Medical Nutrition Therapy
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Nutrition Therapy focuses on the use of evidence-based dietary interventions to prevent, manage, and treat various health conditions and diseases. The course explores the physiological basis of nutrition-related disorders, assessment of nutritional status, and development of individualized nutrition care plans. Students will learn to apply nutritional science in the clinical setting, working with populations affected by diabetes, cardiovascular disease, gastrointestinal disorders, renal disease, pediatric conditions, and other metabolic disorders. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, case studies, patient counseling techniques, and interdisciplinary collaboration to optimize patient outcomes and promote overall wellness.
Recommended Textbook
Krauses Food and the Nutrition Care Process 13th Edition by L. Kathleen Mahan
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915 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Digestion, Absorption, Transport, and Excretion of Nutrients
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Q1) After surgical removal of a large portion of the small intestine, what functional complication is most likely to develop?
A)Changes in dietary habits
B)Impaired digestion
C)Loss of absorptive tissue
D)Elimination of dietary residue
Answer: C
Q2) Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin when it comes in contact with A)enterokinase.
B)trypsinogen.
C)hydrochloric acid.
D)peptidases.
Answer: C
Q3) How often do the cells lining the intestinal tract recycle?
A)Every 2 to 3 days
B)Every 3 to 5 days
C)Every 5 to 7 days
D)Every 10 to 14 days
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Energy
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Q1) What is the clinical method for measuring human energy expenditure?
A)Bomb calorimetry
B)Indirect calorimetry
C)Doubly labeled water
D)Direct calorimetry
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following does NOT increase the thermic effect of food (TEF)?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Fat
C)Regular eating schedule
D)Spicy foods
Answer: B
Q3) The respiratory quotient (RQ) is highest after consumption of a diet that is primarily composed of what?
A)Carbohydrate
B)Protein
C)Fat
D)Mixed macronutrients
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Nutrients and Their Metabolism
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Q1) In vitamin D metabolism, which version of vitamin D is produced by the liver and then transported to the kidney?
A)7-Dehydrocholesterol
B)Cholecalciferol
C)25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
D)Calcitriol
Answer: C
Q2) Which fall into the category of isoprenoids?
A)Glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid
B)Lycopene and carotenoid
C)Cerebrosides and gangliosides
D)Bile acid
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following minerals functions in an antioxidant role?
A)Chromium
B)Zinc
C)Fluoride
D)Selenium
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Intake: Analysis of the Diet
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Q1) Which of the following was identified by a survey of clinical nutrition managers as being among the most common criteria used for nutrition screening?
A)History of medical diseases
B)Food allergies and intolerances
C)Skin breakdown
D)Chewing and swallowing status
Q2) The Geriatric Nutritional Risk Index (GNRI) relies on ____________ .
A)24-hour diet recall
B)Reliable usual body weight
C)The Lorentz formula for ideal body weight
D)Having a NIA available
Q3) Malnutrition was uncovered as a major problem in U.S.hospitals in the 1970s, but this is no longer a problem.
A)True
B)False
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6
Chapter 5: Assessment: Nutritional Genomics
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Q1) In protein synthesis, what subcomponent of DNA directs the inclusion of a specific amino acid within the protein?
A)The gene
B)The intron
C)The codon
D)The exon
Q2) Which of the following may promote a change in a DNA molecule affecting gene expression without changing the nucleotide sequence?
A)Genomic imprinting
B)Mutation
C)SNP
D)Gene variant
Q3) Which area of study focuses on the identification and understanding of the function of the end products of the genes within the human genome?
A)Nutrigenomics
B)Proteomics
C)Metabolomics
D)Genomics
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Chapter 6: Clinical: Inflammation, Physical and Functional Assessment
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Q1) _______ is used to assess body composition using by measuring body density.
A)Total body potassium measurement
B)Air displacement plethysmogram
C)Bioelectrical impedance analysis
D)Neutron activation analysis
Q2) Which of the following can be used for assessing bone mineral density as well as measuring fat and boneless lean tissue?
A)Bioelectrical impedance analysis
B)Magnetic resonance imaging
C)Computed tomography
D)Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
Q3) Height assessment on children younger than 2 to 3 years of age should be performed
A)with the child recumbent.
B)using the arm span.
C)using a stationary meter.
D)using the sitting height.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Water, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) When vasopressin is excessively secreted in the blood, which of the following effects occurs?
A)Low serum potassium because water is retained
B)Low serum sodium because water is retained
C)High serum potassium because water is excreted
D)High serum sodium because water is excreted
Q2) How would the body compensate for metabolic acidosis?
A)Increased kidney excretion of bicarbonate
B)Increased ventilation of carbon dioxide
C)Decreased kidney excretion of bicarbonate
D)Decreased ventilation of carbon dioxide
Q3) Which organ(s) maintain acid-base balance by the regulation of hydrogen ions?
A)Lungs
B)Liver
C)Kidneys
D)Adrenal glands
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Chapter 8: Clinical: Biochemical Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following deficiencies could cause macrocytic anemia?
A)Vitamin B12
B)Vitamin B6
C)Homocysteine
D)Iron
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE regarding calculation of nitrogen balance?
A)The formula compares grams of dietary protein eaten against grams of protein excreted.
B)The calculation requires a 24-hour urine collection for the amount of urea excreted in 24 hours.
C)The formula uses a patient's current body weight.
D)Nitrogen balance is not affected by whether or not the patient is growing.
Q3) Which of the following is a measure of glucose control?
A)Highly sensitive C-reactive protein
B)Hemoglobin A1C
C)Homocysteine
D)Apolipoprotein B
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Chapter 9: Clinical: Food-Drug Interactions
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Q1) Which of the following drugs will produced an Antabuse (disulfiram)-like reaction when taken with ethanol?
A)Metronidazole (Flagyl)
B)Captopril (Capoten)
C)Paclitaxel (Taxol)
D)Eszopiclone (Lunesta)
Q2) Decreased serum albumin levels, which is seen in many conditions, including malnutrition and liver disease, affect medications by
A)leading to decreased serum levels of free fraction of a drug.
B)leading to increased serum levels of free fraction of a drug.
C)leading to decreased metabolism of the drug by the liver.
D)leading to decreased pharmacologic effects.
Q3) Pseudomembranous colitis is a serious side effect of antibiotic therapy
A)that results from a food-drug interaction .
B)that is caused by Clostridium difficile infection.
C)that can be avoided with good nutrition.
D)related to hypertension.
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11
Chapter 10: Behavioral-Environmental: The Individual in the Community
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the CDC's operations related to food security and disaster planning?
A)PrepNet (Food Threat Preparedness Network)
B)F-Bat (Food Biosecurity Action Team)
C)FoodNet (Foodborne Diseases Active Surveillance Network)
D)Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition
Q2) What agency(ies) is(are) responsible for NHANES?
A)DHHS
B)FDA
C)USDA
D)Both DHHS and USDA
Q3) Which pathogen causes hemorrhagic colitis (painful, bloody diarrhea), which can result from eating undercooked ground beef and meats?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Campylobacter jejuni
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Yersinia enterocolitica
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Overview of Nutrition Diagnosis and Intervention
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Q1) In the hospital, _____ mL/day of fluid should be provided for the average healthy adult.
A)500 to 800
B)1000 to 1500
C)1800 to 2500
D)2500 to 3500
Q2) During which step of the nutrition care process should patient-centered goals and objectives be identified?
A)Nutrition assessment
B)Nutrition diagnosis
C)Nutrition intervention
D)Nutrition monitoring and evaluation
Q3) A newly admitted patient is observed to have poorly fitting dental plates.Which type of diet would be most appropriate for this patient?
A)General or regular house diet
B)Liquid diet
C)Consistency-modified diet
D)Diet increased in energy value
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13
Chapter 12: Food-Nutrient Delivery: Planning the Diet With Cultural Competency
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT be required to have a nutrition label?
A)Canned corn
B)Hot dogs
C)Fresh ground turkey
D)American cheese
Q2) Nutrient intakes are most likely to be low in
A)populations living in the South.
B)preschool children.
C)those older than 65 years.
D)those living below the poverty line.
Q3) Daily Values shown on the nutrition facts label are
A)recommended intakes for specific nutrients.
B)reference points based on a 2000-calorie diet.
C)are the same as DRIs.
D)listed as grams or milligrams.
Q4) An example of an approved health claim is:
A)acai berries help prevent cancer.
B)grapefruit can assist in weight loss because it helps burn calories.
C)diets low in sodium may reduce the risk of high blood pressure.
D)eating fish meals twice a week can improve immunocompetence.
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Chapter 13: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Bioactive
Substances and Integrative Care
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that there has been an increased usage of CAM in the United States?
A)CAM is not as expensive as conventional medicine.
B)CAM is used when conventional medicine has little to offer in effective treatment.
C)CAM is used when conventional medicine has significant risks and side effects.
D)CAM has a history of efficacy in treatment of some conditions.
Q2) What is the name of the process in which a homeopathic remedy is shaken more than 100 times?
A)Moxibustion
B)Succussion
C)Pharmacognosy
D)Potentization
Q3) Which of the following types of claims was first established under DSHEA?
A)Authoritative statements
B)Health claims
C)Nutrition claims
D)Structure-function claims
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Food-Nutrient Delivery: Nutrition Support
Methods
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Q1) A major drawback of safflower and soybean based lipid emulsions is:
A)it cannot be given peripherally.
B)it provides less calories per ml than other oils.
C)it cannot be mixed with the dextrose and amino acids.
D)it has a proinflammatory effect.
Q2) In home care, what is the recommended administration method for enteral nutrition?
A)Bolus feeding
B)Gravity drip
C)Cyclic pump
D)Continuous pump
Q3) The most important technique for prevention of aspiration in an enterally fed patient is:
A)To position the patient at a 45-degree angle for feeding
B)To use a calorically dense enteral formula
C)To use a large bore feeding tube
D)To administer feedings at a slow rate
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Interventions: Education and Counseling for Behavior Change
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Q1) When counseling a client who speaks a different language, the most effective way to communicate is to:
A)use a family member or close friend who speaks the language and can translate.
B)use a visual aid that has been developed using international symbols.
C)find a counselor who speaks the same language and can do the counseling.
D)use a certified translator.
Q2) Traditional nutritional counseling focuses on change matched to A)action and relapse.
B)empathy.
C)precontemplation and preparation.
D)action and maintenance.
Q3) What counseling activity is based on the idea that thoughts and beliefs that affect behavior can be changed to promote behavior change?
A)Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B)Transtheoretical model
C)Reflective listening
D)Shifting focus
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nutrition in Pregnancy and Lactation
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Q1) For the first 6 months of lactation, what is the recommended energy intake?
A)200 kcal less than the amount for pregnant women
B)330 kcal more than the amount for nonpregnant women
C)550 kcal more than the amount for pregnant women
D)The same as the amount for the third trimester pregnant women
Q2) Milk production is most affected by
A)calories consumed by the mother.
B)mother's hydration status.
C)the frequency of suckling.
D)protein consumed by the mother.
Q3) According to the RDA, how much additional protein above that of a nonpregnant woman should a pregnant woman consume during the second half of her pregnancy?
A)10 g
B)15 g
C)25 g
D)35 g
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18
Chapter 17: Nutrition During Infancy
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Q1) How many kilocalories are provided by 6 fluid ounces of breast milk or standard infant formula?
A)60 kcal
B)120 kcal
C)180 kcal
D)300 kcal
Q2) Which vitamin is NOT adequately provided by breast milk?
A)Vitamin C
B)Niacin
C)Vitamin D
D)Vitamin A
Q3) Why are infants particularly susceptible to developing dehydration?
A)Their mass-to-surface ratio is low.
B)Their insulation is poor, resulting in increased water loss.
C)Their renal concentrating ability is less than that of older children.
D)The increased liquidity of their stools results in greater fluid loss.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition in Childhood
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Q1) Which children are at risk for having a zinc intake lower than the recommended level?
A)Those who do not eat meats or seafood
B)Those who do not receive zinc supplementation
C)Those who drink too much milk
D)Those who do not like many vegetables
Q2) What is an appropriate food serving size for a 2-year-old child?
A)2 tsp
B)2 Tbsp
C)1/2 cup
D)1 cup
Q3) What may be a consequence of a child experiencing an early adiposity rebound?
A)An increased ratio of lean mass to fat mass as an adolescent.
B)An increased ratio of lean mass to fat mass as an adult.
C)An increased ratio of fat mass to lean mass as an adult.
D)An increased height-to-weight ratio as an adult.
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Chapter 19: Nutrition in Adolescence
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Q1) What would be the correct interpretation of an adolescent who has a BMI above the 85th percentile?
A)The adolescent is overweight.
B)The adolescent is obese.
C)The adolescent is at risk for becoming overweight.
D)The adolescent is overfat.
Q2) How does the pubertal growth spurt in girls compare with that in boys?
A)It begins sooner.
B)It begins later.
C)It lasts longer.
D)It is not different.
Q3) When are adolescents most likely to visit a fast-food restaurant?
A)Right after school
B)During dinnertime through the week
C)During dinnertime on the weekend
D)During lunchtime on the weekend
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21
Chapter 20: Nutrition in the Adult Years
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Q1) What are good food sources of bioflavonoids?
A)Berries and cherries
B)Carrots and squash
C)Salmon and tuna
D)Dark green vegetables
Q2) Endogenous toxins are
A)the same as xenobiotics.
B)from environmental pollutants.
C)end products of metabolism.
D)Prebiotics.
Q3) Which of the following are biologically active, naturally occurring substances in plants that act as natural defense systems and show potential for reducing the risk for cancer and cardiovascular disease?
A)Prebiotics
B)Phytochemicals
C)Butyrates
D)Xenobiotics
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Nutrition in Aging
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Q1) Home-delivered meals provided for under the Older Americans Act nutrition program is administered by what agency?
A)USDA
B)USDHHS
C)ALF
D)CMS
Q2) The 2010 health care reform legislation expands Medicare to include
A)annual wellness visit.
B)education and counseling.
C)expanded coverage for reimbursement for dietitians.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Increased intake of which nutrient may be required in a patient who has pressure ulcers?
A)Water
B)Vitamin B12
C)Protein
D)Potassium
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Weight Management
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Q1) Which enzyme removes dietary triglyceride from the blood?
A)Hormone-sensitive lipase
B)Lipoprotein lipase
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Insulin
Q2) Which of the following results from the use of fasting as a means of weight loss?
A)Excessive weight gain after refeeding
B)An initial rapid weight loss from diuresis
C)A decrease in ketone formation
D)Carbohydrate craving
Q3) Aerobic exercise is effective in weight management because it
A)lowers glycogen stores and promotes the use of fat for fuel.
B)decreases lean body mass in proportion to fat.
C)increases resistance to insulin.
D)decreases sensitivity to insulin.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition in Eating Disorders
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Q1) Delayed gastric emptying and gastric distension are common in
A)binge-eating disorder.
B)bulimia nervosa.
C)anorexia nervosa.
D)eating disorder not otherwise specified.
Q2) The treatment goal be for a patient with bulimia nervosa who is mildly overweight should be
A)weight loss to ideal weight.
B)daily exercise to help decrease weight.
C)a structured exercise routine to help decrease weight.
D)weight maintenance.
Q3) Which of the following is often exhibited in patients with anorexia nervosa?
A)Enamel wasting
B)Esophagitis
C)Muscle wasting
D)Russell's sign
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Chapter 24: Nutrition in Exercise and Sports Performance
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Q1) Athletes need to increase their water intake to
A)enhance renal excretion of waste products from muscle activity.
B)improve intestinal absorption of nutrients after digestion.
C)maintain water balance in the body as a whole and within cells.
D)increase skin evaporation of water as a cooling mechanism.
Q2) How does intensity of the exercise affect the use of fuel sources?
A)As intensity decreases, carbohydrate is the larger fraction of the energy source.
B)As intensity increases, fatty acids are the larger fraction of the energy source.
C)As intensity increases, carbohydrate is the larger fraction of the energy source.
D)As intensity decreases, fatty acids are the larger fraction of the energy source.
Q3) For athletes participating in events lasting more than 1 hour, what can a pre-event high-carbohydrate intake do?
A)It can cause hyperglycemia.
B)It can increase muscle glycogen stores.
C)It can cause hypotension.
D)It can improve strength during an event.
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26
Chapter 25: Nutrition and Bone Health
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of type II or age-related osteoporosis?
A)Occurs after 50 years of age
B)Loss of height occurs
C)Only affects trabecular bone
D)Rarely occurs in males
Q2) Which of the following bone measurements is more appropriate for individuals from late adolescence to the elderly years?
A)BMC
B)BMD
C)PBM
D)Alkaline phosphatase
Q3) Which of the following changes related to nutrition and bone metabolism does NOT occur in elderly subjects?
A)Decreased intake of protein
B)Reduction of skin biosynthesis of vitamin D
C)Increased renal excretion of calcium
D)Decline in osteoblast function
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Chapter 26: Nutrition for Oral and Dental Health
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Q1) Which of the following is a significant food source of fluoride?
A)Brewed tea
B)Beef
C)Coffee
D)Spinach
Q2) Why are foods that require a lot of chewing effective in promoting good dental health?
A)They cleanse the tooth surface.
B)They promote saliva flow.
C)They lower the acidity level of the mouth.
D)They decrease the fermentation of carbohydrate.
Q3) Cheese is considered to be anticariogenic because it
A)induces an alkaline saliva.
B)induces an acidic saliva.
C)induces a neutral saliva.
D)decreases saliva production.
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Chapter 27: Mnt for Food Allergy and Food Intolerance
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Q1) Food allergies that are most likely to resolve with age are those that first manifest during the first _____ of life.
A)year
B)3 years
C)10 years
D)15 years
Q2) What symptoms are likely to occur in the person with a perceived intolerance to monosodium glutamate (MSG)?
A)Decreased heart rate, constipation, and hives
B)Headache, flushing, abdominal pain, and nausea
C)Steatorrhea, edema, proteinuria, and nausea
D)Anaphylaxis, toxic shock syndrome, and headache
Q3) The most common food allergy found among infants is A)cereal allergy.
B)cow's milk allergy.
C)fruit allergy.
D)vegetable protein allergy.
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29
Chapter 28: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Upper
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is a condition involving the cells lining the distal esophagus becoming abnormal and premalignant?
A)Gastroesophageal reflux disease
B)Esophageal stricture
C)Hiatal hernia
D)Barrett's esophagus
Q2) What symptoms of dumping syndrome follow the total or subtotal removal of the stomach?
A)Nausea, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea
B)Elevated blood pressure, headache, and substernal pain
C)Heartburn, vomiting blood, and hypoglycemia
D)Decreased saliva production, steatorrhea, and bloating
Q3) When an H blocker is used in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease, the patient may be at risk for deficiency of which nutrient?
A)Vitamin A
B)Vitamin B6
C)Vitamin B12
D)Vitamin D
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Chapter 29: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Lower
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) How much lactose can most lactase-deficient people consume without major symptoms?
A)The equivalent to 1/2 cup of milk
B)The equivalent to 1 cup of milk
C)12 to 15 g of lactose
D)Lactase-deficient people cannot consume any lactose without experiencing symptoms.
Q2) What should patients with Crohn's disease be monitored for when experiencing diarrhea?
A)Calcium and phosphorus status
B)Magnesium and iron status
C)Zinc and potassium status
D)Iron and selenium status
Q3) What should be included in the initial treatment of diarrhea?
A)Low-fat, low-fiber diet
B)Replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes
C)Increase of high-pectin foods
D)High-fiber diet to increase stool bulk and restore normal bowel motility
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Chapter 30: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Liver, Biliary
System, and Exocrine Pancreas
Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following recommendations should be included in the nutrition care plan for a patient in the acute post liver transplant phase?
A)Calorie restriction
B)Increased sodium
C)Decreased protein
D)Increased protein
Q2) Which type of immunosuppressant drug used in the treatment of liver transplant is most likely to promote sodium retention, hyperglycemia, and impaired absorption of calcium?
A)Azathioprine
B)Cyclosporine
C)Glucocorticoid
D)Tacrolimus
Q3) Which of the following parameters is included in Subjective Global Assessment?
A)Change in weight
B)Nitrogen balance
C)Fluid intake and output
D)Liver enzyme levels
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Chapter 31: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Diabetes Mellitus and
Hypoglycemia of Nondiabetic Origin
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Q1) What condition occurs when rebound hyperglycemia follows an episode of hypoglycemia?
A)Somogyi effect
B)Cushing's syndrome
C)Dawn phenomenon
D)Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
Q2) HbA c represents the
A)glycosylation or glycation of serum proteins.
B)glycosylation or glycation of hemoglobin in red blood cells.
C)glycosylation or glycation of serum-free hemoglobin.
D)formation of hemoglobin-cholesterol linkage in blood.
Q3) Which of the following criteria is NOT appropriate for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
A)Fasting plasma glucose of greater than 126 mg/dL
B)HbA1c of greater than 7.0%
C)Postload (2 hour) plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL or greater
D)Symptoms of diabetes and a casual plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL or greater
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Chapter 32: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Thyroid and Related Disorders
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Q1) Characteristics of chronic adrenal stress do NOT include:
A)increased thyroid-binding protein activity.
B)decreased conversion of T4 to active forms of T3.
C)weakened immune barriers of the digestive tract, lungs, and brain.
D)increased sensitivity to thyroid hormones.
Q2) More than 90% of people with autoimmune thyroid disease have a genetic defect affecting their ability to metabolize what?
A)Vitamin D
B)Flavonoids
C)Selenium
D)Tyrosine
Q3) Although some T3 is produced in the thyroid, approximately 80% to 85% is generated outside the thyroid in which organs?
A)Nervous system and adrenal glands
B)Liver and kidneys
C)Pancreas and gastrointestinal tract
D)Hypothalamus and pituitary gland
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Chapter 33: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Anemia
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Q1) Hepcidin, a peptide synthesized in the liver, is associated with what function?
A)Absorption of vitamin B12
B)Iron saturation of myoglobin
C)Increasing iron absorption
D)Systemic iron homeostasis
Q2) After absorption, iron is transported by
A)hemoglobin.
B)serum albumin.
C)plasma transferrin.
D)Protoporphyrin.
Q3) Which of the following may reduce the absorption of iron when consumed in large amounts?
A)Coffee or tea with meals
B)Leavened bread
C)Pork
D)Fish
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Which medical procedure used to treat patients with asymptomatic ischemia or angina involves a balloon?
A)Cardiac catheterization
B)Percutaneous coronary intervention
C)Coronary stent
D)CABG
Q2) Which of the following decreases in congestive heart failure?
A)Beta-natriuretic peptide
B)Ejection fraction
C)Cardiac remodeling
D)Interleukin-1
Q3) Which of the following lipoproteins normally returns most of the cholesterol to the liver for disposal via reverse transport?
A)Chylomicrons
B)VLDL
C)LDL
D)HDL
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Pulmonary Disease
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Q1) Which results from a sweat test indicate that a patient may have CF?
A)Elevated levels of sodium and chloride
B)Decreased levels of sodium and chloride
C)Elevated levels of sodium and potassium
D)Decreased levels of potassium and chloride
Q2) Which vitamins are most likely to be deficient in a child with cystic fibrosis?
A)Vitamins A, E, and C
B)Water-soluble vitamins and K
C)Vitamins A, D, E, and K
D)Fat-soluble vitamins and B12
Q3) What vitamin supplementation may be necessary for patients with tuberculosis?
A)Vitamins C and E
B)Folate and vitamin B12
C)Vitamins B6 and D
D)Pyridoxine and folate
Q4) What is the effect of pulmonary disease on a patient's energy requirements?
A)Decreased need for energy because of loss of lean body mass
B)Increased need for energy because of increased work of breathing
C)Decreased need for energy because of a lack of physical activity
D)Decreased need for energy because of starvation
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Chapter 36: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Renal Disorders
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Q1) At least how much protein should be provided by the diet of a patient who receives hemodialysis three times per week?
A)0.6 g/kg of body weight
B)1 g/kg of body weight
C)1.2 g/kg of body weight
D)1.5 g/kg of body weight
Q2) Renal adaptations that permit "normal" function eventually fail, causing a progression toward ESRD because of A)loss of nephrons.
B)uremia.
C)increases in blood pressure.
D)imbalances between glomerular and tubular functions.
Q3) A complication of intradialytic parenteral nutrition that is NOT commonly associated with usual PN is A)vitamin deficiency.
B)hypophosphatemia.
C)infection.
D)hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 37: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Cancer
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Q1) Which of the following is a protein that affects fat stores during cancer and induces a state of anorexia?
A)Insulin
B)Growth hormone
C)Tumor necrosis factor (cachectin)
D)Glucagon
Q2) Which dietary modification would be used when a patient has neutropenia?
A)Provide bland liquids and soft solids.
B)Avoid strong flavors, acidic, or spicy foods.
C)Provide special handling of raw meats
D)Provide sauces and gravies with foods.
Q3) Epidemiologic studies have demonstrated most often a positive association between body weight or BMI and which site-specific cancers?
A)Bladder and lung
B)Breast and prostate
C)Colon, pancreas, and thyroid
D)Esophagus, endometrium, gallbladder, and kidney
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Chapter 38: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for HIV and AIDS
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Q1) What is the most valuable indicator of nutritional status in HIV-infected children?
A)Energy levels
B)Viral load
C)CD4 levels
D)Growth
Q2) Hepatoxicity in association with treatment with nucleoside and nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors, nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, and protease inhibitors are associated with what opportunistic infection?
A)Mycobacterium avium
B)Cryptosporidiosis
C)Hepatitis C virus
D)Dysesthesia
Q3) Which herbal supplement is contraindicated when used with antiretroviral medication such as indinavir?
A)Echinacea
B)Cat's claw
C)Milk thistle
D)St.John's wort
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Chapter 39: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Metabolic
Stress: Sepsis, Trauma, Burns, and Surgery
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Q1) Low albumin in a critically ill patient is caused by A)inadequate protein intake.
B)illness, injury, and inflammation.
C)inadequate calorie intake.
D)inadequate fluid intake.
Q2) Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) generally begins with A)coagulopathy.
B)lung failure.
C)liver failure.
D)intestinal failure.
Q3) Which mineral may be lost and need replacement in burn patients being treated with silver nitrate soaks?
A)Calcium
B)Phosphorus
C)Magnesium
D)Zinc
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Chapter 40: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Rheumatic Disease
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Q1) What drugs are the first line of therapy for controlling the inflammatory process seen in arthritis?
A)Corticosteroids
B)Salicylates
C)Gold salts
D)Methotrexate
Q2) Which of the following conditions is characterized by a hardening of the skin and visceral organs?
A)Gout
B)Scleroderma
C)Fibromyalgia
D)Sjögren's syndrome
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of Sjögren's syndrome?
A)Excessive sweating and salivation
B)Temporomandibular joint symptoms
C)Diminished production of tears and saliva
D)Diminished production of hydrochloric acid
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following can result from thiamin deficiency?
A)Pernicious anemia
B)Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
C)Pellagra
D)Adrenomyeloleukodystrophy
Q2) For which condition might a ketogenic diet be used in treatment?
A)Myasthenia gravis
B)Migraine headache
C)Epilepsy
D)Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
Q3) Which of the following requires the greatest coordination and control in order to swallow?
A)Solid foods
B)Liquids of thin consistency
C)Soft foods with high water content
D)Thick, viscous liquids
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Chapter 42: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Psychiatric Conditions
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Q1) Which of the following may NOT be an adequate source of omega-3 fatty acids?
A)Fish oil-supplemented margarine
B)Omega-3 eggs
C)Foods supplemented with flax
D)Foods supplemented with menhaden
Q2) Which of the following mental health conditions may benefit from the use of a gluten-free, casein-free diet?
A)Autistic disorder
B)Childhood disintegrative disorder
C)Motor skills disorder
D)Rett syndrome
Q3) Which of the following is an axis I disorder?
A)Depression
B)Narcissism
C)Dependence
D)Borderline personality disorder
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Chapter 43: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for
Low-Birth-Weight
Infants
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Q1) Which of the following helps promote better feeding of a premature infant after being discharged from the hospital?
A)Attracting the infant's attention with toys
B)Playing with the infant at feeding time
C)Supporting the infant's body during feeding
D)Feeding while playing age-appropriate DVDs
Q2) The metabolic rate of the premature newborn is _____ kcal/kg/day.
A)30
B)50
C)90
D)105
Q3) Which of the following procedures should be used in the transition from parenteral to enteral feedings with an LBW infant?
A)Advance to enteral feeding as quickly as possible.
B)Begin full-volume enteral feeding.
C)Stop parenteral feeding until enteral feeding is well established.
D)Maintain parenteral feeding until enteral feeding is well established.
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Chapter 44: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Genetic
Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following metabolic disorders is NOT classified as an organic acidemia?
A)Methylmalonic metabolic disorder
B)Propionic metabolic disorder
C)Isovaleric metabolic disorder
D)Arginosuccinic aciduria
Q2) Which of the following will NOT result in the development of phenylketonuria?
A)Deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase
B)Deficiency in dihydropteridine reductase
C)Insufficient synthesis of biopterin
D)Insufficiency of dietary tyrosine
Q3) Which of the following fruits and vegetables would be allowed in the diet of a person with galactosemia?
A)Bell peppers
B)Watermelon
C)Raisins
D)Tomatoes
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Chapter 45: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Developmental Disabilities
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Q1) Which developmental disability is associated with problems with childhood growth failure?
A)Prader-Willi syndrome
B)Spina bifida
C)Cerebral palsy
D)Down syndrome
Q2) People with Down syndrome have a total of _____ chromosomes.
A)21
B)23
C)46
D)47
Q3) What disorder is associated with these three specific facial features: a smooth filtrum, small palpebral fissures, and a thin upper lip?
A)Fetal alcohol syndrome
B)Cerebral palsy
C)Spina bifida
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
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Page 47