Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology
Test Preparation
Medical Microbiology explores the role of microorganisms in human health and disease, focusing on bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that cause infections. The course covers microbial structure, physiology, genetics, and the mechanisms by which pathogens interact with hosts and evade immune defenses. Students learn about the diagnostic methods used to identify infectious agents, principles of epidemiology, antimicrobial therapies, and strategies for prevention and control of infectious diseases. Emphasis is placed on clinically significant pathogens and the impact of emerging infectious diseases on global public health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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22 Chapters
1953 Verified Questions
1953 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement correctly compares the sizes of different microorganisms?
A)Bacteria are larger than viruses
B)Bacteria are larger than eukaryotic microorganisms
C)Eukaryotic microorganisms are smaller than viruses
D)Archaea are larger than eukaryotic microorganisms but smaller than bacteria
Answer: A
Q2) Sterility refers to
A)being pathogen free.
B)having an absence of spores.
C)having an absence of any life forms and viral particles.
D)being pasteurized.
E)being homogenized.
Answer: C
Q3) ATP is best described as ________.
A)an enzyme
B)a double helix
C)an electron carrier
D)the energy molecule of cells
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three physical forms of laboratory media are ________.
A)solid,liquid,and gas
B)solid,semisolid,and liquid
C)streak plate,pour plate,and broth
D)aerobic,anaerobic,and micro aerobic
E)None of the choices are correct.
Answer: B
Q2) Agar is a complex polysaccharide that comes from a(n)________.
A)green plant
B)fungus
C)mold
D)algae
E)euglena
Answer: D
Q3) Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment,the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the ________.
A)endospore
B)cell wall
C)cell membrane
D)capsule
E)slime layer
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is mismatched?
A)Methanogens - convert CO and H gases into methane
B)Extreme halophiles - adapted to salty habitats
C)Psychrophiles - adapted to very low temperatures
D)Hyperthermophile - adapted to high temperatures
E)Thermoplasmas - adapted to frozen environments
Answer: E
Q3) Cellular organisms without a true nucleus include bacteria and viruses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host?
A)Primary host
B)Secondary host
C)Definitive host
D)Transport host
E)Mating takes place in all hosts.
Q2) The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances to and from the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear ________.
A)histones
B)chromatin
C)pores
D)endoplasmic reticulum
E)inclusions
Q3) Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of ________.
A)protozoa
B)algae
C)helminths
D)fungi
E)None of the choices are correct.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Multiplication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The core of every virus particle always contains ________.
A)DNA
B)capsomeres
C)enzymes
D)DNA and RNA
E)either DNA or RNA
Q2) An ideal antiviral drug would be one that ________.
A)disrupted an integral viral process while causing little damage to the host cell
B)killed the host cell thereby depriving the virus of its means to translate proteins
C)killed both the virus and the host cell
D)prevents translation by the host cell ribosome,depriving the virus of a means to replicate
Q3) New,nonenveloped virus release occurs by ________.
A)lysis
B)budding
C)exocytosis
D)both lysis and budding
E)both budding and exocytosis
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7
Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Microorganisms require large quantities of ________ for use in cell structure and metabolism.
A)elements
B)macronutrients
C)water
D)growth factors
E)trace elements
Q3) In ________ conditions,the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.
A)hypertonic
B)hypotonic
C)isotonic
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO environment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following are denaturing agents except ________.
A)high temperature
B)low temperature
C)high pH
D)low pH
E)All of the choices are correct
Q2) Important components of coenzymes are ________.
A)vitamins
B)metallic ions
C)active sites
D)substrates
E)ribozymes
Q3) The RN prepares to initiate IV fluid therapy for the patient.Knowing the importance of cellular energy production,which of the following maintenance IV fluids would be most appropriate for the physician to order?
A)0.9% sodium chloride
B)Lactated ringers
C)0.45% sodium chloride
D)0.9% sodium chloride with dextrose
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genomic ________ are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host.
A)DNA
B)libraries
C)clones
D)digests
E)books
Q2) Mastery of synthetic biology will allow humans to ________.
A)make new organisms using only chemicals as the starting materials
B)synthesize chemicals in cells that are missing due to a genetic anomaly
C)construct complex molecules in situ that will target cancerous cells in tissues
D)design alternative forms of energy production
E)All of the choices are possibilities from synthetic biology
Q3) Which statement best describes the flow of genetic information in a cell?
A)DNA codes for RNA,which codes for proteins and some information from RNA flows back to DNA in a regulatory role.
B)DNA codes for RNA,which codes for proteins.
C)DNA synthesizes proteins.
D)RNA directs the synthesis of DNA,which codes for proteins.
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Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The RN cleanses the urethral opening with an iodine swab.Which of the following terms most appropriately describes this method of microbial control?
A)Disinfection
B)Antisepsis
C)Decontamination
D)Sterilization
Q2) Prions require more extensive methods of sterilization than are needed for bacterial endospores.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ethylene oxide is a sterilizing gas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following pertain to hypochlorites except ________.
A)release hypochlorous acid in solution
B)cause denaturation of enzymes
C)found in iodophors
D)used to disinfect water,restaurant,and medical equipment
E)found in common household bleach
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria can have a natural resistance to a drug that it has never been exposed to.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An example of an antibacterial drug with high selective toxicity would be one that
A)targets the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall
B)targets the permeability of the cell membrane
C)targets DNA replication
D)targets RNA transcription
Q3) Penicillins and cephalosporins ________.
A)block folic acid synthesis
B)attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
C)damage cell membranes
D)block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
Q4) Aminoglycosides demonstrate selective toxicity since they target the bacterial 30s subunit,leaving the host 40s subunit largely unaffected.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient's sputum culture returns a positive result for Streptococcus pneumoniae.As the RN,you are aware this capsule-forming bacterium possesses virulence factors to make it difficult to treat.In providing education to the patient regarding the disease process,which of the following statements is most appropriate?
A)"Fluid is building up in your lungs because of the body's persistent inflammatory response to the microbe."
B)"This bacterium secretes toxins that directly damage your lungs."
C)"Fragments of this bacterium's cell wall directly harm your lungs."
D)"Fluid is building up in your lungs because white blood cells are effectively lysing the encapsulated bacteria."
Q2) While one person's microbiome differs when compared to another person,one individual's microbiome is uniform throughout the body; for example,the organisms on the left hand will be the same as the organisms on the right.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Koch's postulates are easily satisfied for viral diseases.
A)True
B)False
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13
Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the patient's cilia are unable to clear his lungs of mucus,which line of host defense is breached?
A)First line of defense
B)Second line of defense
C)Third line of defense
D)First and second lines of defense
Q2) The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are ________.
A)basophils
B)eosinophils
C)neutrophils
D)monocytes
E)lymphocytes
Q3) Plasma ________.
A)is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended
B)is mostly water
C)contains albumin and globulins
D)contains fibrinogen
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Q2) Class I MHC genes code for ________.
A)certain secreted complement components
B)self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes
C)all HLA antigens
D)receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The importance of clonal deletion is that ________.
A)lymphocytes with receptors that recognize self markers are eliminated to preserve immune tolerance
B)worn-out lymphocytes are destroyed to make way for new cells
C)lymphocytes that have been activated during antigen exposure are then removed when the individual recovers
Page 15
D)clones of cells that have the same receptor are deleted to avoid redundancy
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when ________.
A)maternal Rh cells enter an Rh fetus
B)fetal Rh cells enter an Rh mother
C)maternal Rh cells enter an Rh fetus
D)fetal Rh cells enter an Rh mother
E)fetal Rh cells enter an Rh mother
Q2) Desensitization of an individual with allergies by injecting small amounts of the allergen under the skin is effective because it ________.
A)induces the formation of IgG antibodies that bind the the allergen before it is able to bind to the IgE associated with mast cells
B)prevents IgE antibodies from being formed,thus eliminating the degranulation of mast cells
C)changes the nature of the allergy from a type I to a type III,which is easier to treat D)induces the formation of IgA antibodies,which are secreted into the tissues,reducing the amount of degranulation by mast cells in the blood
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Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability to miniaturize genetic testing on a chip much smaller than a microarray plate will see its greatest benefit in developed countries so the large corporations can process genetic data much more efficiently.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of test will detect whole antigens?
A)Cross reaction
B)Agglutination
C)Precipitation
D)Specificity
E)Sensitivity
Q3) Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification?
A)Morphology
B)Gram stain reaction
C)Acid-fast reaction
D)Antibody response
E)Endospores
Q4) The Weil-Felix test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)?
A)Affects mostly newborns and babies
B)An exotoxin-mediated disease
C)Toxin causes bullous lesions
D)Split in skin occurs between the dermis and epidermis
E)Split in skin occurs within the epidermis
Q2) Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
A)Pulmonary
B)Gastrointestinal
C)Cutaneous
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Smallpox is caused by an orthopoxvirus.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although many viruses can cause meningitis,the most common viral cause is
A)measles
B)cytomegalovirus
C)arbovirus
D)enterovirus
E)arenavirus
Q2) Based upon the patient's symptoms,which of the following tests is most important to obtain a diagnosis?
A)CT scan
B)Chest X-ray
C)Complete blood count
D)Lumbar puncture
Q3) While the nervous system is believed to be free from microbiota in the healthy state,research has shown that the gut microbiome plays an important role in the development of the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient states that she acquired HIV from a previous partner.What are the primary modes of HIV transmission?
A)Saliva and blood
B)Sexual contact and blood
C)Sexual contact and body fluids
D)Blood and other body fluids
Q2) Which of the following medications would the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient?
A)Chloroquine
B)Vancomycin
C)Artemisinin
D)Acyclovir
Q3) All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except they ________.
A)have an immunodeficiency
B)have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm³ of blood
C)get repeated,life-threatening opportunistic infections
D)can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders
E)have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
A)All species are human pathogens.
B)Cell walls have waxy lipids.
C)They are acid fast.
D)Usually have a slow growth rate.
E)They are long,slender rods.
Q2) Streptococcus pneumoniae is ________.
A)alpha-hemolytic on blood agar
B)often referred to as pneumococcus
C)a gram-positive diplococcus with a capsule
D)most likely to cause infection in older adults
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Antigenic drift differs from antigenic shift in that antigenic drift reflects the exchange of RNA strands between different virus strains within a common host cell,whereas antigenic shift is the gradual mutation over time of the glycoproteins on the viral envelope that bind to immune cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following helminths is paired with correct characteristics of its pathogenesis?
A)Ascaris lumbricoides - life and transmission cycle B
B)Necator americanus - life and transmission cycle A
C)Trichuris trichuria - life and transmission cycle B
D)Strongyloides stercoralis - life and transmission cycle B
E)Taenia solium - life and transmission cycle A
Q2) Boiling will not kill Giardia lamblia cysts in contaminated water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not considered an accessory organ to the gastrointestinal tract?
A)Stomach
B)Liver
C)Salivary glands
D)Pancreas
E)Gallbladder
Q4) E.coli O157:H7 secretes shiga exotoxin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Syphilitic lesions called ________ develop in the liver,skin,bone,and cartilage during the tertiary stage of syphilis.
A)chancres
B)gummas
C)ulcers
D)nodules
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) During which stage of syphilis does fever,lymphadenopathy,and a red to brown rash occur?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Latent
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract?
A)Flushing action of urine
B)Lysozyme
C)IgA
D)IgG
E)Mucus secretions
Page 23
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Chapter 22: One Health: the Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final step of sewage treatment before release into the environment is
A)sludge digesting
B)skimming
C)filtration
D)chlorination
E)aeration
Q2) Which of the following activities/processes depends upon the activities of microbes?
A)Composting
B)Wastewater treatment
C)Bioremediation
D)Biodegradation
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The traveler is concerned about the safety of drinking water.Which of the following is a common pathogen that can cause a waterborne diarrheal illness?
A)Staphylococcus
B)Lactobacillus
C)Shigella
D)All of the choices will cause diarrheal illness.
Page 24
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