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Medical Office Laboratory Techniques is a comprehensive course designed to provide students with foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for performing basic laboratory procedures commonly encountered in medical office settings. Emphasizing safety, accuracy, and ethical practices, this course covers topics such as specimen collection and handling, routine diagnostic testing (including urinalysis, hematology, and basic microbiology), quality control protocols, equipment maintenance, and effective communication of lab results. Through a combination of lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on laboratory experience, students gain proficiency in adhering to regulatory standards and supporting healthcare providers in the diagnostic process.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 8th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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21 Chapters
1262 Verified Questions
1262 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following situations requires the completion of a release of medical information form?
A) When a patient transfers records to a new physician
B) To bill the patient's insurance company
C) To send the patient's records to a consulting physician
D) To determine the patient's eligibility for insurance benefits
Answer: A
Q2) The health history is taken
A) After the physician performs the physical examination
B) After laboratory test results are reviewed
C) Before the physician performs the physical examination
D) After the physician makes a diagnosis of the patient's condition
Answer: C
Q3) A narrative report of an opinion about a patient's condition by a practitioner other than the attending physician is known as a
A) Correspondence report
B) Discharge summary report
C) Consultation report
D) Health history report
Answer: C
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Q1) Pertaining to Birth
A)aer/o
B)an-
C)anti-
D)-gen
E)micro-
F)natal
G)nonH)path/o
I)post-
J)septic
Answer: F
Q2) What term is used to describe practices that help to keep an object or area clean and free from infection?
A) Medical asepsis
B) Surgical asepsis
C) Disinfection
D) Sterilization
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be best to use to wrap a large minor office surgery tray setup?
A) Sterilization pouch
B) Muslin
C) Aluminum foil
D) Sterilization paper
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is accomplished through sanitization?
A) Organic matter is removed from the article.
B) All microorganisms are removed from the article.
C) Stains are removed from the article.
D) Spores are killed.
E) All of the above
Answer: A
Q3) What type of water should be used in the autoclave?
A) Salt water
B) Tap water
C) Distilled water
D) Mineral water Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia?
A) A trained athlete
B) An infant
C) An elderly person
D) A diabetic patient
Q2) A temperature of 97.6° F is classified as
A) Normal
B) Hypothermia
C) Subnormal
D) Low-grade fever
Q3) If an axillary temperature of 100° F was taken orally, it would register as
A) 98° F
B) 99° F
C) 100° F
D) 101° F
Q4) What name is given to the heat-regulating center of the body?
A) Medulla
B) Hypothalamus
C) Pituitary gland
D) Olfactory lobe
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of auscultation?
A) Measuring body temperature
B) Measuring blood pressure
C) Urine testing
D) Testing pupillary reaction
Q2) The patient's height should be recorded in
A) Inches
B) Feet and inches
C) Centimeters
D) Meters
Q3) Through, complete
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hearing
A)a-
B)audi/o
C)hyper-
D)-ic
E)-ism
F)-meter
G)-opia
H)ot/o
I)-scope
J)tympan/o
Q2) An optometrist performs all of the following except
A) Diagnoses and treats eye disorders
B) Prescribes corrective lenses
C) Measures visual acuity
D) Performs eye surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Forearm crutches are often used by patients with A) Cerebral palsy
B) A fracture of a lower extremity
C) An amputated leg
D) Paralysis on one side of the body
Q2) The purpose of a stockinette is to
A) Prevent pressure areas
B) Provide patient comfort
C) Reduce edema
D) Facilitate healing
E) All of the above
Q3) All of the following should be relayed to the patient regarding cast care except
A) Elevate the cast above heart level for the first 24 to 48 hours
B) Apply a heating pad to the cast to relieve pain
C) Gently move the fingers or toes to help prevent swelling
D) Do not insert anything into the cast
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Q1) Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with A) Prenatal care
B) Diseases of the reproductive organs of women
C) Diseases of geriatric patients
D) Care of the newborn
Q2) What is the EDD of a patient whose LMP was September 5, 2011?
A) 12/12/12
B) 6/2/12
C) 6/12/12
D) 12/2/12
Q3) Which of the following is not included in the first prenatal visit?
A) Fundal height measurement
B) Pelvic examination
C) Completion of a prenatal record form
D) Determination of fetal presentation and position
Q4) A complete gynecologic examination consists of a A) Breast and pelvic examination
B) Breast examination
C) Pap test
D) Bimanual pelvic examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Head circumference is measured in
A) Millimeters
B) Grams
C) Centimeters or inches
D) Microns
Q2) What is the term for the process of becoming immune through the use of a vaccine or toxoid?
A) Passive artificial immunization
B) Active artificial immunization
C) Inflammation
D) Passive natural immunization
Q3) Measuring pediatric blood pressure helps to identify children at risk for developing
A) Hypertension
B) Type 2 diabetes
C) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
D) Heart disease
E) All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of performing a cervical punch biopsy is to
A) Detect the presence of cervical cancer or dysplasia
B) Destroy inflamed tissue
C) Treat cervical cancer
D) Prevent cervical erosion
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of dysplastic nevi except
A) Larger than normal moles
B) Always develop into malignant melanoma
C) Have irregular coloration
D) Have an irregular shape
Q3) What occurs during the inflammatory phase in the healing process?
A) New capillaries grow.
B) The tissue becomes a translucent red color.
C) Fibroblasts synthesize collagen.
D) A blood clot plugs the opening of the wound.
Q4) What would a physician do if a sebaceous cyst is infected?
A) Remove the cyst
B) Incise and drain the cyst
C) Cauterize the cyst
D) Perform a needle biopsy on the cyst

Page 12
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Q1) What is the term for the administration of whole blood or blood products through the IV route?
A) Transfusion
B) Enteral nutrition
C) Infusion
D) Effusion
Q2) What is the abbreviation for before meals?
A) ac
B) pc
C) hs
D) ad lib
Q3) The Z-track method is used to administer medications that
A) Are poorly absorbed
B) Are irritating to subcutaneous tissue
C) Are likely to cause a drug interaction
D) Are thick and oily
E) All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) The aVR, aVL, and aVF are known as the
A) Standard leads
B) Chest leads
C) Augmented leads
D) Bipolar leads
Q2) Which electrode is used as a ground reference?
A) Right arm
B) Right leg
C) Left arm
D) Left leg
Q3) The purpose of pulmonary function testing is to
A) Dilate the bronchial tubes to increase airflow
B) Remove mucus from the bronchial tubes
C) Detect cardiac dysrhythmias
D) Assess lung functioning
Q4) The left atrium receives
A) Deoxygenated blood from the body
B) Oxygenated blood from the left ventricle
C) Oxygenated blood from the lungs
D) Deoxygenated blood from the lungs
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Q1) When should a testicular self-examination be performed?
A) In the morning
B) After taking a warm shower
C) After sexual intercourse
D) After vigorous exercise
Q2) All of the following are risk factors for testicular cancer except
A) Family history of testicular cancer
B) Undescended testicles
C) Being an African American male
D) Cancer of the other testicle
Q3) Within
A)-ase
B)bi/o
C)colon/o
D)endo-
E)-opsy
F)ox/i
G)-scope
H)-scopy
I)sigmoid/o
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of magnetic resonance imaging?
A) It is safe and painless.
B) The patient must remove all metal before the procedure.
C) The patient must remain still during the procedure.
D) The patient hears a metallic clacking sound during the procedure.
E) All of the above
Q2) Cerebral angiogram
A)A radiograph of the urinary bladder
B)A radiograph of the lungs
C)A radiograph of the bile ducts
D)An ultrasound examination of the heart
E)A radiograph of the heart
F)A radiograph of the major arteries of the brain
G)A radiograph of the coronary arteries
H)A radiograph of the uterus and fallopian tubes
Q3) An instrument used to view internal organs directly is known as a
A) Fluoroscope
B) Radiography
C) Fluoroscopy
D) Fluorometer
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Q1) Which of the following is not found in a laboratory directory?
A) Names and CPT codes of the tests performed by the laboratory
B) Patient preparation required for laboratory tests
C) Amount and type of specimen required by the laboratory
D) Instructions for testing specimens
E) Handling and storage of laboratory specimens
Q2) The study of blood and the blood-forming tissues is known as
A) Hematology
B) Immunology and blood banking
C) Clinical chemistry
D) Cytology
E) Histology
Q3) What temperature is usually required for storing testing materials and performing laboratory tests?
A) Body temperature
B) Room temperature
C) A very cold temperature
D) A temperature between 100° F and 104° F
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Sample Questions
Q1) Without, absence of
A)an-
B)bilirubin/o
C)dys-
D)glyc/o
E)hemat/o
F)keton/o
G)noct/i
H)olig/o
I)-osis
J)poly
K)py/o
L)ur/o
Q2) The presence of bile pigments in a urine specimen causes the specimen to be
A) Light amber
B) Foul-smelling
C) Yellow-brown
D) Red
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vein
A)ante-
B)antiC)chondr/o
D)hemat/o
E)-itis
F)lysis
G)myel/o
H)-oma
I)oste/o
J)-otomy
K)-ous
L)phleb/o
M)stasis
Q2) Which of the following represents an error in technique when working with evacuated tubes?
A) Using a computer bar code label to identify the tube
B) Filling tubes to the exhaustion of the vacuum
C) Shaking a tube containing an anticoagulant after drawing it
D) Removing the last tube from the plastic holder before removing the needle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tubes may occur if the PT/INR blood tube is not filled to the exhaustion of the vacuum?
A) Hemolysis of the blood specimen
B) Clotting of the blood specimen
C) Inaccurate test results
D) Contamination of the blood specimen
Q2) The movement of leukocytes through the pores of the capillaries is known as
A) Leukocytosis
B) Phagocytosis
C) Flagellation
D) Diapedesis
Q3) Which of the following tests is not included in a CBC?
A) Differential white blood cell count
B) Hemoglobin
C) Hematocrit
D) Prothrombin time
E) Red and white blood cell counts
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a risk factor for coronary artery disease?
A) LDL cholesterol level of 90 mg/dL
B) HDL cholesterol level of 25 mg/dL
C) Triglyceride level of 140 mg/dL
D) Low blood pressure
Q2) Infectious mononucleosis is transmitted through A) Coughing and sneezing
B) Contaminated food
C) Sexual intercourse
D) Saliva by direct oral contact
E) All of the above
Q3) Prolonged high blood glucose levels can cause all of the following conditions except
A) Blindness
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Kidney disease
D) Circulatory problems
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Q1) A disease that can be spread from one person to another is known as
A) An infectious disease
B) A contagious disease
C) An acute disease
D) Droplet infection
Q2) Which of the following represents a violation of technique when collecting a throat specimen?
A) Using a sterile swab to collect the specimen
B) Touching the inside of the mouth with the swab
C) Using a rotating motion to collect the specimen
D) Labeling the specimen container
Q3) Which of the following is a sequela to streptococcal sore throat?
A) Diphtheria
B) Rheumatic fever
C) Pertussis
D) Viral pneumonia
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Q1) What is another name for a stroke?
A) Paraplegia
B) Transient ischemia
C) Coronary artery disease
D) Cerebrovascular accident
Q2) In what type of fracture is the bone splintered or shattered into three or more fragments?
A) Spiral
B) Comminuted
C) Open
D) Oblique
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a partial-thickness burn?
A) It extends into the dermis.
B) The burned area appears red and mottled.
C) There is little pain involved.
D) Blistering occurs.
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