Medical
Microbiology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology explores the biology of microorganisms that impact human health, examining bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that cause disease. The course covers the mechanisms of microbial pathogenesis, host immune responses, diagnosis and treatment of infectious diseases, and principles of infection control and prevention. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students gain a comprehensive understanding of microbial physiology, epidemiology, antimicrobial therapy, and emerging global health concerns related to infectious agents.
Recommended Textbook
Linne Ringsruds Clinical Laboratory Science 7th Edition by Mary Louise Turgeon
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17 Chapters
529 Verified Questions
529 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2348
Page 2
Chapter 1: Fundamentals of the Clinical Laboratory
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46715
Sample Questions
Q1) counts blood cells
A)hematology
B)clinical chemistry
C)immunohematology
D)immunology and serology
E)microbiology
Answer: A
Q2) Informed consent upon patient's hospital admission can encompass:
A) agreement to the nature of the testing to be done.
B) agreement to what will be done with laboratory test results.
C) implied consent to many routine procedures that may be performed.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) determines blood groups
A)hematology
B)clinical chemistry
C)immunohematology
D)immunology and serology
E)microbiology
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Safety in the Clinical Laboratory
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perhaps the simplest and most important step in the proper handling of any hazardous substance is proper:
A) disposal of a chemical.
B) labeling of a substance.
C) storage of a substance.
D) wearing of heavy rubber gloves.
Answer: B
Q2) Contact lenses can be manipulated with gloved hands.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Information related to hazards associated with chemicals in the workplace must be provided in:
A) Laboratory Policy Manual.
B) material safety data sheets (MSDSs).
C) Bloodborne Pathogen Standards information.
D) Standard Operating Procedures Manual.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Quality Assessment and Quality Control in the Clinical Laboratory
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ISO 15189 is based on:
A) ISO/IEC 17025.
B) ISO 9001.
C) CAP 15189.
D) both a and b.
Answer: D
Q2) Required regulation of clinical laboratories is achieved by the:
A) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988.
B) The Joint Commission (TJC).
C) College of American Pathologists (CAP).
D) American Hospital Association (AHA).
Answer: A
Q3) failing to properly identify a patient prior to venipuncture
A)active error
B)latent error
Answer: A
Q4) chronic shortage of qualified laboratory staff
A)active error
B)latent error
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Phlebotomy: Collecting and Processing Blood
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specimens must reach the laboratory for testing in less than:
A) 30 minutes.
B) 1 hour.
C) 2 hours.
D) 8 hours.
Q2) The relationship between patients and physicians and other health care professionals is described in the recently published:
A) patient's bill of rights.
B) patient care partnership document.
C) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) regulations.
D) both a and b.
Q3) The first tier of infection control for health care professionals is to use ____ precautions.
A) standard
B) contact
C) airborne
D) droplet
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Chapter 5: The Microscope
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The definition of the microscopic working distance is the distance from the:
A) bottom of the objective to the material being studied.
B) ocular to the bottom of the objective.
C) ocular to the material being studied.
D) top of the objective to the material being studied.
Q2) The most common type of microscope illumination system used in the clinical laboratory is:
A) brightfield.
B) phase contrast.
C) polarizing.
D) fluorescent.
Q3) The definition of Köhler illumination is the:
A) strength of the transmitted light.
B) light path through the microscope.
C) light path passing through the condenser of the microscope.
D) light path passing through the diaphragm of the microscope.
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Chapter 6: Systems of Measurement, laboratory
Equipment, and Reagents
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The labels on bottles should include:
A) the name and concentration of the reagent.
B) the date on which the reagent was prepared.
C) the initials of the person who made the reagent.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Solutions prepared from the most highly purified types of chemicals available are ____ solutions.
A) reagent
B) standard
C) molar
D) acidic
Q3) A pipette that has been calibrated to deliver a fixed volume of liquid by drainage is known as ____ pipette.
A) a volumetric
B) a serologic
C) a graduated
D) both b and c
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Laboratory Mathematics and Solution Preparation
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Report a laboratory result with the most number of significant figures as the accuracy of the final result.
A)True
B)False
Q2) standard solution
A)a solution prepared from a stock solution and usually stored in the refrigerator
B)one that contains a known, exact amount of the substance being measured
C)one that contains reagents used in the procedure but not the substance to be measured
Q3) What is the molarity of a solution containing 50 g of NaCl per liter?
A) 0.2M
B) 0.5M
C) 0.9M
D) 1.5M
Q4) Laboratory results should only contain the digits necessary for the precision of the determination.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Basic and New Techniques in the Clinical Laboratory
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) 580-600
A)not visible (infrared light)
B)red
C)orange
D)yellow
E)green
F)blue
G)violet
H)not visible (ultraviolet light)
Q2) An analytic method that depends on light-scattering properties of antigen-antibody complexes is:
A) absorption spectrophotometry.
B) reflectance spectrophotometry.
C) nephelometry.
D) ion-selective electrodes.
Q3) One of the most frequently used techniques in the clinical laboratory is:
A) spectrophotometry.
B) chemiluminescence.
C) nephelometry.
D) electrophoresis.
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Chapter 9: Delivery of Laboratory Testing From Point of
Care to Total Automation
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) False-positive fecal occult blood results can be caused by ingestion of:
A) red meat.
B) horseradish.
C) apples and oranges.
D) both a and b.
Q2) Leukocytes can be differentiated by:
A) automated three-part differential.
B) automated five-cell differential.
C) digital imaging.
D) all of the above.
Q3) A false-negative fecal occult blood can be caused by:
A) beets and carrots.
B) chicken.
C) multivitamins.
D) vitamin C.
Q4) The specimen of choice for b-hCG testing is: A) serum.
B) urine.
C) cerebrospinal fluid.
D) saliva.
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Chapter 10: Introduction to Clinical Chemistry
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Estimation of the blood glucose level over the previous 4 to 6 weeks is determined with which test?
A) HbA<sub>1c</sub>
B) Ketones
C) Clinitest
D) Microalbumin
Q2) Which of the following enzymes is normally found in highest levels in hepatocytes,or liver cells?
A) ALT
B) AST
C) GGT
D) Alkaline phosphatase
Q3) Osmolality measures:
A) the number of sodium ions in plasma.
B) the number of sodium ions in urine or plasma.
C) total concentration of all ions and molecules in serum or urine.
D) total concentration of all ions and molecules in plasma.
Q4) Free T is ____ and thyroid stimulating hormone is ____ in hypothyroidism.
A) increased; decreased
B) decreased; increased
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Principles and Practice of Clinical Hematology
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Platelets maintain the structure or integrity of the endothelium by plugging any gaps in the lining.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Reticulocytes represent RBCs that:
A) have lost their nuclei but not their cytoplasmic RNA.
B) are immature, nucleated RBCs.
C) are increased in untreated pernicious anemia.
D) have abnormal staining characteristics.
Q3) The anticoagulant of choice for cell counts is:
A) lithium.
B) sodium citrate.
C) EDTA.
D) heparin.
Q4) Heme iron is normally recycled for reuse.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mature platelets are brightly colored oval bodies on a peripheral blood smear.
A)True
B)False
13
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Hemostasis
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A function or activity of platelets is to contain PF3 on or within the plasma membrane of the platelets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) factor I
A)prothrombin
B)hemophilia B
C)von Willebrand's factor
D)fibrinogen
Q3) intrinsic pathway
A)It is thought that tissue injury, following exposure to foreign substances such as collagen, activates the pathway.
B)The pathway taken when tissue thromboplastin, a substance not found in the blood, enters the vascular system and, in the presence of calcium and factor VII, activates factor X.
Q4) A function or activity of platelets is to help activate and be a participant in plasma coagulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Renal Physiology and Urinalysis
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reagent strips will deteriorate if exposed to moisture or heat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) urinary preservatives in urine testing for leukocyte esterase
A)false positive
B)false negative
Q3) Reagent strips must be used within 1 year of opening the container.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Upon standing,RBCs either swell or become crenated.
A)True
B)False
Q5) a blue color forms for the protein reaction,if the urine is exposed to the reagent strip for too long
A)false positive
B)false negative
Q6) The growth of bacteria in urine produces a more acidic solution.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Examination of Body Fluids and Miscellaneous Specimens
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a leukocyte differential smear made from a CSF specimen with an elevated leukocyte count reveals an increase in polymorphonuclear cells,it may be indicative of ____ infection.
A) viral
B) bacterial
C) fungal
D) parasitic
Q2) CSF specimens should be delivered to the laboratory:
A) immediately.
B) within an hour.
C) within 12 hours.
D) within 24 hours.
Q3) A macroscopically turbid cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)may indicate:
A) blood clots.
B) increased white blood cell count.
C) presence of hemorrhage.
D) viral infection.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Introduction to Microbiology
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interpret the following Gram stain of urethral discharge from a male: Many polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)
Few gram-negative intracellular diplococci
Q2) Which of the following specimens can be refrigerated?
A) Urine for routine culture
B) Cerebrospinal fluid
C) Genital culture
D) Culture for meningitis
Q3) The Gram stain is used to differentiate bacteria that have similar morphologic features.The Gram stain method uses different reagents,including:
A) Gram iodine.
B) decolorization.
C) a counterstain.
D) all of the above.
Q4) All of the following are structures found in prokaryotic organisms except: A) mitochondria.
B) capsules.
C) ribosomes.
D) cell wall.
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Chapter 16: Immunology and Serology
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anamnestic response differs from a primary antibody response in several important aspects.The plateau levels in a secondary response are typically 10-fold or more than the plateau levels in the primary response.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first line of body defense is:
A) unbroken skin.
B) normal biota.
C) body fluids (e.g., tears, saliva).
D) all of the above.
Q3) Serology is the study of:
A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) chemical reactions.
D) infectious diseases.
Q4) passive artificial immunity
A)vaccination
B)infusion of plasma containing antibodies
C)obtained from colostrum
D)as a result of suffering from the disease
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Immunohematology and Transfusion Medicine
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are criteria for postpartum eligibility for Rh immune globulin administration except:
A) administered to the mother within 72 hours of delivery.
B) administered to the baby within 72 hours of delivery.
C) baby must be RhO (D) positive.
D) mother must not demonstrate anti-D in her blood.
Q2) Packed RBCs
A)Best used when oxygen-carrying capacity is needed
B)Rarely used but can meet a patient's need for volume replacement, oxygen-carrying capacity, and heat-labile coagulation factors
C)Used to treat multiple coagulation deficiencies
D)Used to treat hemophilia
Q3) The proper temperature and duration of incubation are not critical to antigen-antibody reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The concentration of RBCs used in blood banking testing is important.
A)True
B)False
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