Medical Office Clinical Practices
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Office Clinical Practices is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the essential clinical procedures and administrative duties required in a modern medical office setting. Students will learn about patient preparation, vital sign measurement, basic laboratory testing, infection control, and the proper use and maintenance of medical equipment. The course also covers patient record management, confidentiality, appointment scheduling, and effective communication techniques with patients and healthcare professionals. Emphasis is placed on understanding and adhering to healthcare regulations, ethical standards, and safety protocols to ensure quality patient care and efficient clinical operations in a medical office environment.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 8th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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1262 Verified Questions
1262 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Medical Record
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66 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe dizziness?
A) Epistaxis
B) Vertigo
C) Urticaria
D) Pruritus
Answer: B
Q2) When a medical assistant witnesses a patient's signature, it means that he or she
A) Verified the patient's identity and watched the patient sign the form
B) Verified that the information on the form is correct
C) Verified that the patient is aware of the risks involved with the procedure to be performed
D) Verified that the physician discussed informed consent with the patient
Answer: A
Q3) The purpose of progress notes is to
A) Provide a review of each body system
B) Update the medical record with new patient information
C) Prevent the patient's condition from getting worse
D) Ensure that the patient returns for follow-up care
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe a microorganism that does not produce disease?
A) Sterile
B) Aseptic
C) Nonpathogen
D) Pathogen
Answer: C
Q2) What is the most common means of transmission for hepatitis C?
A) Sharing needles for illegal injection drug use
B) Coughs and sneezes from an infected person
C) Sexual intercourse
D) Mosquitoes
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an exposure incident?
A) Spilling blood on a laboratory worktable
B) Sticking yourself with the needle after drawing up an injectable medication
C) Getting blood onto your bare hands
D) Splashing blood into your eyes
E) All of the above
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Something that is sterile is free of
A) Pathogens
B) All living microorganisms
C) All living microorganisms and spores
D) Nonpathogens
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following concentrations of alcohol is the most effective disinfectant?
A) 50% isopropyl alcohol
B) 60% isopropyl alcohol
C) 70% isopropyl alcohol
D) 100% isopropyl alcohol
Answer: C
Q3) The most common temperature and pressure used for autoclaving is
A) 320S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
B) 145S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
C) 212S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
D) 250S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe the point of lesser pressure on the arterial walls when assessing blood pressure?
A) Systolic pressure
B) Diastolic pressure
C) Diastole
D) Hypotension
E) Pulse pressure
Q2) The rectal site should not be used to take the temperature of
A) A newborn
B) An unconscious patient
C) An infant
D) A mouth-breathing patient
Q3) Which of the following individuals has the slowest respiratory rate?
A) Newborn
B) Infant
C) Preschool child
D) Adult
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Chapter 5: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are responsibilities of the medical assistant during the physical examination except
A) Positioning the patient
B) Handing the physician instruments and supplies
C) Listening to the patient's heart and lung sounds
D) Providing the patient with educational information
Q2) Ear
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure located at the end of the external auditory canal that functions in receiving and transmitting sound waves is the
A) External auditory meatus
B) Incus
C) Cochlea
D) Tympanic membrane
Q2) Which of the following individuals interprets and fills ophthalmic prescriptions such as a prescription for eyeglasses?
A) Optician
B) Optometrist
C) Oculist
D) Orthopedist
Q3) The transparent part of the eye that covers the pupil and the iris is the A) Sclera
B) Cornea
C) Choroid
D) Lens
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Chapter 7: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of a stockinette is to
A) Prevent pressure areas
B) Provide patient comfort
C) Reduce edema
D) Facilitate healing
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following can be used to support and immobilize a fractured wrist?
A) Splint
B) Brace
C) Ace bandage
D) Sling
Q3) Which of the following factors is taken into consideration before an ambulatory assistive device is prescribed?
A) The age of the patient
B) The patient's muscular coordination
C) The type of disability
D) The amount of support required
E) All of the above
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9
Chapter 8: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of the present pregnancy history is to
A) Establish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patient
B) Record medications being taken by the patient
C) Determine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancy
D) Calculate the EDD
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following does not need to be reported to the physician?
A) The lochia discharge is absent within the first 2 weeks after delivery.
B) The lochia discharge increases rather than decreases.
C) The lochia changes to yellowish white after having been red.
D) The lochia has a foul odor.
Q3) In the absence of complications, the first prenatal visit should be scheduled after the patient
A) Exhibits the signs and symptoms of pregnancy
B) Misses her first menstrual period
C) Misses her second menstrual period
D) Obtains positive results on a pregnancy test
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not included in a well-child visit?
A) Administration of immunizations
B) Physical examination
C) Collection of a throat specimen
D) Evaluation of growth and development
Q2) After administration of an immunization, the NCVIA requires that all of the following be documented in the medical record except the
A) Manufacturer and lot number of the vaccine
B) Signature of the child's parent or guardian
C) Date the VIS was given to the parent
D) Name and address of the medical office
Q3) All of the following are used in determining if a child has hypertension except A) Age
B) Weight
C) Height
D) Gender
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Chapter 10: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would a physician do if a sebaceous cyst is infected?
A) Remove the cyst
B) Incise and drain the cyst
C) Cauterize the cyst
D) Perform a needle biopsy on the cyst
Q2) Sutures inserted into the arms or legs are usually removed after
A) 24 hours
B) 3 to 5 days
C) 7 to 14 days
D) 2 weeks
Q3) After a sterile dressing change, the medical assistant should instruct the patient to
A) Keep the dressing dry
B) Keep the dressing clean
C) Contact the office if signs of inflammation occur
D) Return for further care as directed by the physician
E) All of the above
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Chapter 11: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is administered through the sublingual route?
A) Penicillin
B) Nitroglycerin
C) Lisinopril
D) Heparin
Q2) The inscription of a prescription consists of
A) Directions to the pharmacist
B) The symbol Rx
C) Information to be included on the medication label
D) The name of the drug and the dose
Q3) What is the abbreviation for every day?
A) qid
B) qh
C) qs
D) qd
Q4) The study of drugs is known as
A) Pharmacy
B) Immunology
C) Pharmacology
D) Mycology
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Chapter 12: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The aVR, aVL, and aVF are known as the
A) Standard leads
B) Chest leads
C) Augmented leads
D) Bipolar leads
Q2) What is a cardiac cycle?
A) Contraction of the atria
B) One complete heartbeat
C) Relaxation of the entire heart
D) Contraction of the ventricles
Q3) Which of the following oxygen delivery systems separates oxygen from the air for use by the patient?
A) Compressed oxygen gas
B) Liquid oxygen
C) Oxygen concentrator
D) Oxygen compressor
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Chapter 13: Colon Procedures and Male Reproductive Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are risk factors for testicular cancer except
A) Family history of testicular cancer
B) Undescended testicles
C) Being an African American male
D) Cancer of the other testicle
Q2) A normal prostate gland feels
A) Lumpy
B) Firm
C) Soft
D) Hard
Q3) Which of the following tests may be performed if the fecal occult blood test result is positive?
A) MRI
B) Colonoscopy
C) Upper GI x-ray study
D) Colposcopy
E) All of the above
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient should be instructed not to move during the radiographic examination to prevent
A) Being exposed to an excessive amount of x-rays
B) Being burned by the x-rays
C) Blurring of the image on the film
D) Confusing shadows on the film
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of digital radiology?
A) Images can be taken and viewed immediately.
B) Images can be sent electronically to a network of computers.
C) The images can be saved on a CD or DVD.
D) Higher-quality images are produced.
E) All of the above
Q3) Why must gas be removed from the colon before a lower GI radiographic study?
A) It shows up as confusing shadows on the radiograph.
B) It obscures the image of the colon.
C) It makes the examination uncomfortable for the patient.
D) It results in blurring of the radiograph.
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Chapter 15: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a POL is performing moderate-complexity tests, CLIA requires
A) Proficiency testing three times per year
B) Calibration procedures at least every 6 months
C) Two levels of controls daily
D) A system to identify patient specimens throughout the testing process
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following occurs when the body is in homeostasis?
A) Laboratory test results are above the reference range.
B) An imbalance exists in the body.
C) Laboratory test results fall within the reference range.
D) Laboratory test results are invalid.
Q3) The purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) is to
A) Improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States
B) Prevent the exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens in the workplace
C) Ensure safety in the laboratory
D) Prevent errors in technique during laboratory testing
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17
Chapter 16: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Need to urinate often
A)Anuria
B)Diuresis
C)Dysuria
D)Frequency
E)Glycosuria
F)Hematuria
G)Micturition
H)Nocturia
I)Nocturnal enuresis
J)Oliguria
K)Polyuria
L)Pyuria
M)Retention
N)Urgency
O)Urinary incontinence
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18
Chapter 17: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following veins is most likely to collapse when performing a venipuncture?
A) Veins that roll
B) Scarred veins
C) Sclerosed veins
D) Small veins
Q2) When performing a capillary puncture, the finger should not be squeezed to avoid
A) Diluting the blood sample with tissue fluid
B) Excessive bleeding around the puncture site
C) Exposure of the medical assistant to bloodborne pathogens
D) Bruising of the patient's finger
Q3) Which of the following is the proper method for identifying a patient before performing a venipuncture?
A) State the patient's full name and DOB and ask the patient to verify this information.
B) Ask the patient to state his or her full name and date of last visit.
C) Ask the patient to state his or her full name and DOB.
D) Ask the patient for two forms of written identification.
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Chapter 18: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abnormally large
A)anis/o
B)chrom/o
C)cyt/o
D)hem/o
E)hypo-
F)leuk/o
G)-lysis
H)macr/o
I)micro-
J)-osis
K)-penia
L)phag/o
Q2) What is the normal range for a platelet count for an adult (in platelets per cubic millimeter of blood)?
A) 5000 to 10,000
B) 12 to 16
C) 180,000 to 300,000
D) 150,000 to 400,000
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are the blood antibodies located?
A) In the plasma
B) On the surface of white blood cells
C) In the cytoplasm of red blood cells
D) In the lymph system
Q2) Why is agglutination of blood a threat to life?
A) It leads to hemorrhaging.
B) It can lead to severe anemia.
C) The clumped red blood cells hemolyze.
D) It causes circulatory collapse to occur.
Q3) The function of LDL is to
A) Carry cholesterol to the cells
B) Transport fat-soluble vitamins in the blood
C) Remove cholesterol from the cells
D) Protect against coronary artery disease
Q4) The primary use of the cholesterol test is to
A) Study liver functioning
B) Screen for the presence of coronary artery disease
C) Study thyroid functioning
D) Diagnose a myocardial infarction
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Chapter 20: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Escherichia coli normally reside in the
A) Vagina
B) Urinary tract
C) Large intestine
D) Stomach
Q2) A disease that can be spread from one person to another is known as
A) An infectious disease
B) A contagious disease
C) An acute disease
D) Droplet infection
Q3) All of the following are natural defense mechanisms of the body except
A) Phagocytosis by white blood cells
B) The skin
C) Antibiotics
D) Antibodies
Q4) Which of the following parts of a microscope is used for precise focusing?
A) Iris diaphragm
B) Coarse adjustment
C) Substage condenser
D) Fine adjustment
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Chapter 21: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) With what type of bleeding is there is a slow and steady flow of blood that is dark red?
A) Capillary
B) Venous
C) Arterial
D) Profuse
Q2) All of the following are symptoms of hyperventilation except
A) Rapid and deep respirations
B) Palpitations
C) Abdominal pain
D) Tachycardia
E) Light-headedness
Q3) Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMD?
A) To answer emergency calls
B) To obtain needed information from a caller
C) To provide consent for treatment of a conscious patient
D) To send appropriate personnel and equipment
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Page 23