Medical Office Management
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Office Management is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the essential administrative and operational functions within a medical office setting. The curriculum covers a range of topics including patient scheduling, medical records management, billing and coding, insurance processing, and effective communication with patients and healthcare professionals. Students will also explore legal and ethical issues related to healthcare administration, confidentiality standards such as HIPAA, and the use of electronic health record (EHR) systems. Through practical exercises and real-world scenarios, students will develop the organizational and problem-solving skills needed to efficiently manage a medical office and support the smooth operation of healthcare facilities.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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Q1) Medical assistants play a vital role in the healthcare team and are expected to display such _______________ as dependability, respectful patient care, empathy, initiative, positive attitude, and teamwork.
Answer: professional behaviors
Professional behaviors are actions that identify the medical assistant as a member of the healthcare profession.
Q2) Match active processors with all the appropriate applications. (Select all that apply.)
A) Spend time thinking and learning before acting
B) Think about the information before they internalize it
C) Jump in and start doing
D) Make sense of the new material by using it now
E) Observe and consider what is going on
F) Look for practical ways to apply the new material
G) Learn best with practice
Answer: C, D, F, G
Q3) Describe three strategies that can help you become successful at taking tests.
Answer: Prepare adequately, control negative thoughts during test time, and understand how to manage different types of questions.
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patients is not receiving care in an ambulatory center?
A) A patient in a freestanding emergency center
B) A patient in a day surgery center
C) A hospital inpatient
D) A patient in a physician's office
Answer: C
Q2) Most medical assisting positions are in hospitals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q3) The Father of Medicine contributed which of the following to medicine?
A) Dissection techniques
B) More than 500 treatises
C) Hippocratic Oath
D) Robotics
Answer: C
Q4) The credentials DDS and DMD are used by ___________.
Answer: dentists
Dentists use the credentials DDS or DMD.
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which quality in a medical assistant is most likely to promote positive relations in the medical office?
A) Businesslike behavior
B) Consistently high grades during medical assisting training
C) Attractiveness
D) Sincere interest in patients' welfare
Answer: D
Q2) Deciding which tasks are most important is called
A) modification.
B) teaching.
C) prioritizing.
D) procrastinating.
Answer: C
Q3) The personality that people project in public is their persona.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q4) The name of the AAMA's bimonthly journal is __________.
Answer: CMA Today
The AAMA publishes CMA Today.
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paraphrasing is listening to what the sender is communicating, analyzing the words, and then restating them to confirm that the receiver has understood the message as the sender intended it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An innovative approach to plan, deliver, and evaluate healthcare that is grounded in mutually beneficial partnerships among healthcare providers, patients, and families is called _____________________.
Q3) In the linear communication model, which of the following encodes the message?
A) Sender
B) Receiver
C) Feedback
D) None of the above
Q4) Patients from other countries and cultures may need extra time to understand what is being said to them.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Active listening is the skill of _____________ and clarifying what the speaker has said.
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Q1) Which of the following is not a type of civil law?
A) Misdemeanor
B) Administrative
C) Tort
D) Contract
Q2) The formal action of a legislative body is called an appeal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Civil cases must be proven by a(n) __________ of the evidence.
Q4) The person giving a deposition is called the __________.
Q5) When a physician withdraws medical care from a patient, a(n) __________ letter must be sent to notify the patient.
Q6) __________ is a solemn declaration, usually made orally by a witness under oath in response to interrogation by a lawyer or an authorized public official.
Q7) In a(n) __________ case, guilt must be proven beyond a reasonable doubt.
Q8) Healthcare professionals are required to report child abuse only when they have concrete evidence that abuse has taken place.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Q1) In the allocation of health resources, the criterion (or criteria) should be which of the following?
A) Likelihood of benefit
B) Duration of benefit
C) Urgency of need
D) All of the above
Q2) A devotion to or conformity with the truth is called ____________.
Q3) Which of the following is the most common form of organ donation?
A) Kidney
B) Retina
C) Bone marrow
D) Blood
Q4) The criteria to consider when allocating health resources include all of the following except
A) urgency of need.
B) amount of resources required for successful treatment.
C) potential for change in the quality of life.
D) social worth of the individual.
Q5) A physician committed to saving life and relieving suffering may sometimes find those two goals ______________.
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gigabyte is approximately 5 million bytes of data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The EHR software contains limited information, usually related to medical treatment for one healthcare facility. The EMR allows sharing of information with other providers outside the facility, including medical laboratories, nursing homes, hospitals, and specialists.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Identify the error(s) in the following inside address: Jane Miller 14412 East Lake Drv.
Tallahassee, Florida 34101
A) Personal title
B) Street abbreviations
C) Comma between city and state
D) State
E) All of the above
Q4) Generally, a business letter is __________ spaced.
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Q1) Callers who refuse to __________ themselves should not be put through to the physician.
Q2) An alternative to using directory assistance is using the __________ to find phone numbers.
Q3) Answering services can be used for which of the following?
A) Cover the telephone if all staff members need to be away at the same time
B) Buffer and screen after-hours calls
C) Act as the first point of contact with the practice
D) Take messages
E) Both A and B
Q4) Which of the following types of communication tools is best for two-way communication?
A) Voice mail
B) Fax
C) Pager
D) Cell phone
Q5) A computerized appointment system often is able to __________ a message to highlight its importance.
Q6) Call __________ allows the user to send calls to another designated number, such as a cell phone.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should offer assistance only to patients who are obviously handicapped.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true regarding examination rooms?
A) Patients enjoy a magazine rack so that they can read while waiting for the physician.
B) The examination table should face the entrance to the room so that the patient is clearly visible when the physician enters.
C) The examination room should be tidied immediately after use and before the next patient is escorted in.
D) The examination room should not be used to clear out the reception area.
Q3) Patients appreciate it when medical assistants consider the patient's time when performing duties in the facility and scheduling appointments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The term that means "relating to or arranged in a sequence" is ______________.
Q5) It is possible to violate patient ______________ when using a sign-in register.
Page 11
Q6) A space of time between events is called a(n) ____________.
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care Setting
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Q1) Which type of special postal service would you use for a heavy, expensive piece of medical equipment being returned to the manufacturer for a refund?
A) Registered
B) First class
C) Certified
D) Special delivery
Q2) An ordered item that has not been delivered when promised or demanded but will be supplied at a later date is said to be
A) backordered.
B) front-ordered.
C) on hold.
D) circumvented.
Q3) For equipment inventory, which of the following should be kept at a central location, available to all users?
A) Maintenance log
B) Service provider contact information
C) Warranty information
D) Operations manual
Q4) A(n) _____________ is a list of items ordered and items shipped.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should consider which of the following when selecting filing equipment?
A) Fire protection
B) Cost of space and equipment
C) Confidentiality requirements
D) All of the above
Q2) What is one of the benefits of using a paper health record?
A) Multiple users can access the record at the same time
B) Fewer errors
C) Good evidence of patient care
D) Links clinical information for billing purposes
E) All of the above
Q3) A filing system in which an intermediary source of reference, such as a file card, must be consulted to locate specific files is called a(n) _____________ system.
A) shelf filing
B) indirect filing
C) direct filing
D) shingling
Q4) To make greater, more numerous, larger, or more intense is to __________.
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Q1) The signs and symptoms of a disease are its __________.
Q2) At times, the medical assistant must code a(n) __________ if the physician is not yet sure of the diagnosis.
Q3) Which of the following letters in the ICD-10-CM is reserved by the World Health Organization to assign new diseases with uncertain etiology?
A) U
B) X
C) Y
D) Z
Q4) The "code first" notation can usually be ignored.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The codes for pernicious anemia and a vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency are the same.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The abbreviation that is the equivalent of "unspecified" is __________.
Q7) Carcinoma __________ is defined as the absence of invasion of surrounding tissues.
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ and management codes are used for physician's office visits.
Q2) Febrile agglutinins, including Rocky Mountain spotted fever
A) 86000
B) 86001
C) 86010
D) 86011
Q3) Codes with a plus sign are additional codes that must be used with which of the following?
A) Category I codes
B) Category II codes
C) Category III codes
D) Both A and B
Q4) An eponym will be used in which of the following CPT divisions?
A) Alphabetic index
B) Tabular list
C) Category subsection
D) Both A and B
Q5) Codes that are grouped together and paid as one service or procedure are known as __________.
Q6) Some physicians must __________ patient care among several different providers.
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Q1) A review of individual cases by a committee to make sure that services are medically necessary and to study how providers use medical care resources is called a(n)
A) credentialing committee review.
B) peer review committee evaluation.
C) utilization review.
D) audit committee review.
Q2) Veterans of the U.S. armed forces may be covered by
A) CHAMPVA.
B) TRICARE.
C) workers' compensation.
D) Blue Cross/Blue Shield.
Q3) Which of the following MCOs typically has/have the lowest monthly premiums with lower patient financial responsibility?
A) Medicare/Medicaid
B) PPOs
C) HMOs
D) BC/BS
E) IPA
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Q1) The medical assistant should always follow office __________ for claim review and signatures.
Q2) The billing provider's NPI number is placed in block
A) 31.
B) 32.
C) 33a.
D) 33b.
Q3) Electronic claims are submitted via electronic media.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The assignment of benefits is located in block
A) 12.
B) 13.
C) 27.
D) 33.
Q5) Procedure code modifiers are found in column __________ of block 24.
Q6) The federal tax identification number is found in block __________.
Q7) The charges for procedures are listed in column __________ of block 24.
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Q8) The medical assistant should __________ the front and back of the patient's insurance card.
Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Q1) The "cash basis" system of accounting used by most physicians means that
A) credit is used as little as possible.
B) charges are recorded as income at the time they are received.
C) a simple bookkeeping system is used.
D) expenses are recorded at the time they are incurred.
Q2) Accounts receivable are moneys that are expected but not yet received. All invoices, statements, and operational expenses are included in accounts receivable.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) The purpose of the trial balance is to disclose any discrepancies between the journal and the ledger.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The entire property of a person is said to be his or her __________.
Q5) Accounts __________ are debts incurred but not yet paid.
18
Q6) A record or notation of a transaction is called a(n) __________.
Q7) The recording of business and accounting transactions is called
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Q1) What is required for a check to be negotiable?
A) Be written and signed by the drawer
B) Contain a promise or order to pay a sum of money
C) Be payable on demand
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) A capital sum of money due as a debt or used as a fund for which interest is either charged or paid is called the __________.
Q3) The country is divided into how many Federal Reserve districts?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 14
Q4) The physician uses the debit card for $782.19 to pay for medical supplies, $56 for office supplies, and $76 to stock the employee break room refrigerator. If the balance in the checkbook is $32,830.43, what is the balance after the debit card activity?
Q5) The deposit is $3,290. The checkbook balance is $16,561, but the mortgage payment on the physician's building is paid the same day, which is $3,500. What is the checkbook balance?
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Q1) Which subjects cannot be discussed in a job interview?
A) Religion
B) Work history
C) Previous terminations of employment
D) None of the above
Q2) The best time to terminate an employee is usually at the beginning of the day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A group of employees who stick together during difficult times could be called
A) cohesive.
B) adaptive.
C) affable.
D) meticulous.
Q4) Which of the following should be done prior to scheduling a candidate for an interview?
A) Review résumé and application for writing skills
B) Prescreen phone interview
C) Call references
D) Request background check and credit check
E) Both A and B
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Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Q1) From the SWOT analysis, which of the following evaluate external economic forces?
A) Strengths and weaknesses
B) Threats and weaknesses
C) Opportunities and threats
D) Strengths and opportunities
Q2) Keeping the office open later one night per week is a marketing strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A specific group of individuals to whom the marketing plan is focused is the ___________ market.
Q4) Match the Quality & Safety PCMH Domain with the appropriate descriptors. (Select all that apply.)
A) Partnering with patients and families
B) Sharing quality data and improvement activities
C) Efficient care transitions
D) Oriented towards the whole person
E) Team-based approach
F) Clinical decision-support tools
G) Across all elements of the health care system
22
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Q1) The presence of adequate amounts of oxygen is one of the keys for the spread of anaerobic microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A 62-year-old patient with shingles is seen in the office. The physician would classify this disease as
A) a chronic infection.
B) the prodromal period of the infection.
C) a latent infection.
D) the acute onset of a varicella infection.
Q3) Rosa is responsible for administering the hepatitis B vaccine to a new employee. Describe the immunization schedule for this vaccine.
Q4) Rosa is assisting with a procedure and has an accidental exposure of potentially infectious mucous in her right eye. What should Rosa do?
Q5) Relapse and remission are seen frequently in what types of infections?
A) Chronic infections
B) Latent infections
C) Infections with rapid onset
D) Infections that cause fever
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Q1) What does it mean when medical assistants display empathy when dealing with patients?
A) They feel sorry for patients who have serious health problems.
B) They are able to hear what patients say without judging the content.
C) They can detach themselves emotionally from the problems of their patients.
D) They truly like and care about each of their patients.
Q2) Information that you gather from a patient interview is considered
A) subjective.
B) objective.
C) assessment.
D) evaluation.
Q3) Which of the following involves stating an observation or recognition of a patient's feeling?
A) Restatement
B) Clarification
C) Reflection
Q4) A 6-year-old child who refuses to leave her mother's lap during a physical examination is displaying regression.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Q1) __________ is a comprehensive Internet site for accurate healthcare information.
Q2) Having the patient observe while you change a wound dressing is the most effective method of teaching the skill.
A)True B)False
Q3) A helpful tool for testing patient understanding of material is to consistently ask for __________ throughout the intervention.
Q4) If a patient is in pain, the patient teaching session should be completed immediately so that the patient can go home and rest.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The patient may use defense mechanisms as protection from the realities of a serious disease.
A)True B)False
Q6) Describe the role of the medical assistant as the patient educator.
Q7) Depression is not a normal part of the grief process. A)True B)False
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Q1) Which of the B vitamins is especially important for childbearing women to prevent neural tube defects?
A) Niacin
B) Biotin
C) Riboflavin
D) Folic acid
Q2) Describe situations in which supplements would be recommended.
Q3) What is the main function of carbohydrates?
A) To supply fuel for energy and for all basic cellular activities
B) Regulate protein and fat metabolism
C) Repair and growth of tissue
D) Adds bulk to the intestinal tract
Q4) Vitamin C is a fat-soluble vitamin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a food claims to be sodium free, there can be no salt in the product.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Whole-wheat pasta with spinach is an example of a meal that combines
Q7) Vitamins
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Q1) When an adult is diagnosed with essential hypertension, the systolic pressure is _____ and/or the diastolic pressure is _______.
A) 120 to 130/80 to 89
B) 130 to 139/85 to 95
C) 140 to 159/90 to 99
D) 160 or over/100 or over
Q2) While taking vital signs on Mrs. Anderson, you note a difference between her radial and apical pulses. This problem is known as
A) the pulse pressure.
B) arrhythmia.
C) the intermittent pulse.
D) the pulse deficit.
Q3) Describe the role of the medical assistant in obtaining vital signs.
Q4) The medical term for fainting is __________.
Q5) Rales indicate airway obstruction with thick secretions.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A patient with __________ has regular but slow respirations.
Q7) A newborn with periods of __________ actually stops breathing momentarily.
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Q1) Plantar reflexes are tested with which of the following?
A) The patient in an upright or a supine position
B) With either the fingers or the reflex hammer
C) Using tapotement
D) None of the above
Q2) The sclera of the eye is described as the
A) tissue that lines the interior part of the eye.
B) part of the eye that is responsible for eye color.
C) white part of the eye that may show inflammation.
D) area of the eye where tears form.
Q3) If you are interested in working with patients of all ages who seek help for a wide variety of disorders, employment with which medical specialist would be your best choice?
A) Primary care physician
B) Oncologist
C) Internist
D) Physical medicine physician
Q4) An example of manipulation is assisted ROM exercises.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) Several regulations must be followed when managing controlled substances in the ambulatory care environment. Which of the following is one of these rules?
A) Keep drug cabinet keys in an open area.
B) Maintain log records as part of the patient's chart.
C) Stock prescription pads at the workstations of each exam room.
D) Store all controlled substances in a locked cabinet.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the improper use of common drugs that can lead to dependence or toxicity?
A) Drug misuse
B) Drug abuse
C) Drug dependency
D) Habituation
Q3) Glucophage and Precose are prescribed for the management of diabetes mellitus type 1.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Schedule II prescriptions can be refilled only one time.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Q1) Convert the following fractions into decimals, rounding the last digit as needed
a. 3/4 = ________.
b. 2/3 = ________.
c. 9/12 = _______.
d. 10/12 = _______.
Q2) Which of the following is a metric unit of volume?
A) Ounce
B) mL
C) mg
Q3) The most frequently used method for calculating pediatric doses relies on which of the following factors?
A) Differences in absorption
B) Differences in drug metabolism
C) Age
D) Weight in kg
E) All of the above
Q4) Always in a proportion, the problem is solved by __________.
Q5) Explain the steps in determining a single pediatric dose of medication based on the child's weight of 42 pounds; the medication label states: Administer 6 mg/kg qid.
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Q1) Antibiotics typically are prescribed initially in a(n) __________ dose to reach therapeutic blood levels as quickly as possible.
Q2) At the dorsogluteal intramuscular site, a primary concern is to avoid injecting the medication into the __________ nerve.
Q3) Which of the following liquid oral dosage forms is a mixture of oil and water that improves the taste of otherwise distasteful products?
A) Syrup
B) Emulsion
C) Gel
D) Magma
Q4) A syringe marked with U 100 is used for which of the following purposes?
A) Allergy testing
B) Chemotherapy
C) Insulin injection
D) Tuberculin testing
E) Vitamin B12 injection
Q5) Explain at least six safety steps-in addition to the seven rights and label checks-that should be followed when dispensing and administering a medication.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4224
Sample Questions
Q1) The condition in which blood is present in the urine is called __________.
Q2) Epistaxis is
A) redness.
B) a ligament injury.
C) a nosebleed.
D) a bruise.
Q3) The first step in rendering first aid to a patient who appears to have stopped breathing is to
A) check for a pulse.
B) check for a medical alert bracelet.
C) begin chest compressions.
D) get the crash cart.
E) administer 2 rescue breaths.
Q4) Debbie discovers a 40-year-old patient collapsed in the office hallway. What is the best location for checking the patient's pulse?
A) Radial artery
B) Carotid artery
C) Brachial artery
D) Femoral artery
Q5) The medical term for nosebleed is __________.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and
Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) An optician is an important member of the eye care team who is responsible for A) performing eye examinations.
B) writing prescriptions for corrective lenses.
C) preparing corrective lenses from physicians' prescriptions.
D) screening patients for vision abnormalities.
Q2) A patient with photophobia is afraid to leave home.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Snellen eye chart should be placed 20 feet from the patient at the eye level of the examiner.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When light focuses behind the retina, the patient is diagnosed with __________.
Q5) The medical term for a drooping eyelid is A) glaucoma.
B) a cataract.
C) blepharoptosis.
D) a stye.
Q6) __________ errors occur when the eye is unable to focus light effectively on the retina. Page 33
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4226
Sample Questions
Q1) A malignant melanoma typically develops at the site of a congenital nevus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The National Cancer Institute recommends a sunscreen with an SPF of at least 30 for patients of all ages who are exposed to midday sun.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lamisil is an effective topical treatment for onychomycosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cells that are in a primitive form and are diagnostic of a cancer-producing tumor are called __________.
Q5) A wheal forming at the site of a skin test indicates an allergic reaction to the serum.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Small, purple, hemorrhagic patches on the skin that are frequently associated with bleeding disorders or liver disease are called __________.
Q7) The medical term for a partial or complete lack of hair is __________.
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4227
Sample Questions
Q1) You are responsible for conducting patient education in preparation for a three-time stool collection for occult blood. What foods should the patient avoid?
A) Red meat
B) Dairy products
C) Canned vegetables
D) Caffeine
Q2) A very serious type of infectious hepatitis for pregnant women is hepatitis G.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following diseases is often asymptomatic and discovered during a routine x-ray?
A) Gallstones
B) Cirrhosis
C) Hernia
D) Diverticular disease
Q4) Individuals who work in day care settings are at greater risk of becoming infected with hepatitis A because of its route of transmission.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4228
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is used to treat UTIs?
A) Ampicillin (Amoxil)
B) Cimetidine (Tagamet)
C) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
D) Triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide)
E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septra or Bactrim)
Q2) Which of the following is true about the NMP22 diagnostic test?
A) It is a urine test that screens for bladder cancer recurrences.
B) It is a blood test used for patients being diagnosed with bladder cancer.
C) It is an x-ray film that identifies prostate cancer.
D) It is a cystoscopic view of the bladder.
Q3) One of the tests performed on sperm to determine whether a man is infertile is the sperm motility test.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Renal calculi may result in hydronephrosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a child has an undescended testicle, a(n) ____________ is done to attach the testicle surgically within the scrotal sac.
Page 37
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4229
Sample Questions
Q1) HPV is associated with A) cancer.
B) bleeding.
C) infertility.
D) ulceration.
Q2) Which of the following prenatal blood or laboratory tests helps determine immunity to German measles?
A) Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
B) Blood type and Rh
C) Rubella titer
D) Syphilis, Hepatitis B, and HIV screening
E) Pap test
Q3) The NuvaRing must be placed over the cervix to be effective.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cervix controls the opening to which organ?
A) Fallopian tube
B) Ovary
C) Uterus
D) Vagina
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4230
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following immunizations is administered IM?
A) Varicella
B) Hep B
C) Rotavirus
D) Pneumococcal
E) Both B and D
Q2) Which of the following inherited disorders is an X-linked genetic disease that causes progressive muscle degeneration and usually develops between 3 and 5 years of age?
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
C) Reye's syndrome
D) None of the above
Q3) Tetanus is part of which immunization?
A) HBV
B) Hib
C) DPT
D) MMR
Q4) A partial airway obstruction from a buildup of secretions that sounds like continuous dry rattling is called ____________.
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4231
Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) __________ unit can play an integral role in the management of chronic pain.
Q2) Spongy, porous bone tissue is described as
A) cancellous.
B) fossa.
C) sinus.
D) joint.
Q3) OA is associated with systemic symptoms, including general malaise, fever, and weight loss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ultrasonography is a useful modality for patients with bone pain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which type of fracture is caused by a twisting type of injury?
A) Spiral
B) Greenstick
C) Oblique
D) Transverse
Q6) Summarize four risk factors for the development of osteoporosis.
Page 40
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4232
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease that causes progressive inflammation and deterioration of the myelin sheath?
A) Parkinson's disease
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D) Bell's palsy
Q2) A patient diagnosed with encephalitis will be admitted to the hospital and immediately placed on IV antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The physician asks you to research and describe some of the typical symptoms of depression. List five of them.
Q4) The _______________, located deep in the center of the cerebrum near the superior portion of the brainstem, is made up of the thalamus and the hypothalamus.
Q5) A primary symptom of meningitis is a stiff neck.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The __________________ closely regulates what substances enter the brain tissue.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4233
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with prediabetes may already have developed vascular and cardiac disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The greatest risk for infants born to mothers with gestational diabetes is
A) pancreatic shutdown.
B) diabetes type 1.
C) macrosomia.
D) All of the above
Q3) Two of your patients are being seen in the office today. One is suspected of having hypothyroidism and the other hyperthyroidism. Summarize three signs and symptoms you would expect to see in each patient.
Q4) Which disorder is a common form of hyperthyroidism?
A) Cushing's disease
B) Addison's disease
C) Diabetes
D) Graves' disease
Q5) A patient with diabetes type 2 may have signs and symptoms of peripheral neuropathy. List five questions you might ask to document the patient's condition accurately.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4234
Sample Questions
Q1) Carl Rowe is to have a sleep study at the local hospital. The study is performed with what technology?
A) Electroencephalogram
B) ECG
C) Polysomnography
D) A and C
Q2) Individuals who consistently test positive on TB skin screening tests but are asymptomatic and not infectious are in which stage of TB?
A) Primary infection
B) Latent TB
C) Secondary TB
D) Active pulmonary TB
Q3) What is the terminal one cell thick tissue in the respiratory system which allows for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide through the cell membrane?
A) Bronchioles
B) Alveoli
C) Bronchi
D) Pericardial sac
Q4) The medical term for a low level of oxygen in the blood is __________.
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4235
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
A) Digoxin (Lanoxin)
B) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
C) Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
D) Triazolam (Halcion)
E) Warfarin (Coumadin)
Q2) Describe the typical symptoms of an MI in men and an MI in women. Include in your answer the typical signs and symptoms of an MI in both genders.
Q3) What is the goal of angioplasty?
A) To restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue
B) To reduce the need for cardiac medication
C) To eliminate or reduce the number of angina episodes
D) All of the above
Q4) In the conduction system of the heart, which of the following is responsible for collecting the electrical energy that stimulated the atria to contract?
A) Purkinje fibers
B) Bundle of His
C) Atrioventricular node
D) Sinoatrial node
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4236
Sample Questions
Q1) Urinary frequency is not a common occurrence in aging persons because of the decreased ability of the bladder wall to expand.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most frequent health problems in the elderly include all of the following except A) heart disease.
B) Graves' disease.
C) diabetes.
D) arthritis.
E) cancer.
Q3) Medications that may contribute to constipation include A) calcium.
B) antihypertensives.
C) antidepressants.
D) A and C
E) All of the above
Q4) List four risk factors that contribute to the development of osteoporosis.
Q5) __________ is the severe loss of intellectual ability.
Q6) Explain the Mini-Mental Status Exam and how it is used to diagnose dementia.
Page 45
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4237
Sample Questions
Q1) A cardiac event monitor must be worn at all times, even during bathing, to detect cardiac abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Polarization is the same thing as myocardial contraction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A cardiac __________ is a diagnostic procedure performed to evaluate the patient's myocardial response to measured exercise.
Q4) The electrodes of the ECG carry cardiac electrical impulses into the machine, where they are magnified by an amplifier.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which statement is true about lead II?
A) It is recorded as the rhythm strip on a cardiac monitor.
B) It records tracings between the left arm and left leg.
C) It records tracings between the left and right arms.
D) It records the electrical activity of the posterior right ventricle.
Q6) Describe the placement of each precordial lead.
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4238
Sample Questions
Q1) The best tool for detailed studies of the organs of the chest and abdomen is either a chest x-ray film or a flat plate of the abdomen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are concerned about the safety of working in a facility that performs x-ray studies on site. Which statement is true about your risk of radiation exposure as an employee in the facility?
A) The x-ray room collects radiation over time.
B) Scatter radiation is present at all times.
C) The only time a radiation hazard exists is during the x-ray exposure itself.
D) People consistently exposed to scatter radiation have a shortened life span.
Q3) When more than one diagnostic study is to be done, which of the following would need to be conducted first?
A) Upper gastrointestinal (UGI) series (barium swallow)
B) Fiberoptic studies
C) CT studies with IV contrast any time after iodine uptake blood studies
D) Lower gastrointestinal (GI) series (barium enema)
E) CT studies of the abdomen or pelvis
Q4) A(n) __________ is also called a barium enema.
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4239
Sample Questions
Q1) Balancing a centrifuge requires that all tubes in the load
A) have an equal amount of liquid of the same viscosity.
B) are of equal size and shape.
C) have a partner directly across in the rotor holder.
D) All of the above
Q2) __________ on swabs, tubes, transport media, and other collection containers should be checked before these items are used.
Q3) The most common specimens collected include
A) blood and urine.
B) swab samples from wounds or mucous membranes.
C) feces or gastric content.
D) tissue samples.
E) Both A and B
Q4) Which of the following requires the laboratory employer to have a written exposure control plan to protect the lab's employees?
A) OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
B) CDC's universal precautions
C) CDC's standard precautions
D) OSHA's SDS standard
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4240
Sample Questions
Q1) One of the first detectable signs of renal disease is
A) hematuria.
B) pyuria.
C) proteinuria.
D) myoglobinuria.
Q2) Although urine tests are used for drug screening, the most accurate examination is performed on blood samples.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A urine specimen is tested and shown to have a pH of 8.0. This value is
A) abnormally low.
B) abnormally high.
C) midrange normal.
D) normal.
Q4) The easiest directions for a patient in collecting a urine specimen are to ask the patient to fill the container three-quarters full to make sure enough urine is provided for testing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Crushing injuries and MIs can result in _____________.
Page 49
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4241
Sample Questions
Q1) When a medical assistant obtains a capillary blood sample, it is important that he or she squeeze and "milk" the finger to obtain an adequate amount of blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) ___________ is applied to the skin 30 to 60 seconds before the blood draw to prevent infection at the puncture site.
Q3) The tourniquet should be left tied on the arm no longer than 1 minute.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of tube should be used to collect blood specimens during a glucose tolerance test?
A) Lavender topped
B) Red topped
C) Gray topped
D) Yellow topped
Q5) Describe the postexposure management of a needle stick.
Q6) Needles used during venipuncture may be used only once.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4242
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests is used for the initial screening of a patient for diabetes type 2?
A) Fasting blood glucose
B) Blood glucose tolerance test
C) Glycosylated hemoglobin A<sub>1</sub>c
D) All of the above
Q2) If a capillary tube is not plugged, it must be filled with a special clay before centrifugation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dr. Lim orders a CPK draw on Mr. Roberts. What do elevated CPK levels indicate?
A) Liver disease
B) Possible MI
C) Dehydration
D) A problem with glucose metabolism
Q4) Which of the following is a normal adult WBC count?
A) 3,000 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
B) 1,500 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
C) 10,000 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) 12,000 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4243
Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria are classified as ___________ microbes, which are single-cell microbes that lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
Q2) Both bacteria and fungi can be A) multicellular.
B) eukaryotes.
C) prokaryotes.
D) unicellular.
Q3) In the scientific name Escherichia coli, the name coli indicates the A) species.
B) genus.
C) shape.
D) B and C.
Q4) The microbiology laboratory report for Mrs. Wallace's urine culture lists eight antibiotics, five of which are followed by the letter "S." This means that these antibiotics A) should be avoided when treating the infection.
B) should be considered when treating the infection.
C) are likely to cause sensitivity or allergy in the patient.
D) should be retested with a more sensitive method.
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52
Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antiseptic is the most effective for a surgical hand scrub or patient skin preparation for surgery?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Hibiclens
C) Isopropyl alcohol
D) Povidone-iodine
E) B and D
Q2) Sterile technique does not have to be followed in the preparation of a site for surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ is a procedure in which a body cavity or internal organ (e.g., the uterus) is scraped with a surgical instrument.
Q4) ____________, which resemble gears, have three or more positions and are located just below the ring handle of an instrument so that the instrument can be locked in a particular position.
Q5) A(n) ________ is a metal probe that is inserted into or passed through a catheter, needle, or tube to clear the equipment of secretions or to help pass it into a body orifice.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following endoscopes is rigid?
A) Laparoscope
B) Colonoscope
C) Bronchoscope
D) Gastroscope
Q2) The recommended temperature for sterilization in an autoclave is
A) 121° to 123° C.
B) 98.6°.
C) 100.4° F.
D) 37.6° C.
Q3) Describe the medical assistant's role during laser surgery.
Q4) Which of the following is (are) true about the autoclave process?
A) Steam simultaneously heats and wets the objects being autoclaved.
B) When the cycle is finished and the chamber has cooled, microorganisms have been destroyed.
C) The mechanism of action is steam under pressure.
D) Both A and C are true.
E) All of the above are true.
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Q5) With __________ healing, a wound heals by granulation from the bottom of the wound outward.
Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4246
Sample Questions
Q1) The requirements for a specific job should be compared with the __________ listed on the medical assistant's résumé.
Q2) __________ skills can be taken from one job to another.
Q3) Writing "See résumé" on a job application is often an indication of __________ to an employer.
Q4) Remember to be completely __________ when completing a job application and résumé.
Q5) "Having a clear, decisive relevance to the matter at hand" is the definition of subtle. A)True B)False
Q6) The demands of the medical profession make it an often stressful environment. A)True B)False
Q7) The medical assistant should proofread all résumés several times. A)True B)False
Q8) __________ each résumé to get better results during the job search.
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Q9) A return offer made by a person who has rejected an offer or job is called a(n)