Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Medical Microbiology explores the role of microorganisms in human health and disease, focusing on pathogenic bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course covers microbial physiology, mechanisms of disease production, host-pathogen interactions, and the immune response. Students will learn about diagnostic techniques, antimicrobial agents, epidemiology, and strategies for infection control. Emphasis is placed on clinically significant microorganisms, the diseases they cause, and approaches to prevention and treatment, preparing students for further study and practical application in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 2nd Edition by Dave Wessner
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24 Chapters
1617 Verified Questions
1617 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these are key factors in explaining the discrepancy between death rates in the world versus sub-Saharn Africa in the 21 century? (Select all that apply)
A)Global unavailability of effective antibiotics
B)Poverty of nations in sub-Saharan Africa
C)Political instability
D)Lack of sanitation
E)Global unavailability of vaccines for endemic diseases
Answer: B,C,D
Q2) Viruses are considered "nonliving" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that they:
A)need a host cell for replication.
B)are metabolically inert.
C)possess DNA that can evolve.
D)do not maintain internal homeostasis.
E)are not responsive to environmental changes.
Answer: C
Q3) The main difference between the two cell types,prokaryote and eukaryote,is the presence of a ________________ in the eukaryote.
Answer: nucleus
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3
Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these describes the peritrichous arrangement of flagella?
A)Flagella all around the cell.
B)Flagella at both polar ends of the cell.
C)Flagella in a tuft at one end of the cell.
D)Flagella inside the periplasm wrapping around the cell.
E)Flagella on a single side of the cell.
Answer: A
Q2) The bacterial flagellum is turned by a motor using energy from: A)ATP.
B)glucose.
C)a proton motive force.
D)phosphoenolpyruvate.
E)AMP.
Answer: C
Q3) The bacterial flagellum is structurally and functionally related to the eukaryotic flagellum.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the slime-mold Dictyostelium discoideum commonly used to study?
A)the fungal life cycle
B)evolution of multi-cellularity
C)flagella movement
D)cell wall synthesis
E)cyst formation
Answer: B
Q2) Mitochondria resemble which of the listed organisms most closely?
A)Gram positive bacteria
B)Gram negative bacteria
C)Chlamydomonas
D)Dictyostelium
E)Mycoplasma
Answer: B
Q3) Eukaryal microbes called amitochondriates lack mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) When Saccharomyces undergoes meiosis,it forms four haploid cells called ___.
Answer: ascospores
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some archaeal cells contain pseudopeptidoglycan as their major cell wall component.What is this material composed of?
A)Lipids and proteins.
B)Sugar polymers cross-linked via a peptide bridge.
C)Sugar polymers that are linked to lipids via an ether bond.
D)Proteins liked together via a glycosidic bond.
E)Lipids cross-linked via a peptide bridge.
Q2) What is the size range of a typical Archaea cell?
A).1 - 5 nm
B)20 - 50 nm
C)1 - 5 µm
D)20 - 50 µm
E)1 - 5 mm
Q3) Which of these is correct regarding subunit rRNA?
A)It serves the same biological function in all organisms.
B)Its sequence changes very slowly over time.
C)It is very stable and easy to work with.
D)It serves the same biological function in all organisms and its sequence changes very slowly over time.
E)These choices are all true.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) Expression of which of these oncogenes leads to enhanced cell susceptibility to Reovirus infection?
A)Ras
B)SV40
C)T-VEC
D)CFTR
E)None is a correct response
Q2) Measuring PFU has the advantage over direct virus count methods because it informs on:
A)viral structure
B)infectivity
C)enveloped versus non-enveloped anatomy
D)the burst size
E)chromosomal structure
Q3) Proto-oncogenes never play a necessary role in development and growth of an organism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A bacterial strain that contains a phage genome integrated into its chromosome is called a _________.
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Q1) What must be added to M9 medium for an auxotrophic E.coli strain to be able to grow?
A)glucose
B)glucose plus nucleotides,amino acids and lipids
C)glucose plus at least one other organic component
D)glucose plus amino acids
E)the medium is sufficient
Q2) In which phase of the growth curve does preparation for cell division and synthesis of enzymes needed for catabolic activity take place?
A)lag phase
B)exponential phase
C)stationary phase
D)death phase
E)all phases
Q3) Triple sugar iron agar results allow the conclusion(s): (Select all that apply)
A)Pseudomonas does not ferment glucose
B)Proteus does ferment lactose
C)Shigella does not ferment lactose
D)E.coli does ferment glucose
E)Salmonella does not produce H S
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the process of DNA replication initiation in Bacteria.
Q2) Which enzyme removes the RNA primer and fills in the gap during DNA replication in bacteria?
A)DNA polymerase III
B)DNA polymerase I
C)primase
D)ligase
E)DNAase
Q3) The mRNA of bacterial cells is often polycistronic.What does this term mean?
A)Tt can be translated more than once.
B)It contains the code for multiple peptides.
C)Tt can be translated from either end.
D)Tt is transcribed from multiple sites on the chromosome.
E)The translated protein may be modified in different ways.
Q4) Most bacterial promoters consist of two regions: __________ and
A)Pribnow box and operator.
B)enhancer region and operator.
C)enhancer region and -35 region.
D)-35 region and operator.
E)Pribnow box and -35 region.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) Antibody produced in response to a viral infection is able to neutralize viral attachment by
A)binding nucleic acid polymerases and preventing viral nucleic acid replication.
B)binding ribosomes and preventing viral protein translation.
C)activating macrophages to phagocytize the virus.
D)binding to the viral attachment proteins to prevent attachment to the host cell receptor.
E)binding to the host cell receptor molecule to prevent the attachment of the virus.
Q2) The influenza virus gains entry into a host cell by
A)direct injection of its nucleic acid.
B)receptor-independent endocytosis.
C)lysis of the cell membrane.
D)receptor-mediated endocytosis.
E)pinocytosis.
Q3) Translation of mRNA for the production of viral proteins always takes place in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first DNA cloning experiment required ALL of the following EXCEPT:
A)DNA ligase.
B)DNA polymerase.
C)restriction enzymes.
D)plasmid vector with antibiotic resistance gene.
E)competent cells.
Q2) Under what conditions will two different plasmids be incompatible?
A)If they contain some identical genes.
B)If they contain genes from different organisms.
C)If they use similar methods of replication initiation.
D)If they use different DNA polymerases.
E)If they do not contain at least one similar gene.
Q3) What possible disadvantage might electroporation possess compared with the transformation achievable by species such as Bacillus?
A)Smaller DNA fragments are transferred
B)Double-stranded DNA,not single-stranded,is transferred
C)There is a loss of cells due to the voltage being applied
D)Antibiotic resistance selection processes cannot be employed
E)None is a correct choice
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial genome has an overall GC content of 60%.Two percent of the genome is considered to be a symbiosis island whose GC content is 40%.What GC richness does the rest of the genome actually possess?
A)70%
B)65%
C)60%
D)55%
E)85%
Q2) Many scientists deposit their gene sequences in GenBank to make them publicly available to other scientist via the internet.Approximately how many base pairs have been deposited thus far?
A)10,000
B)100,000
C)1 million
D).10 million
E)greater than 10 million
Q3) The Sanger method of sequencing used special nucleotides that are called ________ nucleotides.
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12
Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify mechanisms that can reduce enzyme function.(Select all that apply)
A)Phosphorylation
B)Methylation
C)Acetylation
D)mRNA synthesis inhibition
E)translation inhibition
Q2) Identify mechanisms that can switch off gene expression.(Select all that apply)
A)Phosphorylation
B)Methylation
C)Acetylation
D)mRNA synthesis inhibition
E)translation inhibition
Q3) Which is true of catabolite repression?
A)It results in diauxic growth.
B)It results in decreased growth rates.
C)It results in increased growth rates.
D)It occurs because of the toxicity of certain chemicals.
E)It only occurs when lactose is present.
Q4) The type of regulation that relies on a critical cell density is called ______ sensing
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Expression of eukaryal DNA in bacterial cells requires the insertion of _______ into the plasmid expression vector as the structural component of the gene.
Q2) Which of these amino acids are used for the production of the sweetener aspartame?
A)glycine and asparagine
B)glutamate and asparagine
C)aspartate and phenylalanine
D)aspartate and glycine
E)tryptophan and proline
Q3) Under what condition would directed enzyme evolution be more appropriate that site-directed mutagenesis?
A)When attempting to produce an altered enzyme.
B)When you want the enzyme to catalyze a different type of reaction.
C)If very little is known about the enzyme structure.
D)If you want to permanently disable the enzyme.
E)If you want the enzyme expressed in a different organism.
Q4) Cyanobacteria are known to accumulate polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHA).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) When oxygen reacts with hydrogen gas,water is produced as the product in this oxidation-reduction reaction.Hydrogen donates electrons to oxygen in the reaction.Which statement below is true about this reaction?
A)Oxygen is oxidized to water.
B)Oxygen is being reduced in the reaction.
C)Hydrogen is being reduced in the reaction.
D)The electron donor in this reaction is reduced.
E)The electron acceptor in this reaction is oxidized.
Q2) Which of these is an example of a coenzyme?
A)glucose
B)iron
C)NAD
D)cytochrome c
E)a kinase
Q3) The leguminous plant symbionts protect FeMo-co by:
A)sequestration of N² in heterocysts
B)production of methemoglobin to lower oxidative potential within root nodules
C)production of leghemoglobin to lower oxidative potential within root nodules
D)production of leghemoglobin to lower reductive potential within root nodules
E)inhibiting ATP formation
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) Why may it take months to years for some zones of the Winogradsky colum to develop their characteristic colors? (Select all that apply)
A)oxygen intially present throughout the column may inhibit initial growth of anaerobes
B)some microbes grow more slowly than others
C)biofilm communities may have to form to allow microbial consortiums to exchange nutrients
D)the plastics of column containers need to be altered by sunlight to permit microbial metabolism
E)all are correct choices
Q2) Aquatic sulfur is primarily:
A)Present as H S
B)Present as sulfate
C)Present as elemental sulfur
D)Present as dimethylsulfoniopropionate
E)Present as the amino acid cysteine
Q3) Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these pairs best categorizes water below the thermocline in a lake during the summer?
A)warm and aerobic
B)low density and anaerobic
C)cold and aerobic
D)low density and aerobic
E)cold and anaerobic
Q2) Most of the organic matter in soil comes from the decomposition of:
A)animals
B)plants
C)fungi
D)protozoa
E)algae
Q3) Select the pair of microbes belonging to the same guild:
A)Methanobrevibacter smithii,E.coli
B)E)coli,Caulobacter
C)Pseudomonas,Desulfovibrio
D)Azotobacter,Pseudomonas
E)None is a correct choice
Q4) Sulfur emitted from hydrothermal vents is in the form of __________.
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) Staphylococcus aureus causes foodborne illness through
A)the production of an enterotoxin that contaminates prepared foods.
B)a break in the skin during food preparation.
C)the ingestion of the microbe which grows in the large intestine to produce symptoms.
D)the production of an exotoxin after ingestion of the microbe.
E)the consumption of undercooked meat.
Q2) An example of an organism that causes a foodborne infection is
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Campylobacter jejuni.
C)Clostridium perfringens.
D)Clostridium botulinum.
E)Bacillus cereus.
Q3) An MPN test where E.coli bacteria have been identified is known as :
A)A presumptive test
B)A confirmed test
C)A completed test
D)A conclusive test
E)None is a correct choice
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) Amino acids for anabolic requirements are obtained by ruminants through: (Select all that apply)
A)ingestion of plant proteins
B)ingestion of animal proteins
C)digestion of microbial proteins
D)digestion of microbially-converted nitrogenous wastes
E)kidney reabsorption of urea
Q2) Microbes in the rumen are very efficient at converting ____________ and _________ into amino acids.
A)ammonia and urea
B)glucose and pyruvate
C)starch and cellulose
D)fatty acids and acetate
E)pyruvate and lactate
Q3) Which of these is the MOST abundant bacterial group in the colon?
A)members of the phylum Proteobacteria
B)the family Enterobacteriaceae
C)obligate anaerobes
D)facultative anaerobes
E)lactobacilli.
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) How does vertical transmission of a pathogen occur?
A)By an aerosol route.
B)As a result of an insect bite.
C)From mother to offspring.
D)By a sexual route.
E)By ingesting contaminated water.
Q2) Term for an epidemic that occurs on multiple continents.
A)endemic disease
B)outbreak
C)pandemic
D)emerging disease
E)re-emerging disease
Q3) Which of these is an example of a common-source epidemic?
A)A single case of H1N1 influenza is reported in a small town.
B)A prison has a higher rate of tuberculosis than is typical.
C)A number of children show up at school with measles.
D)Several cases of food poisoning from a wedding.
E)A local hospital sees cases of several different "staph" infections in a week
Q4) The number of deaths due to a specific disease over a specified number in the population is referred to as the ______________ rate.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Q1) Select the correct order in which sequential complement protein activation occurs in the classical pathway:
A)C1,C3,C5,C9
B)C2,C4,C3,C1
C)C4,C2,C3,C5
D)C1,C2,C3,C4
E)C9,C8,C7,C6
Q2) Which of these complement proteins does not bind C7?
A)C5a
B)C5b
C)C6
D)C8
E)All form associations with C7
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT a nonspecific natural defense barrier against microbial invasion?
A)ciliated epithelial cells
B)lysozyme
C)mucus
D)antimicrobial peptides
E)antibodies produced from B lymphocytes
21
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) When does antibody diversity occur in a B cell?
A)After a mature B cell is exposed to an antigen.
B)After stimulation by TH1 cell.
C)After stimulation by TH2 cell.
D)During B cell maturation.
E)After a mature B cell processes an antigen.
Q2) Which antibody is involved in the initiation of anaphylactic or allergic reactions?
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Q3) Which pair of terms is accurately described?
A)Antigens are a subset of the binding sites found on epitopes
B)Ligands are a subset of antigens capable of binding at receptor sites
C)Epitopes are a subset of antigens capable of binding at ligand sites
D)Epitopes are a subset of the binding sites found on antigens
E)All are correct descriptions
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Chapter 21: Virulence Factors and Pathogenic Mechanisms
of Bacterial Infections
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Q1) Cattle may serve as a reservoir for E.coli strain O157:H7 because this strain does not cause any disease in cattle.This strain of E.coli can cause a potentially lethal Shiga toxin-mediated hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)in humans.Why don't cattle develop HUS?
A)The shiga toxin is not expressed in cattle.
B)E)coli is unable to effectively colonize the bovine intestine.
C)A protease in the cattle destroys the toxin.
D)Bovine kidney cells do not have a shiga toxin receptor.
E)They produce antibody against the shiga toxin.
Q2) ADP ribosylation of elongation factor -2 (EF-2)causes:
A)Inhibition of protein synthesis by cleaving the small ribosomal subunit
B)Inhibition of protein synthesis by cleaving the large ribosomal subunit
C)Preventing ribosomal movement down the mRNA
D)Blocking the initial AUG codon
E)Preventing recognition of stop codons
Q3) Type III secretion systems of Gram negative bacteria allow for the direct secretion of toxin into the target cell.
A)True
B)False
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Q4) Exotoxins that act specifically on the intestine are called __________________.
Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) What are syncytia?
A)transformed cells
B)cell lysed by viruses
C)cells undergoing apoptosis
D)multinucleated giant cells
E)cells with inclusion bodies
Q2) The common cold signs and symptoms are caused through the release of: (Select all that apply)
A)Il-2
B)Il-6
C)IL-10
D)IL-4
E)IL-8
Q3) Rhinovirus is a cause of the common cold.What type of infection does it usually cause?
A)acute
B)latent
C)persistent
D)latent or persistent,with equal likelihood
E)acute or latent,with equal likelihood
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) How do many phytopathogenic fungi obtain nutrients from plant host cells?
A)By excreting enzymes to breakdown plant cell walls.
B)By excreting exotoxins to kill plant cells.
C)By stimulating the host cells to excrete sugars.
D)By stimulating the plant to increase photosynthesis.
E)By producing proteins to scavenge nutrients away from the plant.
Q2) AIDS patients are more susceptible to developing pneumonia caused by ___________ than individuals with a normal functioning immune system.
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Haemophilus influenza
D)Pneumocystis jiroveci
E)Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q3) Select the correct statement:
A)Parasitophorous vacuoles are found within cytostomes
B)Cytostomes are found within Parasitophorous vacuoles
C)PCR is routinely used to diagnose malaria
D)Microscopic Plasmodium species identification does not require specially trained individuals
E)All are correct statements
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The enzyme chloramphenicol _______________ is encoded by a gene commonly found on some R-plasmids and covalently modifies chloramphenicol so it can longer bind to its target site.
A)phophoryltransferase
B)hydrolase
C)dehydrogenase
D)isomerase
E)acetyltransferase
Q2) Ampicillin is a semi-synthetic antibiotic derivative of penicillin G.Ampicillin is acid-resistant,whereas penicillin G is not resistant to acid.Why is this important?
A)Ampicillin is resistant to -lactamases.
B)Ampicillin can be taken orally.
C)Ampicillin is effective against Gram-negative bacteria.
D)Ampicillin is less toxic.
E)Ampicillin is more stable in solution.
Q3) Tetracylines are considered to be __________-_______________ antibiotics because they show activity against a wide range of bacteria.
Q4) The smallpox Vaccinia virus was a(n)________________ vaccine.
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