area or point in the brain
B) removal of a portion of the skull
C) a small opening in the skull
D) an incision of the skull
Q2) Anesthetic injection of sphenopalatine ganglion. CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) The physician irrigates an existing ventricular catheter. CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) The physician drills a burr hole in the cranium to drain a subdural hematoma. CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) The physician removes the entire thyroid. CPT Code: ____________________
Q6) The Endocrine subsection of the CPT manual contains codes for ____ endocrine glands.

Q7) Name the four glands represented in the Endocrine subsection.
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Chapter 23: Eye, Ocular Adnexa, Auditory, and Operating Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) Removal of impacted cerumen from both ears using wax curettes and suction.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q2) Location: Outpatient Hospital
OPERATIVE REPORT
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Chronic otitis media with effusion
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Same
PROCEDURE PERFORMED: Bilateral tympanostomies with placement of ventilation tubes
PROCEDURE: After the patient was placed under general anesthetic, the right canal was cleared of wax and prepped with Betadine. A radial incision was made in the anterior-inferior quadrant and thick mucoid fluid was suctioned from behind this drum. A 0.39-mm ventilation tube was inserted. The left canal was then cleared of wax and prepped with Betadine. A radial incision was made in the anterior-inferior quadrant and thick mucoid fluid was suctioned from behind this drum. A 0.39-mm ventilation tube was inserted. The canal was then filled with Ciprodex on both sides and cotton in the external auditory meatus. The patient was awakened from her anesthetic and returned to the recovery room in stable condition. Prognosis immediate/remote is good. Blood loss is 0.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) The transparent part of the eye is the ____________________.
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Chapter 24: Radiology Section
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Sample Questions
Q1) X-ray of the vein or veins following injection of a radiopaque substance
A)venography
B)lymphangiography
C)magnetic resonance
D)myelogram
E)cholangiography
F)computed tomography
G)angiography
H)pelvimetry
I)ultrasound
J)tomography
Q2) Two-view chest x-ray film, frontal and lateral.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) A cardiac magnetic resonance imaging for morphology and function without contrast.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) Supervision and interpretation of a hysterosalpingography.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) Radiologic examination, nasal bones, complete, minimum of three views.
CPT Code: ____________________
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Chapter 25: Pathology/Laboratory Section
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are different codes for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) depending on the source of the specimen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A screening for arsenic poisoning (a heavy metal).
CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) A surgical pathology specimen that is not listed in the pathology code descriptions should be assigned a code that most closely reflects the physician's work involved compared to other specimens assigned to that code.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chemistry test for gases, blood, and O<sub>2</sub> saturation only by direct measurement.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q5) A three-specimen glucose tolerance test.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q6) Peripheral blood smear interpretation by physician with a written report.
CPT Code: ____________________
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Chapter 26: The Medicine Section
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Sample Questions
Q1) Codes 90951-90962 are reported ____ to distinguish age-specific services related to the patient's end-stage renal disease performed in an outpatient setting depending on the number of visits.
A)once per month
B)twice per month
C)once per week
D)twice per week
Q2) PULMONARY WALKING STRESS TEST
ENTRANCE DIAGNOSIS: Dyspnea. He gave a board rating of 5 by the time he finished; it was 3 at the beginning, and he showed some discomfort or effort to do this. He was able to walk 6 minutes at a slow pace without stopping. He did have some wheezing, some coughing, and was able to go 300 feet, which for this age group is relatively poor exercise tolerance. The O<sub>2</sub> sats never dropped below 92%. This patient does not need oxygen therapy with this form of exercise.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q3) Therapeutic IV infusion under the direct supervision of the physician of 45 minutes' duration.
CPT Code: ____________________
Q4) The administration code for an influenza vaccine is ____________________.
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Chapter 27: Inpatient Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a POA indicator is required for all acute-care facilities that are reimbursed under MS-DRGs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The discharge summary states the patient's diagnosis is acute abdominal pain due to peptic ulcer disease or cholecystitis. Which diagnoses should be reported?
A)abdominal pain, peptic ulcer disease, cholecystitis
B)abdominal pain, peptic ulcer disease
C)abdominal pain, cholecystitis
D)abdominal pain
Q3) The discharge summary states the patient's diagnoses are peptic ulcer disease versus chronic cholecystitis. Which diagnoses should be reported?
A)peptic ulcer disease
B)chronic cholecystitis
C)a symptom code
D)both peptic ulcer disease and chronic cholecystitis (either one can be principal)
Q4) Patient is admitted with epigastric pain due to acute pancreatitis.
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