Medical Office Administration Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Medical Office Administration is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the essential skills and knowledge required for efficient management of healthcare office environments. The course covers a wide range of topics, including medical terminology, patient scheduling, billing and coding, electronic health records, insurance processing, and effective communication with both healthcare professionals and patients. Students will also learn about regulatory compliance, privacy laws such as HIPAA, and best practices for maintaining accurate and confidential medical records. Through practical exercises and real-world scenarios, learners gain the organizational, technical, and interpersonal skills necessary to support the smooth operation of medical offices, clinics, and healthcare facilities.
Recommended Textbook
Todays Medical Assistant Clinical and Administrative Procedures 2nd Edition by
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50 Chapters
3010 Verified Questions
3010 Flashcards
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Kathy Bonewit
Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78954
Sample Questions
Q1) Pediatrics
A)Branch of medical practice that seeks to balance the structure and function of the body through manipulation of muscles and joints; given all privileges of those with MD degrees
B)Specializes in conditions of the skin
C)Provides anesthesia during surgery and other procedures
D)Utilizes manipulations to treat spinal subluxations, affecting the spine and related neural structures
E)Provides general medical care of children and adolescents
F)Treats those with allergies and problems of the immune system
G)Treat disorders of the feet and ankles
H)Specializes in the care of the ear, nose, and throat
I)Treats adults and children for routine care and complaints
J)Treatment of the internal organs of adults by other than surgical means
K)Performs surgical treatment of the large intestine and rectum
L)Specializes in surgical care of bone and joint injuries and disorders
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: The Professional Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be included in risk management?
A) Documenting all patient payments
B) Ordering both administrative and clinical supplies
C) Maintaining proper infection control measures
D) Keeping accurate personnel records
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following changes in medical care encouraged the development of medical assisting as a profession?
A) Physicians made more house calls.
B) Medical offices had to submit insurance forms for patients covered by government insurance plans.
C) Patients were given specific appointment times instead of just coming at any time.
D) Patients were sent to the hospital for diagnostic testing.
Answer: B
Q3) Maintaining confidentiality is part of a medical assistant's ethical responsibilities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Ethics and Law for the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most individual states have passed legislation defining a Patient Bill of Rights, based on the federal Consumer Bill of Rights and Responsibilities adopted in 1998. Which of the following is NOT considered a component of patient rights?
A) Right to refuse treatment
B) Right to continuity of care
C) Right to compensation in cases of malpractice
D) Right to select a physician
Answer: C
Q2) To what agency should employees complain if they feel that they have been discriminated against in their hiring, firing, or employment?
A) Equal Opportunity Employment Agency
B) Civil Rights Act of 1964
C) Federal Discrimination Act
D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
Answer: A
Q3) In order to be legal, a contract must be written, signed, and notarized.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Interacting With Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best response when dealing with an angry patient is to escort them out of the office and reschedule their appointment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the United States, the typical personal distance or comfort zone for conversation with others is
A) 3-4 feet
B) 1-2 feet
C) 6-7 feet
D) While touching
Q3) During the interview, the medical assistant questions the patient as follows: "Describe your pain for me. What has been going on with you since you were last here? How has your appetite been? How have you been sleeping?" What are these examples of?
A) Closed questions
B) Being nosy
C) Being judgmental
D) Open questions
Q4) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q5) Recognize communication barriers
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following allows the knee to move freely by providing lubrication and reducing friction?
A) Synovial membrane
B) Serous fluid
C) Synovial fluid
D) Mucus
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of adipose tissue?
A) Forms a protective cushion around the kidneys
B) Protects the body from invasion by pathogens
C) Insulates the body
D) Provides a storage material for energy
Q3) Which of the following structures converts energy from nutrients into ATP that then provides energy for use by the body cells?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) ATP
C) Ribosomes
D) Mitochondria
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Identify body systems
Q6) Describe the normal function of each body system
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The papillae of the dermis are responsible for
A) Waterproofing the skin
B) Skin color
C) Fingerprints and footprints
D) Freckles
Q2) What happens when the arrector pili muscles contract?
A) Shivering
B) Sneezing
C) Peristalsis
D) Goose bumps
Q3) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q6) The outermost covering of the hair is known as the
A) Cortex
B) Cuticle
C) Medulla
D) Papilla
Q7) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
Q8) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of the skeletal system?
A) Bones
B) Cartilage
C) Nails
D) Ligaments
Q2) The malleus, incus, and stapes make up the
A) Lacrimal bones
B) Auditory ossicles
C) Nasal septum
D) Orbit of the eye
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Which of the following joints has the widest range of movement?
A) Condyloid
B) Pivot
C) Hinge
D) Ball and socket
Q5) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q7) List major organs in each body system
Q8) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 8: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q2) What causes anaerobic respiration to occur?
A) Buildup of creatine phosphate
B) Lack of carbon dioxide
C) Lack of oxygen
D) Contraction of the diaphragm
Q3) Medical Terminology
Q4) Which of the following muscles is responsible for closing the mouth during chewing?
A) Masseter
B) Zygomaticus
C) Buccinator
D) Mastoid
Q5) The energy source for muscle contractions is
A) Creatine
B) ATP
C) Calcium
D) Glycogen
Q6) Identify body systems
Q7) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 9: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures does NOT make up the brain stem?
A) Pons
B) Medulla
C) Diencephalon
D) Midbrain
Q2) Identify body systems
Q3) What is the function of the peripheral nervous system?
A) Provides centers for sight, smell, and hearing
B) Regulates emotional responses
C) Forms conduction tracts between the higher brain centers and spinal cord
D) Provides a communication network between the central nervous system and the body
Q4) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q5) What makes up a neuron?
A) Neuroglia
B) Axon and dendrites
C) Cell body, dendrites, and axon
D) Schwann cells
Q6) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q7) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 10: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of cones?
A) Provide sharp images and fine detail
B) Are located primarily in the fovea centralis
C) Are much more numerous than rods
D) Contain the receptors for color vision
Q2) Which of the following allows the eye to adapt to dim light?
A) Vitreous humor
B) Rhodopsin
C) Accommodation
D) Aqueous humor
Q3) What region of the retina produces the sharpest image?
A) Fovea centralis
B) Optic disc
C) Optic nerve
D) Ciliary body
Q4) What type of senses have receptors that are localized in a particular area?
A) General senses
B) Special senses
C) Nonsenses
D) Diverse senses
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) -crine
A)to secrete
B)in, within C)nerve
D)to grow
E)hormone
F)gland
G)beneath, below
H)out, away from
Q2) What condition results when there is not enough antidiuretic hormone secreted by the body?
A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Osteoporosis
D) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) A commercial preparation of oxytocin is
A) Synthyroid
B) Pitocin
C) Calcium
D) Adrenalin
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Chapter 12: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thrombocytes develop from large cells known as A) Macrophages
B) Megakaryocytes
C) Fibroblasts
D) Osteoblasts
Q2) How much blood is in the body of an adult male?
A) 2-3 liters
B) 4-5 liters
C) 5-6 liters
D) 10-12 liters
Q3) What percentage of the blood is made up of plasma?
A) 35%
B) 45%
C) 55%
D) 65%
Q4) What causes the "lubb" heart sound?
A) Opening of the atrioventricular valves
B) Opening of the semilunar valves
C) Closing of the atrioventricular valves
D) Closing of the semilunar valves
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nasal conchae
A)Air-filled cavities that reduce the weight of the skull
B)Bony ridges that project into the nasal cavity
C)Interior chamber of the nose
D)Divides the nose into two parts
E)Opening through which air enters the nasal cavity
F)Openings from the nasal cavity into the pharynx
G)Separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity
H)Posterior portion of the soft palate that helps direct food into the oropharynx
Q2) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
Q3) What is pulmonary ventilation?
A) Removing carbon dioxide from the lungs
B) Yawning
C) Breathing
D) The exchange of oxygen between the blood and tissues
Q4) How does an increase in body temperature affect the respiratory rate?
A) Decreases it
B) Increases it
C) Has no effect
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Chapter 14: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Gastrin
C) Presence of fat in the stomach
D) Secretin
Q2) Which of the following makes up the digestive tract?
A) Mouth and pharynx
B) Esophagus
C) Stomach
D) Intestines
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following emulsifies fat into small fat droplets?
A) Amylase
B) Cholesterol
C) Lipase
D) Bile salts
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the act of expelling urine?
A) Mensuration
B) Excretion
C) Peristalsis
D) Micturition
Q2) Which of the following is a hormone secreted by the adrenal gland that increases reabsorption of sodium and reduces urine output?
A) Atrial natriuretic hormone
B) Aldosterone
C) Erythropoietin
D) ACTH
Q3) Urine is expelled from the urinary bladder through contraction of the A) Detrusor muscle
B) External abdominal muscles
C) Buccinator muscle
D) Rectus abdominis muscles
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the male urethra extends the length of the penis?
A) Prostatic urethra
B) Membranous urethra
C) Spongy urethra
D) Urethral orifice
Q2) The process of egg formation is known as
A) Menstruation
B) Oogenesis
C) Hemopoiesis
D) Oogonia
Q3) Which of the following is a function of follicle-stimulating hormone in the female?
A) Stimulates development of the corpus luteum
B) Responsible for secondary sex characteristics in the female
C) Stimulates the hypothalamus to secrete gonadotropin-releasing hormone
D) Stimulates growth of ovarian follicles
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18
Chapter 17: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) The optimal growth temperature is
A) 98.6 °F, or body temperature
B) The temperature at which a microorganism grows best
C) Room temperature
D) The temperature that kills pathogens
Q2) How often does OSHA require employers to review and update their Exposure Control Plan?
A) Every 6 months
B) Once each year
C) Every 2 years
D) Only when a new procedure is instituted
Q3) Which of the following is an example of personal protective equipment?
A) Clean disposable gloves
B) Biohazard sharps container
C) Scrubs
D) Prescription eyeglasses
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Chapter 18: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of water should be used in the autoclave?
A) Salt water
B) Tap water
C) Distilled water
D) Mineral water
Q2) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q3) Discuss all levels of governmental legislation and regulation as they apply to medical assisting practice, including FDA and DEA regulations
Q4) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding cold sterilization with a chemical agent?
A) The chemical must be designated as a sterilant by the EPA.
B) Items must be submerged in the chemical for 6-24 hours.
C) Each time a new item is added to the chemical, the clock must be reset for the entire amount of time.
D) It is the preferred method for sterilizing instruments with sharp cutting edges.
Q5) Discuss infection control procedures
Q6) Identify safety signs, symbols, and labels
Q7) Discuss requirements for responding to hazardous material disposal
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Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A temperature of 100 °F is classified as
A) Normal
B) Hyperpyrexia
C) Hypothermia
D) Low-grade fever
Q2) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q3) If an axillary temperature of 100 °F was taken orally, it would register as
A) 98 °F
B) 99 °F
C) 100 °F
D) 101 °F
Q4) A rectal thermometer must be lubricated before insertion to prevent
A) The transfer of pathogens
B) An inaccurate temperature reading
C) The thermometer from breaking
D) Irritation of the rectal mucosa
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q7) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q8) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 20: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hearing
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
Q2) What is the reason for weighing a child?
A) To observe the pattern of growth
B) To determine medication dosage
C) To identify nutritional problems
D) All of the above
Q3) The patient's height should be measured to the nearest
A) (<sup>1</sup>/<sub>8</sub> inch)
B) ¼ inch
C) ½ inch
D) 1 inch
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Chapter 21: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anatomy and Physiology
Q2) A person who cannot see objects at a distance has a condition known as
A) Hyperopia
B) Presbyopia
C) Myopia
D) Amblyopia
Q3) Identify body systems
Q4) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q5) When performing an eye irrigation, the solution should be released
A) At the outer canthus
B) Toward the upper eyelid
C) Directly onto the cornea
D) At the inner canthus
Q6) Which of the following can result in conductive hearing loss?
A) Serous otitis media
B) Ototoxicity
C) Old age
D) Pierced ears
Q7) Identify both abbreviations and symbols used in calculating medication dosages
Q8) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
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Chapter 22: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three-point gait is used for which of the following conditions?
A) Leg fracture
B) Muscular dystrophy
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Paraplegia
Q2) Anatomy and Physiology
Q3) What is the definition of the term ambulation?
A) Being confined to bed
B) The inability to walk
C) The ability to walk
D) Poor muscular coordination and balance
Q4) Which of the following factors is taken into consideration before an ambulatory assistive device is prescribed?
A) The age of the patient
B) The patient's muscular coordination
C) The type of disability
D) The amount of support required
E) All of the above
Q5) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Chapter 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gonorrhea test
A)To detect the presence of anemia
B)To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth
C)To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities
D)Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential
E)To detect the presence of syphilis
F)To assess the antibody level present against rubella
G)To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus
H)To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies
Q2) The function of a vaginal speculum is to
A) Magnify the cervix
B) Hold the walls of the vagina apart
C) Aspirate secretions from the uterus
D) Lubricate the vaginal wall
Q3) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q4) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is length measured?
A) The child lies in a supine position.
B) The child stands with his or her back to the measuring device.
C) The child sits in a chair with both feet flat on the floor.
D) The child lies in a prone position.
Q2) If PKU is left untreated, it can lead to
A) Malnutrition
B) Mental retardation
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Spinal curvature
Q3) What immunizations are included in an MMR injection?
A) Meningitis, mumps, rubella
B) Measles, mumps, rubella
C) Measles, mumps, chickenpox
D) Measles, hepatitis, rubella
Q4) Which of the following items of information is NOT included in a VIS?
A) Benefits and risks of the immunization
B) Publication date of the VIS
C) Reporting an adverse reaction
D) Lot number of the vaccine
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Chapter 25: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an abscess?
A) A localized staphylococcal infection that originates within a hair follicle
B) Inflammation of the subcutaneous tissue
C) A collection of pus in a cavity surrounded by inflamed tissue
D) Inflammation of a sweat gland
Q2) Which of the following requires the use of surgical asepsis?
A) Application of a bandage
B) Measurement of blood pressure
C) Insertion of sutures
D) Collection of a Pap specimen
E) All of the above
Q3) What is the name given to the type of sutures that are gradually digested by the body?
A) Absorbable sutures
B) Silk sutures
C) Nonabsorbable sutures
D) Swaged sutures
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q6) Discuss infection control procedures
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q2) Bone resorption inhibitor
A)Used to manage high blood pressure
B)Increases strength and force of myocardial contractions and slows heart rate
C)Suppresses inflammation and modifies normal immune response
D)Neutralizes gastric acid to relieve gastric pain and irritation
E)Removes excess fluid from the body by increasing urine output
F)Relieves symptoms of osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
G)Used to prevent or relieve coughs
H)Promotes clearance of mucus from respiratory tract
I)Kills or inhibits growth of bacteria
J)Used to relieve constipation
K)Used to lower cholesterol
L)Used to treat and prevent osteoporosis
M)Promotes sleep by CNS depression
N)Used to manage moderate-to-severe pain
O)Inhibits ovulation
P)Relieves symptoms associated with allergies
Q3) Identify the classifications of medications, including desired effects, side effects, and adverse reactions
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are artifacts?
A) The marking code recorded by the ECG to indicate which lead is being run
B) Additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph
C) A type of standardization mark
D) Rare objects uncovered in ancient Peru
Q2) Which of the following may occur when the body cannot maintain an adequate oxygen level?
A) Death of cells
B) Organ failure
C) Body system failure
D) Death
E) All of the above
Q3) Holter monitor electrocardiography is used to
A) Assess the rate and rhythm of the heart during daily activities
B) Evaluate patients with unexplained chest pain
C) Detect cardiac dysrhythmias that are intermittent in nature
D) Assess the effectiveness of a pacemaker
E) All of the above
Q4) List major organs in each body system
Q5) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
29
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Chapter 28: Specialty Examinations and Procedures:
Procedures, Male Reproductive Health, and Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sigmoid colon
A)-ase
B)bi/o
C)colon/o
D)endoE)-opsy
F)ox/i
G)-scope
H)-scopy
I)sigmoid/o
Q2) A normal prostate gland feels
A) Lumpy
B) Firm
C) Soft
D) Hard
Q3) Why must the patient consume a high-fiber diet before guaiac slide testing?
A) To prevent a false-negative test result
B) To prevent gastrointestinal irritation
C) To encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions
D) To prevent a false-positive test result Page 30
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Chapter 29: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) A small sample taken from the body to represent the nature of the whole is known as a
A) Laboratory test
B) Culture
C) Specimen
D) Biopsy
Q2) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q3) Which of the following occurs when the body is in homeostasis?
A) Laboratory test results are above the reference range.
B) An imbalance exists in the body.
C) Laboratory test results fall within the reference range.
D) Laboratory test results are invalid.
Q4) Which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions?
A) Disposing of broken glassware in a puncture-resistant container
B) Talking in the laboratory
C) Opening a centrifuge before it comes to a complete stop
D) Recapping reagent bottles immediately after use
Q5) Medical Law and Ethics
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q7) Organize technical information and summaries
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Chapter 30: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, a front-to-back motion is used to cleanse the urinary meatus to
A) Avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region into the area being cleansed
B) Avoid contaminating the distal urethra
C) Prevent patient discomfort during the cleansing process
D) Prevent the cleaning solution from irritating the urinary meatus
Q2) What is the term for the presence of ketone bodies in the urine?
A) Acidosis
B) Alimentary glycosuria
C) Ketosis
D) Ketonuria
Q3) Which of the following urine tests may be positive when a patient has hepatitis?
A) Glucose
B) Protein
C) Bilirubin
D) Ketone bodies
Q4) Describe structural organization of the human body
Q5) Identify body systems
Q6) Describe the normal function of each body system
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Against
A)ante-
B)anti-
C)chondr/o
D)hemat/o
E)-itis
F)lysis
G)myel/o
H)-oma
I)oste/o
J)-otomy
K)-ous
L)phleb/o
M)stasis
Q2) An evacuated tube with a lavender stopper contains
A) Heparin
B) EDTA
C) Nothing
D) Potassium oxalate
E) Sodium citrate
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Chapter 32: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood
A) an-
B) -emia
C) cyt/o
D) hemat/o
E) anti-
F) leuk/o
G) -coagulant
H) -ology
I) poly-
J) -osis
K) -penia
Q2) Analyze charts, graphs, and/or tables in the interpretation of health care results
Q3) Which of the following tests is NOT included in a CBC?
A) Differential white blood cell count
B) Hemoglobin
C) Hematocrit
D) Prothrombin time
E) Red and white blood cell counts
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Chapter 33: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a risk factor for coronary artery disease?
A) LDL cholesterol level of 90 mg/dL
B) HDL cholesterol level of 25 mg/dL
C) Triglyceride level of 140 mg/dL
D) Low blood pressure
Q2) What is the term for glucose that is stored in muscle and liver tissue for later use?
A) Glucagon
B) Carbohydrate
C) Glycogen
D) Lipoprotein
Q3) What type of specimen is required for most blood chemistry tests?
A) Plasma
B) Serum
C) Whole blood
D) Clotted blood
Q4) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q5) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q6) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
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Chapter 34: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following parts of a microscope is used for precise focusing?
A) Iris diaphragm
B) Coarse adjustment
C) Substage condenser
D) Fine adjustment
Q2) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q3) List major types of infectious agents
Q4) A specimen taken for microbiologic examination must not become contaminated with extraneous microorganisms, because the extraneous microorganisms may
A) Change the pH of the specimen
B) Alter the morphology of the pathogens
C) Prevent visualization of the pathogen
D) Result in the death of any pathogens present
Q5) Escherichia coli normally reside in the
A) Vagina
B) Urinary tract
C) Large intestine
D) Stomach
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
Q7) Medical Laboratory Procedures
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Chapter 35: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of an ingested poison?
A) Carbon monoxide
B) Fertilizers
C) Insect stings
D) Aspirin overdose
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilation?
A) Rapid and deep respirations
B) Palpitations
C) Abdominal pain
D) Tachycardia
E) Light-headedness
Q3) A severe form of diabetes that usually appears in childhood is known as
A) Type 1 diabetes
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Type 2 diabetes
D) Gestational diabetes
Q4) Anatomy and Physiology
Q5) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q6) Describe basic principles of first aid
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Chapter 36: The Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following helps a patient with a disability learn new skills to perform the activities of daily living?
A) Speech therapy
B) Occupational therapy
C) Physical therapy
D) Dietitian
Q2) What term is used to describe a patient who has been admitted to the hospital for at least one overnight stay?
A) Outpatient
B) Ambulatory patient
C) Guest
D) Inpatient
Q3) A review of the health status of blood relatives is known as
A) Family history
B) Review of systems
C) Genetic review
D) Chronological history
Q4) Organize technical information and summaries
Q5) Describe the implications of HIPAA for the medical assistant in various medical settings
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Chapter 37: Patient Reception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q2) Discuss quality control issues related to handling microbiological specimens
Q3) When is the patient placed in an examination room?
A) Immediately after entering the waiting room
B) After the patient's name and date of birth has been verified
C) After all front office paperwork has been completed
D) Before the patient has completed signing the necessary authorization forms
Q4) Identify techniques for overcoming communication barriers
Q5) Written referrals usually state which of the following items?
A) How many visits are allowed
B) The problem for which the patient is being referred
C) The name of the physician who is making the referral
D) The name of the physician to whom the patient is being referred
E) All of the above
Q6) Who is responsible for filling out the charge slip identifying the charges for which the patient will be billed?
A) Physician
B) Medical assistant
C) Billing specialist
D) Office manager
40
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Chapter 38: Medical Office Computerization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be performed by database management software?
A) Generation of financial reports
B) Design of patient education brochures
C) Electronic submission of insurance claims
D) Storage and retrieval of information
Q2) An electronic medical record prescription program can send a prescription to the pharmacy using
A) E-fax or e-prescribing
B) FedEx
C) U.S. postal services
D) Telephone
Q3) Which of the following can be performed by an electronic medical record program?
A) Creation of a medical record
B) Storage of a medical record
C) Editing of a medical record
D) Retrieval of a medical record
E) All of the above
Q4) The LCD monitor should be cleaned with glass cleaner on a regular basis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the medical assistant determine before placing a call for a physician?
A) If the physician already knows the party being called
B) If the physician will be ready to talk as soon as the call has been completed
C) If the call is local or long distance
D) If the caller is expecting the call
Q2) Which of the following calls is put through immediately to the doctor, even if the doctor is with a patient?
A) A laboratory reporting negative results
B) Another doctor to whom a referral was made
C) An angry patient who insists on speaking to the doctor
D) A caller who says that she will only speak with the physician
Q3) If the medical answers a telephone call, and the caller seems confused, the medical assistant should just take a message for the physician.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the role of assertiveness in effective professional communication
Q5) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q6) Identify time management principles
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Chapter 40: Scheduling Appointments
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Sample Questions
Q1) If patients must fast for laboratory tests, what special scheduling requirements should be initiated?
A) Schedule the patient for the laboratory test at least one week before an appointment with the physician.
B) Schedule the patient early in the morning if possible.
C) Instruct the patient to arrive for the laboratory test with a full bladder.
D) The patient can be scheduled at any time of day that is convenient.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a physician preference or need that may affect the appointment schedule?
A) The time of day a physician prefers to do certain types of examinations
B) Other obligations such as hospital rounds or nursing home visits
C) Attendance at conferences and meetings
D) The number of satellite offices affiliated with the medical practice
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of patient self-scheduling?
A) Patients can often select their desired time if it is available.
B) Patients always receive the appointment time they request.
C) Patients can be notified of appointment times electronically or by letter.
D) Patients do not need to place a telephone call to the office to schedule an appointment.
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Chapter 41: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) If paper medical records are stored in file cabinets, it is more common to use lateral drawer file cabinets than vertical drawer file cabinets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Electronic medical record systems in one medical office will be able to share information with all other electronic medical record systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Medical Law and Ethics
Q4) Discuss principles of using Electronic Medical Record (EMR)
Q5) Which of the following are true about both paper medical records and electronic medical records?
A) They provide for continuity of care.
B) They provide an ongoing record of the patient's state of health.
C) They are legal documents if there is a question about care given.
D) They usually include information form more than one source.
E) All of the above.
Q6) Discuss pros and cons of various filing methods
Q7) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
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Chapter 42: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct way for the medical assistant to begin a letter from Dr. Taylor to Samuel Matthews, M.D.?
A) Dear Sam,
B) Dear Dr. Matthews:
C) Dear Samuel Matthews:
D) Dear Samuel Matthews, M.D.:
Q2) What part of a letter will contain the date line?
A) Body
B) Closing
C) Heading
D) End notations
Q3) When the medical assistant answers an e-mail, why is it customary to create the answer as a reply?
A) To save time
B) To acknowledge receipt of the first e-mail
C) To answer the e-mail in the most efficient way
D) To allow the recipient to read previous correspondence
Q4) A period is placed after each line in the inside address of a business letter.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Mail
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information is included on the delivery address line of an address?
A) The city, state, and ZIP code
B) The apartment number or suite number
C) The street address, post office box, or rural route number
D) The name of the individual in a company who should receive the letter
Q2) A patient statement to be placed in a window envelope will be folded in exactly the same manner as a letter to be placed in a #10 envelope.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What class of mail will cost least if the medical office must mail two DVDs?
A) Parcel Post
B) Media Mail
C) First-Class Mail
D) Bound printed matter
Q4) Medical offices usually add barcodes to letters and presort mail in order to receive lower postage rates.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Basic Keyboarding/Computer Concepts
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Chapter 44: Managing Practice Finances
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do money market accounts compare with checking accounts?
A) They usually pay a lower rate of interest
B) Checks must usually be written for a higher minimum amount
C) Money market accounts usually do not require a minimum balance
D) Neither type of account limits the number of checks that can be written each month
Q2) In bookkeeping, what is an example of a credit?
A) A patient is charged for an office visit.
B) A patient's bill is sent to the insurance company.
C) A patient is given a discount for paying in full at the time of the visit.
D) The amount of a check is returned by the bank due to insufficient funds and is added to a patient's account.
Q3) Compare types of endorsements
Q4) When can a signature stamp be used to endorse a check?
A) Never
B) When the check will be deposited
C) When the words Pay to the order of appear above the endorsement
D) When the check will be cashed by the individual whose signature is on the stamp
Q5) Differentiate between bookkeeping and accounting
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Chapter 45: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The section of the CPT manual that contains the most codes is the Evaluation and Management section.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What would be added to a code for a procedure that was extensive or unusual or that required an assistant?
A) A two-digit modifier
B) A two-letter modifier
C) A three-digit modifier
D) A three-letter modifier
Q3) What is the penalty (if any) if a medical office is found to have a practice of upcoding?
A) No penalty is leveed.
B) The practice must pay a large fine.
C) Claims in question are simply not paid.
D) Billing personnel may be given a jail sentence.
Q4) Category II CPT codes represent services that represent emerging technology.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how to use the most current procedural coding system
Page 48
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Chapter 46: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A doctor who participates in Medicare performs a service for which he or she ordinarily charges $350. How much should the physician charge Medicare?
A) $350
B) $280
C) $250
D) $0
Q2) In which of the following cases is a referral is required by most managed care organizations?
A) Hospitalization
B) Consultation by a specialist
C) Surgery to remove a tumor
D) Certain diagnostic tests, such as an MRI
Q3) What insurance plan provides care for low-income individuals and children?
A) Medicare
B) Medicaid
C) TRICARE
D) CHAMPVA
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Chapter 47: Billing and Collections
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient's account is turned over to a collection agency, and the patient is given a reasonable period of time to find another physician, how should the letter be mailed?
A) First Class
B) Registered Mail
C) Certified Mail with Return Receipt
D) First Class and insured for $100.00
Q2) When the medical office is trying to locate a patient who has "skipped" with a large balance due, what should the medical assistant do?
A) Try to call the patient.
B) Try to send a letter by Certified Mail to the last known address.
C) Try to see if the patient has a new telephone number by calling information.
D) Call the person who is listed on the patient information form as the next of kin.
E) All of the above.
Q3) For which of the following do banks usually NOT charge an extra fee?
A) Not sufficient check (NSF check)
B) Use of overdraft protection
C) Stopping payment on a check
D) A refund check written to a patient
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Chapter 48: The Medical Assistant As Office Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) An incident report should always include names and identifying information for any witness to the incident that is described in the report
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where should cleaning supplies and chemical solutions to clean the examination rooms be kept?
A) In the examination room, under the counter
B) In a central area used to store all cleaning materials
C) In the medical assistant's work area
D) In the office manager's desk
Q3) Which doors in the office will an individual most likely have to lock in addition to the main office doors?
A) Treatment rooms
B) Medical laboratory
C) Examination rooms
D) Medical assistant work area
E) All of the above
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Chapter 49: Emergency Protective Practices for the Medical Office
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Q1) Which of the following symptoms may occur following a disaster or serious emergency?
A) Irritability
B) Nightmares
C) Fatigue
D) Depression
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following agencies coordinates a response to any disaster that overwhelms the resources of state and local authorities?
A) FEMA
B) American Red Cross
C) National Guard
D) Alcoholics Anonymous
Q3) Which of the following need NOT be included in an Emergency Action Plan training session?
A) Fire hazards of office materials and processes
B) Evacuation plan
C) Regulated medical waste disposal
D) Alarm systems
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Chapter 50: Obtaining Employment
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a section of the résumé is titled Work Experience, which of the following previous experience can be included?
A) Years as a homemaker
B) Volunteer experience at a local hospital
C) Employment as a cashier at a supermarket
D) Medical assisting externship in an accredited medical assisting program
E) All of the above
Q2) Jean would like to work at the medical facility where she is doing her practicum. Which action is most likely to lead to the offer of a permanent position?
A) Talking with her practicum coordinator
B) Letting the people in the department know how she feels
C) Talking with the people in the facility's human resources department
D) Trying to do everything she sees, even if she is not sure of the procedure
Q3) On a chronological résumé, a potential employer will assume that any gaps in employment for a woman can be attributed to staying home and raising children.
A)True
B)False
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