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Medical Office Clinical Procedures is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the practical skills and knowledge required for effective functioning in a medical office environment. The course covers essential topics such as patient intake, vital sign measurement, examination preparation, specimen collection and processing, basic laboratory procedures, infection control, and documentation techniques. Emphasis is placed on aseptic technique, patient communication, confidentiality, and safety protocols in clinical practice. Through a combination of lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on experiences, students gain confidence in performing routine clinical tasks while upholding the standards and ethics of healthcare delivery.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 9th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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21 Chapters
1057 Verified Questions
1057 Flashcards
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66 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are paper documents entered into a patient's electronic medical record?
A)By scanning them into the computer
B)By retyping them on the computer
C)By photocopying them
D)By transmitting them through a modem
Answer: A
Q2) What is a symptom?
A)Conclusions drawn from an interpretation of data
B)Any change in the body or its functioning that indicates disease
C)The probable outcome of a disease
D)The scientific method of identifying a patient's condition
Answer: B
Q3) A yellow color of the skin that is first observed in the whites of the eyes is called A)cyanosis.
B)hepatitis.
C)pallor.
D)jaundice.
Answer: D
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Q1) Treatment administered to an individual after exposure to an infectious disease to prevent the disease is known as A)immunization.
B)postexposure prophylaxis.
C)first aid measures.
D)antiviral drug therapy.
Answer: B
Q2) What term is used to describe a physical or mechanical device used to remove health hazards from the workplace?
A)Engineering control
B)Work practice control
C)Personal protective equipment
D)Universal precaution
Answer: A
Q3) All of the following make a person less resistant to a pathogen except A)poor nutrition.
B)immunizations.
C)poor hygiene.
D)stress. Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dry heat is preferred for sterilizing
A)disposable syringes.
B)vaginal specula.
C)flexible sigmoidoscopes.
D)instruments with sharp cutting edges.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following would be best to use to wrap a large minor office surgery tray setup?
A)Sterilization pouch
B)Muslin
C)Aluminum foil
D)Sterilization paper
Answer: B
Q3) High-level disinfection is a process that destroys all A)pathogenic microorganisms.
B)microorganisms and spores.
C)microorganisms except tubercle bacilli.
D)microorganisms but not spores.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following BP readings can be classified as hypertension,stage 1?
A)116/78 mm Hg
B)120/80 mm Hg
C)130/88 mm Hg
D)144/92 mm Hg
E)All of the above
Q2) If the patient's fingers are cold when performing pulse oximetry,the medical assistant should
A)take the reading on another finger.
B)use a disposable probe to take the reading.
C)cleanse the probe with an antiseptic wipe.
D)ask the patient to rub his or her fingers together.
Q3) The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is
A)95% to 99%.
B)90% to 95%.
C)85% to 90%.
D)75% to 85%.
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Sample Questions
Q1) To view,to examine
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
Q2) All the following steps should be followed when lifting an object except
A)determine if you can safely lift the object.
B)stand in front of the object with the feet 6 to 8 inches apart.
C)bend at the hips to lift the object.
D)keep the back straight when lifting the object.
Q3) What is the name of the instrument used to examine the interior of the eye?
A)Otoscope
B)Ophthalmoscope
C)Rhinoscope
D)Stethoscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) An eye instillation may be performed to A)remove a foreign object from the eye.
B)remove eye drainage.
C)flush out a harmful chemical.
D)treat an eye infection.
Q2) A person who cannot see objects at a distance has a condition known as A)hyperopia.
B)presbyopia.
C)myopia.
D)amblyopia.
Q3) Which of the following individuals interprets and fills ophthalmic prescriptions such as a prescription for eyeglasses?
A)Optician
B)Optometrist
C)Oculist
D)Orthopedist
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following indicates that a cast is too tight or that an infection is developing except
A)itching.
B)chills or fever.
C)foul odor or drainage.
D)numbness or tingling of the fingers or toes.
E)fiberglass casts should not be signed.
Q2) Which of the following individuals would have a more than usual sensitivity to the local application of heat?
A)Elderly individual
B)Preschool child
C)Patient with diabetes mellitus
D)Patient with an open wound
E)All of the above
Q3) Canes are used most frequently for individuals with A)an amputated lower extremity.
B)weakness on one side of the body.
C)poor muscular coordination.
D)paralysis of the lower extremities.
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61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with A)prenatal care.
B)diseases of the reproductive organs of women.
C)diseases of geriatric patients.
D)care of the newborn.
Q2) In the absence of complications,the first prenatal visit should be scheduled after the patient
A)exhibits the signs and symptoms of pregnancy.
B)misses her first menstrual period.
C)misses her second menstrual period.
D)obtains positive results on a pregnancy test.
Q3) The Bethesda System for reporting the results of the Pap test includes all of the following except
A)whether or not the specimen is satisfactory for evaluation.
B)a general statement as to whether the specimen is normal or abnormal.
C)categorization of the results in classes I through V.
D)a detailed description of any abnormal findings.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents an error in technique when collecting a specimen for a newborn screening test?
A)Wiping away the first drop of blood
B)Completely filling each of the circles on the test card with blood
C)Allowing the test card to dry for 15 minutes before placing it in its mailing envelope
D)Mailing the test card to an outside laboratory within 48 hours
Q2) The child's genitalia should be cleansed before applying a pediatric urine collector to
A)prevent contaminants from entering the urine specimen.
B)protect the child from infection.
C)prevent false-negative test results.
D)prevent irritation of the patient's skin from the adhesive.
Q3) The resistance of the body to pathogenic microorganisms or their toxins is known as A)immunization.
B)inflammation.
C)immunity.
D)contagious.
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Q1) All of the following may cause an ingrown toenail except
A)tight shoes.
B)trauma.
C)improper nail trimming.
D)long periods of standing.
Q2) Which of the following represents an error in technique when pouring a sterile solution?
A)Ensuring the solution is within its expiration date
B)Placing the solution cap on a flat surface with the open end facing down
C)Palming the label of the solution bottle
D)Rinsing the lip of the bottle
Q3) For which of the following wounds would the physician be most likely to order a tetanus booster?
A)Cut
B)Puncture
C)Laceration
D)Abrasion
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the slanted edge at the top of a needle?
A)Tip
B)Bevel
C)Gauge
D)Lumen
Q2) Which of the following systems is used most often to prescribe and administer medication?
A)Apothecary
B)Household
C)Metric
D)Avoirdupois
Q3) What is the abbreviation for every day?
A)qid
B)qh
C)qs
D)qd
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT)?
A)Rapid fluttering of the atrium
B)Sudden onset and termination of symptoms
C)Increase in heart rate of the patient
D)Patient weakness and acute apprehension
Q2) Which of the following is considered the most serious cardiac dysrhythmia?
A)Atrial flutter
B)Ventricular tachycardia
C)Atrial fibrillation
D)Ventricular fibrillation
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding PVCs?
A)They are common with mitral valve prolapse.
B)They are one of the most common rhythm disturbances.
C)A wide and distorted QRS complex is present.
D)They may be caused by anxiety, smoking, and caffeine.
E)All of the above are true.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause failure of the expected control results to occur on a guaiac slide test?
A)Outdated slides
B)Outdated developing solution
C)Error in technique
D)Improper storage of the testing kit
E)All of the above
Q2) What type of bowel preparation may be required before a sigmoidoscopy?
A)Not consuming any solid food the day before the procedure
B)Drinking only clear liquids the day before the procedure
C)Taking a laxative the evening before the examination
D)Performing cleansing enemas the day of the procedure
E)All of the above
Q3) All of the following are symptoms of prostate cancer except
A)difficulty in urinating.
B)painful urination.
C)weak urinary flow.
D)thick, yellow discharge from the penis.
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Q1) The permanent record of the picture produced on the X-ray film is known as a A)radiology.
B)sonogram.
C)radiograph.
D)tomogram.
Q2) Which of the following individuals is at particular risk for osteoporosis?
A)A patient with osteoarthritis
B)An obese individual
C)A patient with diabetes
D)A postmenopausal woman
Q3) The purpose of contrast medium is to
A)prevent the radiographic film from becoming blurred.
B)decrease the amount of time needed to develop radiographic film.
C)make a structure visible on a radiograph.
D)allow direct visualization of internal organs and structures.
Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of computed tomography (CT)?
A)Uses sound waves to produce an image
B)Used for diagnostic studies of the brain
C)Produces a series of cross-sectional pictures
D)May use a contrast dye during the scan
Page 16
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Q1) Which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions?
A)Disposing of broken glassware in a puncture-resistant container
B)Talking in the laboratory
C)Opening a centrifuge before it comes to a complete stop
D)Recapping reagent bottles immediately after use
Q2) How are laboratory reports delivered to the medical office?
A)Faxed
B)Mailed
C)Hand-delivered by a laboratory courier
D)Electronically
E)All of the above
Q3) What is the purpose of the patient accession number found on the laboratory report?
A)To provide identification of each specimen in the laboratory
B)To provide information required for third-party billing
C)To identify the source of the specimen
D)To assist the physician in making a diagnosis
E)All of the above
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is included in a complete urinalysis?
A)A physical examination of urine
B)A chemical examination of urine
C)Microscopic examination of urine sediment
D)All of the above
Q2) A pH reading of 8 means that the urine specimen is
A)acidic.
B)alkaline.
C)neutral.
D)contaminated.
Q3) The presence of bile pigments in a urine specimen causes the specimen to be
A)light amber.
B)foul-smelling.
C)yellow-brown.
D)red.
Q4) What is the term for the presence of ketone bodies in the urine?
A)Acidosis
B)Alimentary glycosuria
C)Ketosis
D)Ketonuria

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Sample Questions
Q1) What may occur if a finger puncture is made that is deeper than 3.1 mm?
A)Damage to nerves in the finger
B)Penetration of the bone
C)Inaccurate test results
D)Excessive bleeding
Q2) All of the following are correct techniques for applying a tourniquet except
A)placing the tourniquet 3 to 4 inches above the bend in the elbow.
B)asking the patient to clench his or her fist.
C)applying the tourniquet so that it is snug, but not tight.
D)leaving the tourniquet on for at least 3 minutes before drawing the specimen.
Q3) What may occur if an angle of less than 15 degrees is used to perform the venipuncture?
A)The needle may enter the skin above the vein and not puncture it.
B)The needle may go completely through the vein.
C)The vein may collapse.
D)The needle may penetrate a tendon.
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Q1) In an adult,red blood cells are formed in the red bone marrow of the A)ribs.
B)sternum.
C)skull.
D)ends of the long bones of the limbs.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) What is the normal range for a red blood cell count for a woman (in cells per cubic millimeter of blood)?
A)3 to 4 million
B)4 to 5.5 million
C)4.5 to 6.2 million
D)5 to 6 million
Q3) Which of the following white blood cells has a light-staining nucleus that is often masked by the presence of large dark-staining granules?
A)Neutrophil
B)Basophil
C)Lymphocyte
D)Monocyte
E)Eosinophil
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Q1) According to the American Diabetes Association,what is the normal range for a fasting blood glucose level (in mg/dL)?
A)20 to 80
B)70 to 99
C)100 to 125
D)140 to 160
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol?
A)White, waxy substance
B)Component of all cell membranes
C)Used in the production of hormones
D)Used in the production of bile
E)All of the above
Q3) What hormone is required for the normal use of glucose in the body?
A)Insulin
B)Estrogen
C)Thyroxine
D)Bilirubin
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?
A)Chickenpox
B)Tetanus
C)Mumps
D)Rubella
Q2) Conditions caused by Staphylococcus aureus include
A)boils.
B)wound infections.
C)food poisoning.
D)abscesses.
E)all of the above.
Q3) The purpose of incubating a culture is to
A)allow the pathogen to grow and multiply.
B)prevent overgrowth of the specimen with extraneous microorganisms.
C)produce a pure culture.
D)kill any pathogens present.
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Q1) A specially equipped cart for holding and transporting medications,equipment,and supplies needed in an emergency is known as a _____ cart.
A)first-aid
B)go-
C)crash
D)code blue
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a closed wound?
A)Laceration
B)Puncture
C)Contusion
D)Abrasion
E)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMD?
A)To answer emergency calls
B)To obtain needed information from a caller
C)To provide consent for treatment of a conscious patient
D)To send appropriate personnel and equipment
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