Medical Office Management
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Medical Office Management is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge and skills needed to efficiently oversee operations within a healthcare office environment. The curriculum covers a broad range of topics, including patient scheduling, electronic health records (EHR) management, medical billing and coding, insurance processing, regulatory compliance, privacy and confidentiality, effective communication, and basic human resource management. Emphasis is placed on the development of organizational, problem-solving, and interpersonal skills, enabling students to handle the administrative challenges unique to medical settings. Upon completion, students will be prepared to manage medical office workflows, support healthcare professionals, and ensure optimal patient experiences.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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51 Chapters
4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ can evaluate conflicting information and make a decision to act based on their knowledge and willingness to be open minded about all possibilities.
Answer: Critical thinkers
Critical thinking involves considering all aspects of a situation when making decisions or before taking action.
Q2) The process of considering new information and internalizing it to create new ways of examining information
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: B
Q3) The process of considering new information and internalizing it to create new ways of examining information is called____________.
Answer: reflection
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which healthcare professional is trained to practice medicine under the supervision of a physician?
A) Medical technologist
B) Paramedic
C) Medical assistant
D) Physician assistant
Answer: D
Q2) The credentials DDS and DMD are used by ___________.
Answer: dentists
Dentists use the credentials DDS or DMD.
Q3) The health professional who provides basic patient care services, including diagnosing illnesses and prescribing medications, is a
A) nurse practitioner.
B) nurse anesthetist.
C) licensed practical nurse.
D) vocational nurse.
Answer: A
Q4) Podiatrists care for the patient's __________. Answer: feet
Podiatrists are educated in caring for the feet, including surgical treatment.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prime concern of all employees of the physician's office should be
A) caring for the patient.
B) getting all tasks completed each day.
C) completely resolving every patient's health issues.
D) a profitable practice.
Answer: A
Q2) Jewelry should be conservative at work, and large earrings should never be worn.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q3) A(n) __________ should be worn on the uniform when the medical assistant is working.
Answer: name tag
The medical assistant should wear a name tag on his or her uniform unless directed otherwise at an individual facility.
Q4) _____________ is defined as exhibiting a courteous, conscientious, and generally businesslike manner in the workplace.
Answer: Professionalism
Professionalism is exhibiting a courteous, generally businesslike manner.
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is false with regard to the interpretation of gestures and body language that you may encounter among the patients in a medical setting?
A) They are less significant than verbal communication.
B) They vary widely in meaning.
C) Knowledge of them will influence patient relations.
D) They may require special accommodations.
Q2) Which of the following strategies could be used to help school-aged children gain a sense of control during the health visit?
A) Give them the opportunity to make certain decisions about treatment
B) Respect their privacy
C) Keep them informed in a language they can understand
D) Encourage them to ask questions
E) All of the above
Q3) The principal reason for requesting feedback when communicating with patients is to determine whether they
A) have a vision problem.
B) are cooperative.
C) understand what is being said.
D) are mentally alert.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonconsensual touching may be considered __________.
Q2) Criminal law governs violations of the law that are punishable as offenses against A) individuals.
B) the state or government.
C) corporations.
D) groups.
Q3) Match Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) with the appropriate definition or example. (Select all that apply.)
A) Information should be shared with patients when they are admitted to facilities.
B) Hold insurance companies accountable
C) Architectural standards for new and altered health care facilities
D) Primary purpose was to limit the administrative costs of healthcare.
E) Title I (insurance Reform)
F) Restricts use of annual limits and bans lifetime limits on healthcare benefits
G) Prevents insurance companies from cancelling coverage based on genetic information
H) Intended to eliminate discrimination against individuals with disabilities
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although attorneys often accept clients on a(n) ______________ fee basis, it is unethical for a physician to do so.
Q2) The provision of care to medical colleagues or their families and staff is called
Q3) Which of the following terms best describes a moral obligation to act for the benefit of others?
A) Nonmaleficence
B) Beneficence
C) Fidelity
D) Veracity
E) Justice
Q4) If the medical assistant believes that patient safety is at risk, he or she is legally responsible for reporting provider actions to the local authorities and the state Medical Board. Some states can prosecute individuals who file a false report.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q5) __________ are defined as claims that a person or group makes on society.
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common type of business letter where all elements are left justified?
A) Full block letter format
B) Modified block letter format
C) Informal full block format
D) Semi-block letter format
Q2) Cipher text is another name for which of the following?
A) Decryption data
B) Encrypted data
C) Firewall
D) Audit trail
Q3) On a professional letter's signature block, how many blank lines should be placed between the closing and the typed name and credentials of the sender?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q4) A kilobyte is approximately 2,410 bits.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant should never give patients an estimate of what the cost of their visit will be, even on the initial visit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An insurance claim may be __________ if the physician is not a provider for that particular insurance company.
Q3) If a patient calls the office and states that his or her condition has not improved since the office visit earlier in the week, the medical assistant can suggest over-the-counter medications that the patient could try.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a caller refuses to identify himself or herself, the medical assistant can put the call through to the physician right then.
A)True
B)False
Q5) STAT laboratory results are often __________ to the physician's office to provide a written copy of the information.
Q6) The continental United States is divided into __________ standard time zones.
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of scheduling system is often used in an urgent care setting?
A) Open office hours
B) Modified wave scheduling
C) Grouping procedures
D) Time patterns
Q2) An effective way to deal with patients who are always late for appointments is to
A) refuse to schedule them after this happens several times.
B) have them wait until it is convenient for the physician.
C) advise them that they disrupt the office schedule.
D) give them the last appointment of the day.
Q3) A person who fails to keep an appointment without giving advance notice is called a A) disruption.
B) no-show.
C) cancellation.
D) reschedule.
Q4) A(n) ____________ note helps track the patient's condition in the medical record.
Q5) A space of time between events is called a(n) ____________.
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) _____________ is a list of items ordered and items shipped.
Q2) If proof of mailing is needed, the medical assistant might ask the post office for A) special handling.
B) insured mail.
C) a certificate of mailing.
D) a certificate of delivery.
Q3) Leasing equipment, such as copiers, often proves to be more expensive than purchasing the equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For practices that do not use e-prescribing, where should extra prescription pads be stored?
A) In the exam room
B) In the provider's pocket
C) In a locked cabinet
D) Any of the above
Q5) A(n) ___________ is an itemized list of goods shipped that shows the balance due and any transactions that affect the account.
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Q6) Thieves usually approach a physician's office to steal money or ____________.
Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concise account of the patient's symptoms in his or her own words is the __________.
Q2) The healthcare industry is one of constant __________, and the medical assistant is expected to stay abreast of current trends, laws, and requirements.
Q3) Information that is gained by questioning the patient or that is taken from a form is called ________________ information.
A) confidential
B) subjective
C) objective
D) necessary
Q4) The type of record created by an entity that is a single organization involved in the patient's care is an electronic __________ record.
Q5) Very little statistical information can be gleaned from an EHR system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) __________ is made of heavy paper stock and is used to replace an entire folder that has been temporarily removed from its proper place.
Q7) Additional training on the EHR system is needed to run it at full __________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following instructions in the Alphabetic Index indicates that another main term may reference additional useful index entries?
A) See
B) See also
C) See category
D) And
E) Due to
Q2) Burns are coded by
A) site and degree.
B) the body surface involved.
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
Q3) The cause of a disorder is its __________.
Q4) The signs and symptoms of a disease are its __________.
Q5) The code HIV indicates which of the following?
A) The HIV virus is present
B) The manifestation of and/or symptoms that occur as a result of HIV infection
C) Probable case of HIV
D) Suspected case of HIV
Q6) Burns are coded to the site by __________.
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subcategories are the lowest level of code description and specificity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following levels of history includes a review of the systems that relate to the chief complaint?
A) Problem-focused history
B) Expanded problem-focused history
C) Detailed history
D) Comprehensive history
Q3) Which of the following codes can be used to help measure performance and outcomes?
A) Category I codes
B) Category II codes
C) Category III codes
D) Both A and B
Q4) CPT-4 codes have __________ digits.
Q5) A detailed history takes the shortest amount of time.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ are procedures or treatments named for a person.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A review of individual cases by a committee to make sure that services are medically necessary and to study how providers use medical care resources is called a(n)
A) credentialing committee review.
B) peer review committee evaluation.
C) utilization review.
D) audit committee review.
Q2) Which of the following MCOs typically has/have the lowest monthly premiums with lower patient financial responsibility?
A) Medicare/Medicaid
B) PPOs
C) HMOs
D) BC/BS
E) IPA
Q3) Health insurance typically covers services and procedures considered medically necessary. Most insurance policies also cover "elective" procedures, such as certain cosmetic surgeries, that are not considered medically necessary.
A)True
B)False
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16
Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match block 17 with the appropriate content as it relates to completing the CMS-1500 form. (Select all that apply.)
A) National provider identification number
B) Preauthorization number
C) Date of current illness, injury, or pregnancy
D) Diagnosis or nature of illness or injury
E) Name of referring provider
F) Hospitalization dates related to current services
Q2) Electronic data interchange is
A) transferring data back and forth between two or more entities.
B) sending information to one insurance carrier.
C) sending information to one clearinghouse for processing.
D) None of the above
Q3) A claim that is missing information and is returned to the provider for correction and resubmission is called a(n) __________ claim.
Q4) Patients sign an __________ of benefits form so that the physician will receive payment for services directly.
Q5) The abbreviation often used in blocks 12, 13, and 31 is __________.
Q6) The primary insurance policy information is contained in block __________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Accounts __________ are debts incurred but not yet paid.
Q2) Which of the following are special bookkeeping entries?
A) Credit balances
B) Third-party payments
C) Refunds
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) Accounts receivable are moneys that are expected but not yet received. All invoices, statements, and operational expenses are included in accounts receivable.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q4) The purpose of the trial balance is to disclose any discrepancies between the journal and the ledger.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Amounts owed to the physician are accounts _____________.
18
Q6) The recording of business and accounting transactions is called
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The person who writes the check is called the drawee.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The deposits in cash today are $657 and the checks total $8,343. What is the total deposit?
Q3) The physician uses the debit card for $782.19 to pay for medical supplies, $56 for office supplies, and $76 to stock the employee break room refrigerator. If the balance in the checkbook is $32,830.43, what is the balance after the debit card activity?
Q4) Which of the following best describes an ACH transfer of funds between two separate banking institutions?
A) Both accounts are verified and funds are quickly available.
B) Both accounts are not verified and funds are quickly available.
C) Both accounts are verified but funds may take several days to be available.
D) Both accounts are not verified and funds may take several days to be available.
Q5) A person presenting a check for payment might be called the __________.
Q6) Checks received in the mail today include those for $90 and $436. If $568 in cash is deposited with the checks, how much is the total deposit?
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about healthy employee-employer relationships?
A) All of them make successful friendships.
B) Reprimanding employees who are also friends may be difficult.
C) A friendly relationship never interferes with the work relationship.
D) Developing any kind of friendship with employees is always unwise.
Q2) The office manager is responsible for making sure that employees adhere to office policies and procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Breaks and time off do not meet the physiologic needs of employees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Employee's Withholding Allowance Certificate is Form W-4. A)True
B)False
Q5) Successful managers know that their employees should be encouraged to perform at ____________ levels.
Q6) All ____________ should be carefully checked before a new employee is hired.
Q7) The types of staff meetings include informational, problem solving, _______________, and work sessions. Page 21
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Page 22
Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the SWOT analysis, which of the following evaluate external economic forces?
A) Strengths and weaknesses
B) Threats and weaknesses
C) Opportunities and threats
D) Strengths and opportunities
Q2) Staff meetings are not good times to brainstorm about target markets.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The phase of planning during which the problem or goals are reviewed is the _____________ stage.
Q4) Medical assistants should not be expected to provide good customer service along with their other duties.
A)True B)False
Q5) _____________ boxes are a great way to get patient and employee input.
Q6) Keeping the office open later one night per week is a marketing strategy. A)True B)False
23
Q7) Patients expect to be treated according to the __________ rule.
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungal infections are also called __________ infections.
Q2) Rosa is assisting with a procedure and has an accidental exposure of potentially infectious mucous in her right eye. What should Rosa do?
Q3) If a medical assistant performs medical aseptic hand washing or hand sanitization routinely, he or she does not have to wear disposable gloves when sanitizing contaminated surfaces.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an example of cell-mediated immunity?
A) Production of antibodies
B) Phagocytosis
C) Intact integumentary system
D) Inflammatory response
Q5) What is the first step that should be taken after exposure to contaminated waste?
A) Wash or flush the exposed area
B) Report immediately to the supervisor
C) Receive a medical evaluation
D) File an incident report
Q6) __________ infections persist for a long time.
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Congruence is achieved when the communicator's words and body language are delivering the same message.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The __________ is the physician's approach to managing the patient's health problem.
Q3) A patient interview may be conducted in a quiet corner of the waiting room.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It is important for the medical assistant to keep arms and legs crossed during an interview to communicate authority to the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Subjective data include the patient's report of injuries and resultant pain level.
A)True
B)False
Q6) During the __________ phase of the interview, medical assistants should introduce themselves and state the purpose of the interview.
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonverbal communication is important when interacting with patients who have a language barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Enabling the patient to gather as much information as possible about his or her disease is part of developing patient ownership of the health problem.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Based on what you have learned about the health belief model, explain the five factors that can affect a patient's attitude toward disease and give some suggestions on how the medical assistant can therapeutically perform patient education under these circumstances.
Q4) A major problem with delivering high-quality patient education in the ambulatory setting is the lack of __________.
Q5) The health belief model focuses on what patients believe about themselves and how a health problem affects them.
A)True B)False
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Page 26
Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diverticulosis can be treated with a diet high in soluble fiber.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which nutrient has 9 kcal/g?
A) Carbohydrates
B) Protein
C) Fat
D) Water
Q3) The glycemic index is an important tool for patients with diabetes to help control spikes in the blood glucose level.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Beta-carotene can be found in
A) meat and nuts.
B) dairy products.
C) yellow and orange raw vegetables.
D) citrus.
E) oils and butter.
Q5) Describe the major factors that influence individual food choices.
Q6) __________ can be neutralized by antioxidant-rich foods.
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who must sit up to breathe comfortably is said to have __________.
Q2) Atherosclerotic plaques can lead to hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a bedridden patient has chills and is shivering, what would you expect the body temperature to be?
A) Increased
B) Decreased
C) The same
D) It would depend on the patient's age.
Q4) A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has difficulty breathing, or __________.
Q5) The thickening, decreased elasticity, and calcification of arterial walls is called _______________________.
Q6) Parents should be aware that the axillary temperature may be as much as one degree less than the child's actual core temperature.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you are interested in working with patients of all ages who seek help for a wide variety of disorders, employment with which medical specialist would be your best choice?
A) Primary care physician
B) Oncologist
C) Internist
D) Physical medicine physician
Q2) One of the functions of the skeletal system is to create blood cells in the red bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Contraction of the smooth muscles lining an artery is called __________.
Q4) When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the examination table, the medical assistant should always assist the patient on the person's strong side.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ are used to test the ability to conduct vibrations through bone.
Q6) The acronym __________ means the patient's eyes react normally during the physical examination.
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both garlic and flaxseed may be helpful in lowering blood cholesterol levels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Potentiation occurs when two drugs that have the same action are used in combination, resulting in an increase in the action of both drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following does NOT apply to Schedule II (C-II) prescriptions?
A) Must be either a written or an e-prescription
B) Cannot be refilled
C) Telephone or fax orders are permitted
D) May require specific types of order forms in some stores
Q4) If you know the brand name of a drug, you would turn to the _________ section of the Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR) to locate the page number where the drug is listed.
A) gray
B) white
C) blue
D) pink
Q5) A(n) __________ is used for the treatment of allergic reactions.
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many cubic centimeters equal 2.5 teaspoons?
A) 10 cc
B) 15 cc
C) 5 cc
D) 12.5 cc
Q2) Starting at the top of a drug label, the drug's name is directly followed by what information?
A) Dosage and strength of the medication
B) The route or method of administration
C) Name of drug manufacturer
D) None of the above
Q3) A pediatric patient weighing 20 pounds is prescribed amoxicillin; the label states that 10 mg/kg should be administered each day. What is the total daily dose?
A) 91 mg/day
B) 440 mg/day
C) 90 mg/day
D) 45 mg/day
Q4) __________ is one way of expressing a fraction or division problem; it shows the relationship of the numerator to the denominator.
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an insulin injection, the medical assistant must remember to aspirate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a true statement about safe drug storage?
A) Certain medications must be refrigerated.
B) Controlled substances are stored along with other drugs.
C) Emergency supplies must be readily available.
D) All poisonous substances should be labeled in red.
Q3) Which of the following are semisolid medications containing bases such as petrolatum and lanolin?
A) Liniments
B) Ointments
C) Lotions
D) Sprays
Q4) What is the preferred site for an IM injection on an infant or child?
A) Vastus lateralis
B) Deltoid
C) Ventrogluteal
D) Gluteus medius
Q5) In an infant, the safest site for an intramuscular injection is the __________.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) An idiopathic condition is one that has no known cause.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Asystole is the recording of an irregular heartbeat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To clear an obstructed airway in a conscious adult victim, the medical assistant should administer a series of five abdominal thrusts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To dislodge a foreign object from an infant's airway, chest thrusts are applied in the same position as those used for infant CPR.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An ABC fire extinguisher is effective against electrical fires.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An AED may save the life of a victim in cardiac arrest. Describe how to apply the AED equipment and perform this skill.
Page 33
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) The ideal exam room for the Ishihara test
A) is well-lit with overhead lights.
B) is lit primarily by sunlight.
C) has plenty of room for the patient to stand 3 feet from the charts.
Q2) Under what circumstances must sterile techniques be used in performing ophthalmic procedures?
A) Only when the eye is lacerated or ulcerated
B) During all examination and testing procedures
C) When any instrument or application touches the eye or surrounding area and when any irrigation solution or medication is instilled
Q3) When cleansing the patient's eyelashes before performing an irrigation, you should clean from the outer canthus to the inner canthus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Clouding that develops in the lens of the eye is known as A) glaucoma.
B) a cataract.
C) ptosis.
D) a stye.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4226
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is(are) caused by staphylococci or streptococci? (Select all that apply.)
A) Mycotic infections
B) Cellulitis
C) Furuncle
D) Acne vulgaris
E) Impetigo
Q2) The National Cancer Institute recommends a sunscreen with an SPF of at least 30 for patients of all ages who are exposed to midday sun.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of lesion is a sign of a partial-thickness burn?
A) Pustule
B) Bulla
C) Ulcer
D) Wheal
Q4) __________ is the medical term for devitalized skin that forms a scab or dry crust over a burn area.
Q5) An increase in the number of healthy cells is called __________.
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4227
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who have undergone bariatric surgery may have which of the following complications if they return to a diet high in simple sugars?
A) GERD
B) Diverticulitis
C) Dumping syndrome
D) Crohn's disease
Q2) Which of the following diseases is often asymptomatic and discovered during a routine x-ray?
A) Gallstones
B) Cirrhosis
C) Hernia
D) Diverticular disease
Q3) The most frequently used position for patients undergoing a sigmoidoscopy procedure in the physician's office is the knee-chest position.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ are varicose veins of the anus and rectum.
Q5) A hard, impacted mass of feces in the colon is called a(n) __________.
Q6) The medical term for enlargement of the liver is __________.
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4228
Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals with HIV are treated with a single antiviral drug to control the spread of the virus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is treated successfully with penicillin?
A) Chlamydia
B) Syphilis
C) Genital herpes
D) Genital warts
E) Both A and B
Q3) An elevated PSA test result confirms the presence of cancer of the prostate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most UTIs start in the kidney and work their way downward toward the urethra.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Summarize what you learned in the chapter about the prostate-specific antigen test.
Q6) ________________________ causes genital warts.
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4229
Sample Questions
Q1) Failure to have a menstrual period is called
A) metrorrhagia.
B) menorrhagia.
C) amenorrhea.
D) dysmenorrhea.
Q2) Stage ______ is the stage of labor in which the placenta is delivered.
A) I
B) II
C) III
Q3) An ectopic pregnancy occurs in the inferior uterine wall.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Women using Depo-Provera injections for contraception are not at risk for blood clots and cardiovascular disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Gardasil is an immunization available for women previously infected by HPV to prevent reinfection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4230
Sample Questions
Q1) Infants with a low-grade fever should not receive any immunizations until their temperature is normal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viral meningitis is treated with hospitalization and IV antiviral medications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Children with cystic fibrosis develop steatorrhea because A) lipase is absent from the pancreas.
B) they eat too much protein.
C) they have an inherited defect that prevents carbohydrate metabolism.
D) the infection damages the villi of the small intestine.
Q4) If diarrhea continues for longer than 4 days, medical intervention is needed to prevent serious complications.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A varicella infection in pregnant women may cause stillbirth or birth defects.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________________ is an inherited disorder, and both parents must be carriers.
Page 39
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4231
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to diagnose carpel tunnel syndrome?
A) Tinel test
B) Phalen test
C) Electrodiagnostic test
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) A classic sign of osteoporosis is
A) anemia.
B) joint pain.
C) kyphosis.
D) scoliosis.
Q3) A patient who repeatedly uses the hands at work and complains of numbness and tingling of the fingers and difficulty grasping a pencil may be diagnosed with A) fibromyalgia.
B) carpal tunnel syndrome.
C) lupus.
D) osteoarthritis.
Q4) Diathermy is a deep heat therapy that can be used to treat muscle spasms.
A)True
B)False
Page 40
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4232
Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly patient with signs and symptoms of dementia is going through the normal phases of aging.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of paralysis from spinal cord transection occurs in the upper thoracic or cervical region of the spinal cord?
A) Quadriplegia
B) Paraplegia
C) Hemiplegia
D) None of the above
Q3) Which statement is true about hydrocephalus?
A) It can be diagnosed and treated in utero.
B) Enlargement of the infant's skull is limited, because the skull bones are fused at birth.
C) A shunt must be implanted surgically as soon as possible after birth.
D) Brain damage can be reversed if a shunt is placed surgically immediately after birth.
Q4) A CVA may be caused by a(n) _____________, which is a thrombus that has broken away from the site of origin and lodged in a blood vessel of the brain.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4233
Sample Questions
Q1) The islets of which endocrine gland regulate the blood glucose levels?
A) Parathyroid
B) Thyroid
C) Pineal
D) Pancreas
Q2) Patients with Addison's disease have characteristics similar to those on long-term corticosteroid therapy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient with diabetes type 2 may have signs and symptoms of peripheral neuropathy. List five questions you might ask to document the patient's condition accurately.
Q4) Which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus?
A) Plasma glucose level of 210 mg/dL
B) FPG of 126 mg/dL
C) OGTT result of 180 mg/dL
D) Glycosylated hemoglobin >6%
Q5) Many patients with diabetes need to void frequently during the night, a condition called __________.
Q6) Diabetic __________ is the leading cause of renal failure in the United States.
Page 42
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4234
Sample Questions
Q1) The procedure that measures the amount of air moving into and out of the lungs is
A) bronchoscopy.
B) intubation.
C) spirometry.
D) thoracentesis.
E) tracheostomy.
Q2) Bronchoscopy provides an endoscopic view of which of the following structures?
A) Larynx
B) Trachea
C) Bronchi
D) All of the above
Q3) The treatment for viral pneumonia is palliative.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient diagnosed with TB frequently experiences __________, which is bloody sputum.
Q5) The best time for sputum specimen collection is first thing in the morning.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4235
Sample Questions
Q1) ________________ causes pulmonary edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, and tachycardia.
Q2) Varicose veins can occur because of an inherited defect in the valves of the saphenous veins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You may be in a position one day to recognize the signs and symptoms of shock in a patient. Summarize the indicators of this life-threatening condition and the emergency procedures you should perform.
Q4) Rheumatic heart disease develops because of an antigen-antibody reaction several weeks after an untreated staphylococcal infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the goal of angioplasty?
A) To restore blood flow to ischemic myocardial tissue
B) To reduce the need for cardiac medication
C) To eliminate or reduce the number of angina episodes
D) All of the above
Q6) A(n) __________ may be a life-threatening problem because of the potential for embolus creation.
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4236
Sample Questions
Q1) The vaccine __________ is available for aging people to prevent activation of the varicella-zoster virus, which causes shingles.
Q2) Aging changes in the lungs include a decrease in the ability of lung tissue to move freely with inspiration and expiration because of changes in __________ fibers.
Q3) Explain the Mini-Mental Status Exam and how it is used to diagnose dementia.
Q4) The cells in the ________________ are produced more slowly with age, making the skin prone to tear and blister.
A) epidermis
B) dermis
C) subcutaneous layer
D) All of the above
Q5) Sleep problems are often confused with which of the following conditions?
A) Diabetes
B) Dementia
C) Depression
D) Cardiovascular disease
E) All of the above
Q6) List four risk factors that contribute to the development of osteoporosis.
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4237
Sample Questions
Q1) Preparation of a patient for an ECG includes
A) placing the electrodes over bony prominences on the arms and legs.
B) making sure the bed is pushed against the wall to stabilize the unit.
C) placing the ground electrode at V6.
D) instructing female patients to remove their bra and pantyhose.
Q2) ________ is the relaxation phase of the heart.
A) Systole
B) Diastole
C) Cardioversion
D) None of the above
Q3) The skin is an excellent conductor of electrical activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ is a combination of all of the electric events that occur in the heart during a single heartbeat.
Q5) The AV node sends the electric impulse through the __________, which stimulates the right and left ventricular walls.
Q6) __________ refers to a regular heart rate that ranges from 60 to 90 bpm.
Q7) The __________ on an ECG machine creates the image on the ECG paper.
Q8) What information should be documented on the ECG strip?
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4238
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following planes divides the body into equal right and left parts?
A) Sagittal plane
B) Midsagittal plane
C) Coronal plane
D) Midcoronal or midfrontal plane
E) Transverse plane
Q2) Which of the following is a noninvasive diagnostic modality that allows visualization of anatomic structures without the use of radioactive x-rays?
A) Magnetic resonance imaging
B) Computed tomography
C) Angiocardiogram
D) Myelography
Q3) AP stands for __________.
Q4) The computed x-ray imaging technique that provides axial and three-dimensional scans is commonly called a(n)
A) CT scan.
B) MRI.
C) sonogram.
D) upper GI scan.
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4239
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following requires the laboratory employer to have a written exposure control plan to protect the lab's employees?
A) OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
B) CDC's universal precautions
C) CDC's standard precautions
D) OSHA's SDS standard
Q2) Which type of specimen must be chilled if testing will not be performed immediately?
A) Blood
B) Urine
C) Semen
D) All of the above
Q3) The clinical chemistry department performs which of the following tests?
A) Presence of ketones in urine
B) Cell morphology
C) Blood cell count
D) Lipid profile
Q4) Describe the purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA).
Q5) Specimens collected in the ambulatory care setting frequently are sent to a(n) __________ for analysis.
48
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4240
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a recommendation from the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute for urine specimens?
A) Volume should be 12 mL
B) Specimen should not be centrifuged
C) A standardized slide should be used to view the sediment
D) A consistent reporting format should be used
Q2) Ketones may not be present in a urine sample that is at room temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are tubular structures found in the urine and composed mainly of mucoprotein secreted by certain cells of the kidney?
A) Casts
B) Bacteria
C) Yeasts
D) Metabolites
Q4) The pigment __________ is responsible for the color of urine.
Q5) ____________ may occur as the first sign of liver disease; the urine appears yellow-brown or greenish orange.
Q6) The sugar most commonly found in urine is __________.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4241
Sample Questions
Q1) It is important to shake a Vacutainer tube after collecting a blood sample so that the sample and additive are properly mixed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All Vacutainer tubes should be inverted three to five times to mix the blood sample with the tube additive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In adults and children, which finger is usually used for a routine capillary puncture site?
A) Thumb
B) Index finger
C) Ring finger
D) Fifth finger
Q4) A patient must give verbal consent before venipuncture can be performed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the postexposure management of a needle stick.
Q6) __________ is the liquid portion of the blood that contains clotting agents.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4242
Sample Questions
Q1) While Mr. Chakrabarti's hematocrit sample is spinning in the centrifuge, you perform an automated hemoglobin test on a sample of his blood and record the value as 15 g/dL. You do a quick mental calculation and expect that the hematocrit value will be approximately
A) 5%.
B) 45 g/dL.
C) 5 g/dL.
D) 45%.
Q2) You are responsible for teaching a new medical assistant in the practice how to perform a microhematocrit test. Summarize this procedure.
Q3) Which component of the complete blood count is not necessary to calculate the red cell indices?
A) Differential
B) Hemoglobin
C) Hematocrit
D) Erythrocyte count
Q4) The physician orders both liver and cardiac panels for Mr. John Seymour, a 48-year-old patient. Summarize the blood tests included.
Q5) List five studies included in a CBC.
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4243
Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial endospores allow a microorganism to survive harsh environments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Microscopically, a sputum specimen containing positive AFB appears
A) pink.
B) blue.
C) purple.
D) green.
Q3) Which color indicates gram-positive bacteria?
A) Pink
B) Purple
C) Blue
D) Green
Q4) Negative rapid strep test results must be confirmed with a throat culture, because the rapid strep test is highly specific but not highly sensitive.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An influenza diagnosis is confirmed by cultures grown from nasopharyngeal swabs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4244
Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) __________ surgical needle comes packaged with the suture material attached to the needle.
Q2) ____________, which resemble gears, have three or more positions and are located just below the ring handle of an instrument so that the instrument can be locked in a particular position.
Q3) Nylon suture material is nonabsorbent and strong and has a high degree of elasticity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) This instrument has a fine tip for retrieval of foreign objects.
A) Nasal speculum
B) Splinter forceps
C) Needle holder
D) Littauer stitch or suture scissors
Q5) Bandage scissors have a pointy, sharp probe tip that is inserted under the bandage to aid removal.
A)True B)False
Q6) ___________ forceps are small (4 inches) and are used to clamp small blood vessels or tissues.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonsterile individuals should never reach over a sterile field.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Autoclave wrapping material must be __________ so that steam can circulate around the instruments.
Q3) Techniques for medical asepsis create a sterile environment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sterile technique should be used for venipuncture.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An autoclave pack with a small tear in the wrapper is no longer sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In the __________ phase of wound healing, collagen closes the gap between tissues and scar tissue forms.
Q7) Describe the medical assistant's role during laser surgery.
Page 54
Q8) Define sanitization, disinfection, and sterilization. Include in your answer how each is performed.
Q9) __________ can result if a bandage is applied too tightly.
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4246
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best action to take if an employer asks you whether you are married?
A) Advise him or her that it is illegal to ask this question.
B) Ignore the question by pretending you did not hear it.
C) Politely ask the interviewer whether you can respond to questions that relate directly to the job.
D) Answer it truthfully, because you are required to do so.
Q2) __________ each résumé to get better results during the job search.
Q3) It is smart to resign from a job to try to get an increase in salary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A return offer made by a person who has rejected an offer or job is called a(n)
Q5) Which of the following sources can be used to support claims of an individual's characteristics?
A) Past job reviews
B) Practicum evaluations
C) Words in résumé or cover letter
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q6) __________ is reading and marking corrections.
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