Medical Office Administration
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Office Administration provides a comprehensive overview of the administrative skills and knowledge required to efficiently manage the operations of a healthcare facility. This course covers topics such as patient scheduling, medical records management, insurance processing, billing and coding, confidentiality regulations (including HIPAA), communication with healthcare professionals and patients, and the use of electronic health record (EHR) systems. Students will gain practical experience in utilizing specialized software, handling medical documentation, and ensuring compliance with healthcare laws and ethical standards, preparing them for a variety of support roles in medical offices, clinics, and related healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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4027 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of stage 1 learners according to the learning style inventory?
A) Want to practice what you are learning
B) Learn best with hands-on practice
C) Like to create ways of thinking about the material
D) Comfortable watching rather than doing
E) Both A and B
Answer: D
Q2) Match active processors with all the appropriate applications. (Select all that apply.)
A) Spend time thinking and learning before acting
B) Think about the information before they internalize it
C) Jump in and start doing
D) Make sense of the new material by using it now
E) Observe and consider what is going on
F) Look for practical ways to apply the new material
G) Learn best with practice
Answer: C, D, F, G
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure was first performed by Dr. Christiaan Barnard?
A) Operation to save babies born with malformed hearts
B) Heart transplant from one human to another
C) Catheterization for diagnosis of heart disease
D) Injection of penicillin to cure infectious diseases
Answer: B
Q2) _____________ are important points or groups of statistical values that indicate the quality of care provided in a healthcare institution.
Answer: Indicators
Indicators deal with quality of care in a medical facility.
Q3) Quality refers only to whether the patient liked the food in a hospital or had to wait for a procedure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q4) ________________ was the founder of neonatology.
Answer: Dr. Virginia Apgar
Dr. Virginia Apgar founded neonatology.
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) __________ should be worn on the uniform when the medical assistant is working.
Answer: name tag
The medical assistant should wear a name tag on his or her uniform unless directed otherwise at an individual facility.
Q2) Employees should be aware of the attendance policies in their facility's policy and procedures manual.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q3) The mental and emotional condition, enthusiasm, loyalty, or confidence of an individual or group with regard to the function or tasks at hand is called
A) morale.
B) tenacity.
C) insubordination.
D) initiative.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) An innovative approach to plan, deliver, and evaluate healthcare that is grounded in mutually beneficial partnerships among healthcare providers, patients, and families is called _____________________.
Q2) Which of the following can be a channel in linear communication?
A) Spoken word
B) Written message
C) Body language
D) E-mail message
E) All of the above
Q3) Some stereotypes are unavoidable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The stage in Maslow's hierarchy of needs in which we maximize our potential is A) self-actualization.
B) esteem and recognition.
C) love and belonging.
D) safety and security.
Q5) Being in agreement or harmony or conforming to the circumstances or requirements of a situation is said to be ____________.
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) The finding or decision of a jury on a matter submitted to it in trial is called the
Q2) A major crime, such as rape, murder, or burglary, is classified as a(n)
A) felony.
B) misdemeanor.
C) violation.
D) act of treason.
Q3) An expert witness is prone to engage in lawsuits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not one of the four Ds of negligence?
A) Duty
B) Dereliction
C) Deposition
D) Damages
Q5) The improper performance of a lawful act is called
A) malfeasance.
B) misfeasance.
C) nonfeasance.
D) feasance.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The earliest written code of ethics was
A) the Oath of Hippocrates.
B) the AMA Code of Ethics.
C) the Code of Hammurabi.
D) Percival's Code of Medical Ethics.
Q2) Physicians are required to be familiar with the signs of physical, psychological, and sexual abuse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Refraining from the act of causing harm or committing evil is called
A) nonmaleficence.
B) beneficence.
C) duty.
D) fidelity.
Q4) The AMA's code of ethics specifically acknowledged which of the following as its foundation for the document?
A) The code of Hammurabi
B) Hippocrates statement of principles
C) Thomas Percivil's code of medical ethics
D) All of the above
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an output device?
A) Printer
B) Scanner
C) Light pen
D) Keyboard
Q2) What are used to help prevent access to private networks?
A) Network systems
B) Virus detectors
C) Scanners
D) Firewalls
Q3) Cipher text is another name for which of the following?
A) Decryption data
B) Encrypted data
C) Firewall
D) Audit trail
Q4) __________ was enacted partly to ensure that medical records would be kept private and confidential.
Q5) DVD stands for ________________________.
Q6) Encrypted data are called __________ text.
Q7) Generally, a business letter is __________ spaced. Page 9
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pleasing telephone voice is developed by using A) customer service.
B) a monotone.
C) clarity.
D) professional jargon.
Q2) Answering services can be used for which of the following?
A) Cover the telephone if all staff members need to be away at the same time
B) Buffer and screen after-hours calls
C) Act as the first point of contact with the practice
D) Take messages
E) Both A and B
Q3) The best policy for dealing with serious abnormal test results is to schedule a(n) _______________ for the patient.
Q4) A minimum of __________ items of information is needed to take a phone message correctly.
Q5) If a question arises as to how a task should be handled in the office, the medical assistant should consult the ___________________________.
Q6) Patients often call the office to find out whether the physician is a(n) __________ for their insurance program.
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant must take care not to offer medical advice to the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The patient should be given a(n) ___________ of times and dates when making a return appointment.
Q3) If a patient has been waiting longer than ________ minutes past his or her appointment time, the medical assistant should offer to reschedule the appointment.
A) 5
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30
Q4) The best practice is to place a patient's chart so that the name cannot be seen by those in the hallways of the physician's office.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If the medical assistant's desk is in open view of the patients, it should be free of
Page 12
Q6) Approaching a situation with caution is using _______________.
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) For equipment inventory, which of the following should be kept at a central location, available to all users?
A) Maintenance log
B) Service provider contact information
C) Warranty information
D) Operations manual
Q2) Inventory management involves tracking inventory and identifying the quantity of product to purchase. The goal of inventory management is to have adequate supplies on hand to use in the healthcare facility, yet not have too much stock that will expire or take a long time to use.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) The reorder point for an item is calculated based on A) the number used per day.
B) the number of days it takes to order and receive the product.
C) the number in current inventory.
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Page 13
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Usually, more staff members are needed when an office uses an EHR system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a paper record, which of the following is never an acceptable method of correction to a handwritten entry?
A) Draw a line through the error.
B) Erase or use a correction fluid.
C) Insert the correction above the error.
D) Write initials or signature below the correction and date.
E) All of the above are acceptable.
Q3) A provisional diagnosis is not a final diagnosis and usually is made before test results are received.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A filing system that uses a combination of letters and numbers is said to be __________.
Q5) The type of record created by an entity that is a single organization involved in the patient's care is an electronic __________ record.
Q6) To make greater, more numerous, larger, or more intense is to __________.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following codes will be used for a patient with a history of myocardial infarction with no symptoms but diagnosed by means of an electrocardiogram?
A) Category I21
B) Code I25.2
C) Code I21.3
D) None of the above
Q2) A code from category Z37 should be included on
A) every maternal record when a delivery has occurred.
B) subsequent records.
C) newborn records.
D) Both A and B
Q3) ______________ are notes included in the Tabular Index to provide additional guidance for selected diagnosis codes.
Q4) The abbreviation that is the equivalent of "unspecified" is __________.
Q5) The code HIV indicates which of the following?
A) The HIV virus is present
B) The manifestation of and/or symptoms that occur as a result of HIV infection
C) Probable case of HIV
D) Suspected case of HIV
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serum folic acid
A) 82735
B) 82760
C) 82746
D) 82803
Q2) Which of the following modifiers indicates a professional component and is used when a separate technician performs the service but the provider reviews the report and makes an accurate diagnosis?
A) -50
B) -62
C) -26
D) -RT, -LT
Q3) The place of service never changes for physician billing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Physical status modifier P4 is assigned to which of the following?
A) Patient with severe systemic disease
B) Patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
C) Moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the procedure
D) Declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following referrals can be approved online when it is submitted through the provider's Web portal to the utilization review department?
A) Regular referral
B) Urgent referral
C) STAT referral
D) All of the above
Q2) Dependents of military personnel are covered by which of the following government-sponsored health insurance plans?
A) Medicaid
B) Medicare
C) TRICARE
D) CHAMPVA
E) Workers' compensation
Q3) Under which of the following Medicare plans for primary care and specialists' services is the patient required to pay a monthly premium?
A) Part A
B) Part B
C) Part C
D) Part D
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Claims that are done by direct billing first go to a clearinghouse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Claims submitted to a(n) __________ are forwarded to individual insurance carriers.
Q3) How many diagnoses can be reported on the CMS-1500?
A) Two
B) Three C) Four D) Six
Q4) Patients sign an __________ of benefits form so that the physician will receive payment for services directly.
Q5) The medical assistant should do everything possible to prevent claim __________.
Q6) Electronic claims are submitted via electronic media.
A)True B)False
Q7) The federal tax identification number is found in block __________.
Q8) Dirty claims cannot be resubmitted.
A)True
B)False Page 18
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Page 19
Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When tracing "skips," which of the following is strictly forbidden by law?
A) Check the debtor's place of employment
B) Check the Internet to secure the names of neighbors or landlord
C) Communicate with a third party more than once
D) Call the telephone number listed in the patient account
Q2) Payments to the healthcare facility come as reimbursement from the insurance company only. Adjustments are made to a patient's account when it is necessary to add or subtract a patient payment from the balance.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) If not handled properly, which of the following can decrease what is owed to the provider erroneously?
A) Payments and adjustments
B) Credit balances and refunds
C) Charges
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) A record or notation of a transaction is called a(n) __________.
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following digits in an RTN represent the individual bank identification number?
A) First two digits
B) Third digit
C) Last six digits
D) All nine digits
Q2) An instrument that is legally transferable to another party is said to be
Q3) A plan in which payments are transferred, usually electronically, by a paying agency directly to the account of a recipient is called
A) disbursement.
B) direct deposit.
C) customer-oriented banking.
D) endorsement banking.
Q4) Bank statements should be checked immediately upon receipt and scanned carefully for errors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A person who writes a check is sometimes called the __________.
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following questions is legally allowed during an initial interview for employment as a medical assistant?
A) "When did you graduate from medical assisting school?"
B) "Are you married?"
C) "Do you plan to have children?"
D) "What church do you attend?"
Q2) The ________ is the Employee's Withholding Allowance Certificate.
Q3) All ____________ should be carefully checked before a new employee is hired.
Q4) Some managers assign a person to assist new employees during the initial probationary period; this person is called a
A) mentor.
B) supervisor.
C) co-worker.
D) subordinate.
Q5) Which subjects cannot be discussed in a job interview?
A) Religion
B) Work history
C) Previous terminations of employment
D) None of the above
Q6) No supervisor enjoys giving a(n) ____________ that is less than positive. Page 22
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Page 23
Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an effort is made to create or change an attitude, belief, or perception through purchased broadcast time or print space, the company is usually A) advertising.
B) conducting public relations.
C) performing public service.
D) None of the above
Q2) One of the most popular and beneficial resources available to patients is the provider's ________________.
Q3) The process involved in creating a unique name and image in the customer's mind mainly through advertising campaigns with a consistent theme is called
Q4) Patients should be treated the same way as the medical assistant would want to be treated.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most public relations strategies are expensive.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Patients expect to be treated according to the __________ rule.
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) __________ is a contaminated object, such as an improperly sterilized instrument, that causes the transmission of a disease.
Q2) A patient who is in remission has a disease but is not showing symptoms at the time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most pathogenic microorganisms prefer a neutral pH for optimum growth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following terms defines the destruction of disease-causing organisms after they leave the body?
A) Asepsis
B) Medical asepsis
C) Surgical asepsis
D) Compromised asepsis
Q5) Spore structures protect viral cells from immune system action.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the difference between cell-mediated and humoral immunity.
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the physical examination, the patient reports a continual ache in the right elbow. This information is called a(n)
A) functional problem.
B) objective finding.
C) sign.
D) symptom.
Q2) Issues of privacy are important to adolescent patients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Providing patients with automatic reassurance when they express a concern is part of a therapeutic relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is considered a safeguard mandated by HIPAA?
A) Passwords access to all electronic health records
B) Computer monitor shields
C) Turning monitors away from patient traffic areas
D) All of the above
Q5) Describe the organization of SOAPE notes.
Q6) Identify the legal and ethical issues associated with the medical record.
Page 26
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Material should be written in lay language at a(n) __________ grade level to promote general patient understanding.
Q2) Enabling the patient to gather as much information as possible about his or her disease is part of developing patient ownership of the health problem.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You are responsible for conducting a patient education intervention for a patient newly diagnosed with diabetes. What are some guidelines you should follow for patient teaching to be successful? Should you pay attention to any particular patient factors so that you design an education intervention that best meets the needs of the patient? Explain a minimum of four guidelines and four patient factors that can affect patient teaching.
Q4) Family members of an adult patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus do not need to be involved in patient education.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A helpful tool for testing patient understanding of material is to consistently ask for __________ throughout the intervention.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a complex carbohydrate?
A) Honey
B) Baked potato
C) Pasta
D) Apple
Q2) A diet high in which of the following food source has been found to increase serum triglyceride levels and blood pressure?
A) Saturated fats
B) Unsaturated fats
C) Sugars
D) Carbohydrates
Q3) Patients experiencing gastrointestinal symptoms that indicate a food-borne illness include all of the following except
A) a fever of 101.5° F or higher.
B) diarrhea lasting less than 24 hours.
C) prolonged vomiting.
D) signs of dehydration.
Q4) Describe situations in which supplements would be recommended.
Q5) Explain the recommendations for fat consumption.
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following assessments is NOT referred to as a cardinal sign?
A) Temperature
B) Pulse and respiration
C) Blood pressure
D) Height, weight, and BMI
Q2) Which of the following pulses is palpated on top of the foot?
A) Apical
B) Brachial
C) Pedal
D) Radial
E) Temporal
Q3) Which of the following respiration characteristics frequently occurs in patients with congestive heart failure and COPD?
A) Orthopnea
B) Wheezing
C) Hyperventilation
D) Hyperpnea
Q4) A patient who is __________ has an elevated body temperature.
Q5) A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has difficulty breathing, or
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The skin assists in regulating the temperature of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does the physician typically begin the examination of body parts and systems?
A) By assessing the body part causing the patient's complaint
B) By starting with the head and working methodically toward the feet
C) By auscultating breath and heart sounds
D) By performing a breast examination on female patients
Q3) Bending both the knees and the back is the best method of picking up a heavy object.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When preparing a patient for a physical examination, the medical assistant is responsible for all of the following except
A) providing the patient with a gown and instructions on how to wear it.
B) making sure the patient has emptied the bladder.
C) providing refill prescriptions as needed.
D) measuring and recording vital signs.
Q5) List and describe the four types of body tissue.
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In monitoring a patient for hypersensitivity to antibiotics, the medical assistant should observe for urticaria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A list of drugs compiled by a health insurance company that identifies the drugs the insurance company will cover under benefits is called a ________________.
Q3) The _________ name of a drug is its official name.
A) chemical
B) generic
C) trade
D) brand
Q4) Statins are classified as antitussives.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An example of a Schedule I drug is which of the following?
A) Morphine
B) Heroin
C) Demerol
D) Seconal
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) To convert a smaller unit of measurement to a larger one in the metric system, move the decimal point three places to the right.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many tablespoons equal 16 ounces?
A) 8 Tbsp
B) 32 Tbsp
C) 24 Tbsp
D) 12 Tbsp
Q3) The top number in a fraction is the __________.
Q4) What is the ratio for the decimal 0.20?
A) 2:4
B) 2:5
C) 1:5
D) 1:6
Q5) Convert the following improper fractions to whole number or decimal equivalents:
a. 12/7 = ________.
b. 18/9 = ________.
c. 4/3 = ________.
d. 5/2 = ________.
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is important to remember to massage the injection site carefully after administering insulin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dr. Thau writes an order for a Mantoux test. Which needle gauge should Dorothy use for this test?
A) 20 to 23
B) 25 or 26
C) 18 to 20
D) 27 or 28
Q3) __________ is an enlarged, hardened reaction produced by the Mantoux test.
Q4) Samantha Baxter has been prescribed progesterone transdermal patches for menopausal symptoms. Explain in detail the patient education Mrs. Baxter should receive so that she can administer her medication correctly.
Q5) The _________ of a needle is determined by the diameter of its lumen.
A) gauge
B) shaft
C) hub
D) bevel
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the freezing of tissue, which occurs when the skin temperature falls to a range of 14° to 25° F.
Q2) When CPR is administered, the ratio of compressions to breaths is
A) 15 to 1.
B) 10 to 2.
C) 29 to 2.
D) 15 to 2.
Q3) If a patient is bleeding profusely from a laceration on the arm, direct pressure should be applied to the radial artery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The wife of a patient with diabetes calls to report that her husband exercised strenuously this morning, and he now feels dizzy and is sweating profusely. What might be the problem?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Diabetic coma
D) Polydipsia
Q5) __________ are tears of the ligaments that support a joint.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) Clouding that develops in the lens of the eye is known as A) glaucoma.
B) a cataract.
C) ptosis.
D) a stye.
Q2) The medical term for a stye is hordeolum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following structures contains the auditory ossicles?
A) Auricle
B) External auditory canal
C) Tympanic cavity
D) Labyrinth
Q4) The medical term for swimmer's ear is otitis externa.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ in the inner ear are responsible for maintaining balance and equilibrium.
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Q6) __________ results in the loss of central vision and ultimately leads to blindness.
Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4226
Sample Questions
Q1) A freckle is called a
A) macule.
B) papule.
C) bulla.
D) pustule.
Q2) Which of the following is true about the Mohs technique?
A) It increases the possibility of keloid formation.
B) It is recommended for the removal of severe acne scars.
C) It uses photothermolysis to remove pigmented areas.
D) It is used to remove cancerous skin lesions layer by layer to minimize the chance of regrowth.
Q3) Streptococcal impetigo, if left untreated, may result in glomerulonephritis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement does not describe a result of a full-thickness burn?
A) Severe pain immediately after the injury
B) The need for skin grafting
C) The danger of infection
D) Damage to all skin layers
Q5) An increase in the number of healthy cells is called __________.
Page 36
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4227
Sample Questions
Q1) __________ occurs with an increased amount of pressure in the circulatory system.
Q2) Blood vessels that surround the villi of the small intestine carry absorbed materials through the portal circulation to which organ?
A) Heart
B) Kidneys
C) Brain
D) Liver
Q3) Helicobacter pylori infection has been discovered to be a possible cause of A) cold sores.
B) food poisoning.
C) colitis.
D) stomach ulcers.
Q4) Advanced cirrhosis of the liver can lead to portal hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Any disorder or enlargement of the lymph nodes is called __________.
Q6) Ascites is associated with patients who have chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4228
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of UTIs in women?
A) Streptococci
B) E. coli
C) Staphylococci
D) H. pylori
Q2) The primary predisposing factor for the development of testicular cancer is cryptorchidism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The __________ is the functional unit of the kidney.
Q4) Syphilis is easily treated in the early stages with penicillin G.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Urinary reflux disorder may be caused by
A) a problem with a ureteral valve.
B) neurologic damage to the bladder.
C) an obstruction that causes blockage.
D) All of the above
Q6) A complaint of pain on urination would be documented as ___________.
Q7) Explain the difference between renal hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4229
Sample Questions
Q1) Stage _____ is the stage of labor in which the cervix dilates.
A) I
B) II
C) III
Q2) Which of the following HPV vaccines also protects against genital warts and anal cancer in both females and males?
A) Cervarix
B) Gardasil
C) Gardasil 9
D) Both B and C
E) All of the above
Q3) Pain or cramps with menstruation is called
A) metrorrhagia.
B) menorrhagia.
C) amenorrhea.
D) dysmenorrhea.
Q4) Women using Depo-Provera injections for contraception are not at risk for blood clots and cardiovascular disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 39
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4230
Sample Questions
Q1) A child's head circumference should be measured to the closest _______ inch.
A) 1/8
B) 1/4
C) 1/2
D) 3/4
Q2) Children are considered overweight if the BMI for age is between the 85th and 94th percentiles; they are considered obese if the BMI is at or greater than the 95th percentile.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A varicella infection in pregnant women may cause stillbirth or birth defects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A newborn's respiratory rate should be around 20 breaths per minute.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Adolescents stop growing when the epiphyseal plates of the long bones are no longer active.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4231
Sample Questions
Q1) Application of heat to an injury site increases the rate of phagocytosis and promotes healing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The knee joint is categorized as having which type of movement?
A) Gliding
B) Ball-and-socket
C) Hinge
D) Freely moving
Q3) A patient with a nondisplaced fracture does not have to go through a reduction procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) __________ fracture in a young child is suggestive of a child abuse injury.
Q5) The _____________ is a nerve-rich membrane that covers the surface of a bone.
Q6) Rickets is an unusual diagnosis in the United States because
A) milk sold in the United States is fortified with vitamin K.
B) all children have adequate daily sun exposure.
C) vitamin D is available in drinking water.
Page 41
D) milk sold in the United States is fortified with vitamin D.
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4232
Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the sympathetic nervous system is to A) increase blood glucose levels and blood pressure.
B) reducing peristalsis.
C) cause bronchodilation.
D) All of the above
Q2) Which statement is true about hydrocephalus?
A) It can be diagnosed and treated in utero.
B) Enlargement of the infant's skull is limited, because the skull bones are fused at birth.
C) A shunt must be implanted surgically as soon as possible after birth.
D) Brain damage can be reversed if a shunt is placed surgically immediately after birth.
Q3) A serious concern for family members of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is
A) the patient may stop taking the medication when he or she starts feeling better.
B) all medications for the treatment of the condition cause serious side effects.
C) no effective medications exist for the management of this serious mental health disorder.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Byetta may be prescribed for people with diabetes type 2 to promote which of the following?
A) Lowering the blood glucose levels by increasing insulin secretion
B) Decreasing cellular resistance to insulin
C) Helping patients achieve modest weight loss
D) A and C
E) All of the above
Q2) The goal of diabetic management is to maintain normal blood glucose levels.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A disease that results in enlargement of the bones of the hands, feet, jaws, and cheeks is
A) acroarthritis.
B) acromegaly.
C) arthralgia.
D) gigantism.
Q4) Patients with diabetes frequently have __________, which means they are very thirsty.
Q5) __________ is released by the anterior pituitary and stimulates the production of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex.
43
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4234
Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure is classified as part of the upper respiratory tract?
A) Bronchi
B) Larynx
C) Lung
D) Trachea
Q2) A surgical procedure that creates an opening in the throat for breathing is called a(n) __________.
Q3) The CDC recommends that active pulmonary TB be treated with a single antibiotic for 6 months.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The signs and symptoms of sleep apnea include A) hypersomnia.
B) dry mouth or sore throat in the morning.
C) morning headache.
D) All of the above
Q5) Antibiotics are prescribed for URIs if there is evidence of a secondary bacterial infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4235
Sample Questions
Q1) Endocarditis can result in permanent damage to the mitral valve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient calls the physician's office reporting signs and symptoms of a possible MI. Identify three signs and symptoms that require activation of EMS.
Q3) What structure forms the first layer of the heart?
A) Parietal pericardium
B) Epicardium
C) Myocardium
D) Endocardium
Q4) What is the most common site for deep vein thrombosis?
A) Iliac vein
B) Femoral vein
C) Calf veins
D) Saphenous veins
Q5) Troponin levels remain elevated for an extended period, which makes them more useful for diagnosing an MI that occurred up to 2 weeks earlier.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4236
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of diabetes in the elderly?
A) Slow wound healing
B) Cough
C) Weight loss
D) Polyuria
Q2) List four risk factors that contribute to the development of osteoporosis.
Q3) Aging persons are more susceptible to heat stroke because
A) lack of exercise reduces heat loss through sweat.
B) the number of sweat glands decreases over time.
C) the blood supply to the dermis increases with aging.
D) All of the above
Q4) Older adults are at increased risk for toxic levels of medication in the bloodstream because of
A) kidneys requiring more water to excrete the same amount of waste.
B) malnutrition and diet influences.
C) increased prescription medications taken.
D) social and mental influences.
Q5) Grace Glasgow, an 86-year-old patient, has a combination of presbyopia and macular degeneration. How can the medical assistant help Miss Glasgow around the office?
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4237
Sample Questions
Q1) To check the standardization of the ECG machine, the medical assistant depresses the standardization button. The stylus should deflect how many millimeters?
A) 20
B) 5
C) 15
D) 10
Q2) Tachycardia is defined as
A) a faster than normal heart rate.
B) a condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing when lying down.
C) dizzy spells.
D) a condition in which the heartbeat is irregular.
Q3) The __________ control(s) the rate of heart contraction by initiating contractions 60 to 100 times a minute.
A) AV node
B) SA node
C) bundle of His
D) Purkinje fibers
Q4) A(n) __________ is an ectopic ventricular beat that occurs without a preceding P wave.
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4238
Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of scans do not provide clear images of anatomic structures but are used to obtain information about the function of organs and tissues?
A) MRIs
B) CT scans
C) Nuclear medicine scans
D) Sonograms
E) All of the above
Q2) ______________ is the direct observation of the x-ray image in motion.
A) CT scan
B) MRI
C) IVU
D) Fluoroscopy
Q3) Which statement is true of a UGI?
A) It is performed with an iodine contrast medium.
B) Patient prep includes the use of a cathartic.
C) It is a fluoroscopic examination.
D) It is an MRI procedure.
Q4) A(n) __________ is a moving grid device that prevents scatter radiation from fogging an x-ray film.
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4239
Sample Questions
Q1) A term used to describe a blood sample in which the red blood cells have ruptured is A) hematoma.
B) preservatives.
C) hemolyzed.
D) teratogen.
Q2) The shortest objective lens on the microscope has the lowest power (4*) and is called the scanning lens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ is the physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine.
Q4) The act passed by Congress to establish quality standards for all laboratory testing is referred to as A) FDA.
B) CDC.
C) CLIA.
D) MSDS.
Q5) __________ encompasses a comprehensive set of policies and procedures developed to ensure the reliability of laboratory results.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4240
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the many sugars that can be present in the urine, only glucose and galactose signify a pathologic condition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A small amount of which of the following is always present in normal urine?
A) Bilirubin
B) Glucose
C) Urobilinogen
D) Leukocyte esterase
Q3) The sugar most commonly found in urine is __________.
Q4) Casts in a urine specimen develop in what part of the urinary tract?
A) Urethra
B) Renal
C) Bladder
D) Ureters
Q5) A urine pregnancy test result is positive
A) only before implantation of the fertilized egg.
B) from fertilization through the first trimester.
C) from implantation of the fertilized egg through the first trimester.
D) from implantation of the fertilized egg through delivery.
Page 50
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4241
Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient faints while his or her blood is being drawn, the patient must remain in the facility for at least 15 minutes and should not operate a vehicle for at least 30 minutes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following Vacutainer tubes is routinely used for hematology testing?
A) Lavender topped
B) Red topped
C) Green topped
D) Light blue topped
Q3) If you are drawing blood on an elderly patient with a history of collapsed veins, you should try to collect the blood sample with a syringe.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) ____________ is a special laboratory filter paper that is used to collect a blood sample from newborns.
Q5) _______________ are used for small veins, such as those in the hand or in a pediatric patient.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Erythrocytes have a typical ________ shape because of
A) concave; the presence of oxygen
B) oval; their short life span
C) convex; adequate hemoglobin concentration
D) concave; their lack of a nucleus
Q2) Which of the following is an abnormal value for a differential?
A) 50% to 65% segmented neutrophils
B) 0% to 7% band neutrophils
C) 25% to 40% lymphocytes
D) 50% to 70% basophils
Q3) Which component of the complete blood count is not necessary to calculate the red cell indices?
A) Differential
B) Hemoglobin
C) Hematocrit
D) Erythrocyte count
Q4) A patient who has a slightly higher number of platelets is diagnosed with _______________.
Q5) ____________ cells, the most numerous types of agranular leukocytes, stimulate the activity of other T lymphocytes.
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4243
Sample Questions
Q1) A viral cell invades a host cell and uses its ______________, including carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins, to reproduce.
Q2) An organism that is unlikely to be transmitted by airborne droplets is
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B) Legionella pneumophila.
C) Neisseria meningitidis.
D) Treponema pallidum.
Q3) A gram-positive cell has a thick layer of peptidoglycan with no lipid layer surrounding it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The prefix staphylo- means that bacteria appear A) in coiled springs.
B) rod shaped.
C) in grapelike clusters.
D) in pairs.
Q5) Mycoplasmas have more PG in their cell walls than any other pathogen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sterile technique does not have to be followed in the preparation of a site for surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _________ refers to a body cavity or canal that is in its normal open position, such as the trachea remaining open during surgery.
Q3) Sterile ________ forceps are used to arrange items on a sterile tray.
Q4) Placenta forceps are used to remove tissue from the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Research indicates that chlorhexidine topical (Hibiclens), Triseptin, gluconate products (Triseptin or Hibiclens), and povidone-iodine (Betadine) are safe and effective antiseptics. Research also shows that the use of an alcohol-based hand rub is not as effective as an extensive surgical scrub done before sterile gloves are applied to limit bacterial contamination of the hands during a surgical procedure.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) __________ is early scar tissue formation that appears pale, contracted, and firm.
Q2) Outline the rules for setting up and maintaining a sterile field.
Q3) The medical assistant must never turn his or her back on a sterile field or wander away from it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ healing occurs with a clean surgical cut and wound edges that approximate.
Q5) Which of the following aseptic procedures is performed on blood pressure cuffs and stethoscopes after each use?
A) Sanitization
B) Disinfection
C) Sterilization
D) Either A or B
Q6) Sterile team members should always face one another.
A)True
B)False
Page 55
Q7) Very low temperatures are used in __________ to destroy tissue by freezing it on contact.
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4246
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best action to take if an employer asks you whether you are married?
A) Advise him or her that it is illegal to ask this question.
B) Ignore the question by pretending you did not hear it.
C) Politely ask the interviewer whether you can respond to questions that relate directly to the job.
D) Answer it truthfully, because you are required to do so.
Q2) Which of the following sources can be used to support claims of an individual's characteristics?
A) Past job reviews
B) Practicum evaluations
C) Words in résumé or cover letter
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) A new employee may arrive late to work as long as it happens no more than twice a month.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Never list salary __________ on the résumé.
Q5) Pay particular attention to all __________ of appearance when preparing for the job interview.
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