Medical Microbiology Test Bank - 1996 Verified Questions
Medical Microbiology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology is the study of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, that cause diseases in humans. This course explores the biology, pathogenic mechanisms, diagnosis, epidemiology, and control of medically important microbes. Students will learn about host-microbe interactions, principles of infection, antimicrobial agents, and immune responses. Emphasis is placed on clinical manifestations, laboratory identification techniques, prevention strategies, and the role of emerging infectious diseases in public health. The course combines theoretical frameworks with case-based learning to develop practical skills essential for careers in healthcare, laboratory sciences, and research.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 4th Edition by Joan Slonczewski
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14966
Sample Questions
Q1) If you want to produce DNA polymerases like those used in polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for amplification of DNA, from which natural environment would you try to isolate the producers?
Answer: Since DNA polymerase in PCR must survive many rounds of cycling to near-boiling temperatures, the most conducive environment for finding DNA polymerase, such as the enzymes used in PCR reactions, would be searching for microbes in an environment where the temperature is extremely high.
Q2) Florence Nightingale
A) is best known as the founder of professional nursing.
B) was the first to use disinfectant to demonstrate the significance of aseptic technique.
C) developed the pie chart of mortality data during the Crimean War.
D) performed the first controlled experiment on the chemical conversion of matter, known today as chemotherapy.
E) argued that the environment of early Earth contained mainly reduced compounds.
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14967
Sample Questions
Q1) What would happen if a lens had the same refractive index as air?
A) Light would not pass through the lens.
B) The image would be magnified more than with a glass lens.
C) The image would be magnified, but the resolution would be less than with a glass lens.
D) The image would be magnified, and the resolution would be greater than with a glass lens.
E) The image would not be magnified.
Answer: E
Q2) Which type of microscopy is particularly useful to study the surfaces of live bacteria?
A) atomic force
B) scanning electron
C) transmission electron
D) dark-field
E) bright-field
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14968
Sample Questions
Q1) Mary Jane Osborn discovered that inner and outer membranes are different in density by using
A) genetic analysis.
B) X-ray crystallography.
C) ultracentrifugation.
D) protein synthesis.
E) fluorescent.
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are used by prokaryotic cells for attaching to solid surfaces
EXCEPT
A) endospore.
B) capsule.
C) stalks.
D) fimbriae.
E) pili.
Answer: A
Q3) Explain how bacteria can produce proteins more quickly than eukaryotes do.
Answer: Bacteria have no membrane around the nucleoid. This transcription and translation can be coupled with no need to transport the mRNA out of a nucleus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14969
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of all biofilms?
A) They only contain a single species.
B) The EPS are composed of proteins.
C) Cells in the biofilm are dormant until the bacteria leave the biofilm.
D) The EPS is secreted by the bacteria.
E) It is a continuous monolayer surface deposit.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about the substrate-binding protein (SBP) of the ABC transport system?
A) It floats in the periplasm of Gram-negative cells.
B) It is tethered to the cell surface in Gram-positive cells.
C) It binds to the periplasmic face of the channel and releases the solute.
D) It snags the appropriate solute.
E) It is required for both the uptake and efflux systems.
Q3) Quorum sensing begins during which growth stage?
A) lag
B) early log
C) late log
D) stationary
E) death
Q4) Why does binary fission result in an exponential and not a linear growth rate?
Page 6
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14970
Sample Questions
Q1) Which category best describes E. coli?
A) strict aerobe
B) aerotolerant anaerobe
C) facultative anaerobe
D) microaerophile
E) strict anaerobe
Q2) E. coli tolerates a pH range from 2 to 9, which is a ________-fold difference in hydrogen ion concentration.
A) 7
B) 100
C) 1,000
D) 10,000
E) 10,000,000
Q3) Which of the conditions can be labeled as "extreme"?
A) near-neutral pH
B) 25°C
C) pressure of 400 atm
D) a salt concentration of 0.9%
E) pressure of 14 psi
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Q4) Why is oxygen so dangerous for cells and how do cells deal with these problems?
Chapter 6: Viruses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14971
Sample Questions
Q1) The proteins found in animals and plants that can recognize general signs of viral infections are
A) RNA interference.
B) interferons.
C) T-lymphocytes.
D) surface receptors.
E) antibodies.
Q2) To count the number of viruses in a solution, one can perform a plaque assay. Describe how a plaque is generated in the case of a lytic virus and how a virus that does not lyse its host can be detected.
Q3) During the eclipse period of a viral infection, why are the virions undetectable in the growth medium?
Q4) A(n) ________ phage may integrate its genome into that of the host cell.
A) lytic
B) temperate
C) viroid
D) asymmetrical
E) oncogenic
Q5) What happens when marine algae overgrows?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14972
Sample Questions
Q1) How are archaeal genomes and gene expression mechanisms similar to both bacterial and eukaryotic genomes?
Q2) Which of the following is true in the DNA double helix?
A) The strands are parallel.
B) Phosphate groups are located at the 5'-ends of both strands.
C) Adenine complements cytosine.
D) Guanine complements thymine.
E) Only major grooves can be formed.
Q3) Bacteria and archaea that grow at extreme pH or temperature possess which feature to protect their DNA from denaturation?
A) pseudogenes
B) Okazaki fragments
C) DNA-binding proteins
D) major grooves
E) minor grooves
Q4) What is horizontal gene transfer and how does it differ from vertical gene transfer? Is horizontal gene transfer limited to bacteria and archaea?
Q5) How can plasmids ensure that they are passed on from one generation to the next?
Q6) What are the similarities and differences between DNA and RNA?
Page 9
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
76 Verified Questions
76 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14973
Sample Questions
Q1) Which RNA species is a component of the 30S subunit of the ribosome?
A) 5S RNA
B) 16S RNA
C) 23S RNA
D) tRNA
E) mRNA
Q2) Molecules of sRNA do not encode proteins but are used to ________ the stability or translation of specific mRNAs into proteins.
A) start
B) regulate
C) stop
D) speed up
E) slow down
Q3) At times a ribosome may get stuck with an mRNA that has been damaged so that there is no stop codon. What happens to this ribosome to fix this problem?
Q4) What does it mean to annotate a genome? Explain the goals.
Q5) A variety of online software tools are available to aid with analyzing DNA and protein sequences. Name any three and explain what they can be used for.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14974
Sample Questions
Q1) Is an Hfr cell also considered to be F ? Why or why not?
Q2) During conjugation, DNA pol ________ is used for replication beginning at
A) I; oriV
B) III; oriV
C) I; oriT
D) II; oriT
E) III; oriT
Q3) The main components of CRISPR anatomy include
A) methylation sites on palindromic sequences.
B) int genes with att sites for homology.
C) inverted repeats and genes encoding transposase.
D) short direct repeats, spacers, and genes encoding cas proteins.
E) cell surface receptors.
Q4) In order to transfer, an F factor must have which of the following?
A) oriV and its own DNA polymerase
B) oriV and tra genes
C) oriT and tra genes
D) oriT and its own DNA polymerase
E) oriT, tra genes, and its own DNA polymerase
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14975
Sample Questions
Q1) Explain what happens to motility when a chemoattractant is added to bacterial cells.
Q2) What type of RNAs bind to complementary sequences of target transcripts and stimulate or prevent translation?
A) ribosomal
B) transfer
C) messenger
D) antisense
E) small
Q3) In a two-component signal transduction system, a ________ is transferred from a sensor kinase to a ________ in response to an environmental signal.
A) phosphate; sensor domain
B) phosphate; sensor phosphatase
C) phosphate; response regulator
D) magnesium; sensor domain
E) magnesium; response regulator
Q4) Glucose transport into the cell brings about a phenomenon known as inducer exclusion.
Describe how this functions with respect to the lac operon.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 12
Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14976
Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately 60%-80% of Americans acquire herpes simplex, usually HSV-1, in epithelial lesions commonly known as
A) chancres.
B) pox.
C) cold sores.
D) shingles.
E) hives.
Q2) The segmentation of the influenza genome is conducive to ________, which can be defined as the process by which two different viruses swap genome segments to form a new genome.
A) recombination
B) hybridization
C) ligation
D) reassortment
E) shuffling
Q3) How is lambda phage being used to fight the problem of antibiotic resistance in bacteria?
Q4) What is the mechanism by which the viriotherapeutic agent T-VEC specifically kills hard-to-treat tumors?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Biotechniques and Synthetic Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14977
Sample Questions
Q1) What kind of gene expression controls are revealed by operon fusions?
A) transcriptional
B) translational
C) both transcriptional and translational
D) posttranslational
E) pretranscriptional
Q2) The role of kill switches in genetically engineered microorganisms is to
A) serve as a fail-safe mechanism to timely kill the organisms after they have fulfilled their purpose.
B) induce proliferation of reproduction to kill a host cell.
C) destroy organisms that have a risk of biological contamination or invasion.
C) as proteins crystallized in the parasporal body.
D) as part of the spore.
E) in the plasma membrane.
Q4) How is the concept of "logic gates" used in synthetic biology?
Page 14
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
77 Verified Questions
77 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14978
Sample Questions
Q1) Disparate animal groups, such as ruminants and humans, can digest a variety of plant fibers because they harbor cellulase-producing bacteria such as
A) Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus subtilis.
B) Salmonella and Shigella.
C) Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis.
D) Bacteroides and Ruminococcus.
E) Escherichia chrysanthemi and Erwinia uredovora.
Q2) The dye ________ turns ________ in the presence of acid products and is included in fermentation broth for some diagnostic tests.
A) phenol red; yellow
B) aniline blue; green
C) ethidium bromide; pink
D) malachite green; blue
E) MacConkey; white
Q3) Describe the Entner-Doudoroff (ED) pathway. What are the advantages to microorganisms that display the ED pathway?
Q4) Define the human metagenome. Describe an example to demonstrate the importance of the metagenome.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 15
Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14979
Sample Questions
Q1) The following groups or molecules are components of electron transport systems, EXCEPT
a. heme b.
b. \( \lceil 2 \mathrm{Fe}-2 \mathrm{~S}\rceil \) and \( \lceil 4 \mathrm{Fe}-4 \mathrm{~S}\rceil \) iron-sulfur clusters.
c. quinones.
d. flavin mononucleotide.
e. acetyl-S-CoA.
Q2) Which of the following is FALSE regarding dehalorespiration?
A) It is a type of hydrogenotrophy.
B) Cl<sup>-</sup> can be removed from toxic compounds by dehalorespiration.
C) Nitrogen (N<sub>2</sub>) is a by-product of dehalorespiration.
D) Halogenated organic molecules serve as electron acceptors for H<sub>2</sub>.
E) Hydrogenotrophs can be used in bioremediation.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP)?
A) It is an uncoupler.
B) It can be used to measure \( \Delta \) pH.
C) Unprotonated DNP can cross the membrane.
D) Protonated DNP can cross the membrane.
E)It dissipates the proton motive force.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14980
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a tetrapyrrole?
A) cytochrome
B) chlorophyll
C) vitamin B12
D) tryptophan
E) hemoglobin
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is FALSE?
A) One G3P is produced by everything three turns of the cycle.
B) Two molecules of G3P condense to form a six-carbon sugar.
C) One more G3P condenses with a sugar to form a larger molecule used for biosynthesis.
D) PGA is reduced to G3P after the PGA moves out of the carboxysome.
E) G3P is reoxidized to carbon dioxide so that the cycle continues.
Q3) What is the health risk of having nitrates in drinking water? What conditions favor the accumulation of nitrates and nitrites in bodies of water?
Q4) Discuss evidence that supports the idea that glutamate, aspartate, alanine, glycine, and valine were the first amino acids produced by ancient cells.
Q5) How is fatty acid biosynthesis regulated in bacteria?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14981
Sample Questions
Q1) Another term for freeze-drying is
A) radiation.
B) dehydration.
C) filtration.
D) pasteurization.
E) lyophilization.
Q2) Ethanolic fermentation of ________ was important to early civilizations because it provided a drink free of waterborne pathogens.
A) roots
B) flowers and leaves
C) leaves
D) grain and fruit
E) stems and leaves
Q3) What are the three stages in the fermentation of cocoa beans for chocolate (in order)?
A) 1) Bacillus, 2) lactic acid bacteria, 3) yeasts
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14982
Sample Questions
Q1) The most likely ancestor for today's mitochondria according to the endosymbiotic model is a(n)
A) species in the genus Bacillus.
B) rickettsia.
C) member of the clostridia.
D) enterobacterium related to Escherichia coli.
E) cyanobacterium.
Q2) Evidence of life left in the geological record is known as A) biosignatures.
B) genetic markers.
C) abiotic artifacts.
D) enzyme markers.
E) molecular weight markers.
Q3) Which branch of taxonomy deals with the sorting of life-forms into bins (categories) based on genetic relatedness and traits of the organisms?
A) identification
B) classification
C) nomenclature
D) biogeography
E) ethnology
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14983
Sample Questions
Q1) Corynebacterium species have a particular type of cell division that can be described as
A) "half-snapping."
B) the formation of reticulate bodies.
C) the formation of a forespore and a mother cell.
D) stalking.
E) "live birth."
Q2) An ancient ________ is assumed to be in the same lineage as mitochondria.
A) Rhizobium
B) Mycoplasma
C) Clostridium
D) Rickettsia
E) cyanobacterium
Q3) In what environment does Savagella form filaments through the production of intracellular offspring?
A) aquatic, high salinity environments
B) hydrothermal springs
C) surgical wounds
D) mammalian skin tissue
E) mammalian gut epithelium
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14984
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe two possible explanations for the deep branching position of multiple methanogenic clades in the euryarchaeotes.
Q2) In the haloarchaea, the red pigment bacterioruberin protects cells from damage by A) light.
B) salt.
C) heat.
D) acid.
E) cold.
Q3) Methanogens are classified within how many major orders?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
Q4) Crenarchaeol is a biosignature for Thaumarchaeota. Describe its structure.
Q5) Describe the physiological adaptations found in haloarchaea that compensate for the high internal potassium chloride concentrations.
Q6) What are some of the unique features of archaeal gene regulation?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14985
Sample Questions
Q1) Why are sponges, jellyfish, worms, reptiles, humans, yeast, and microsporidia placed in the same eukaryotic clade?
Q2) Physarum polycephalum is a type of plasmodial slime mold that can be seen as a yellow mass growing on decaying wood. This organism produces
A) a fruiting body in which individual cells remain unicellular.
B) no fruiting bodies and no spore formations.
C) a giant multinucleated cell that produces fruiting bodies.
D) fruiting bodies within a calcified shell structure.
E) no fruiting bodies and spores that move using pseudopodia.
Q3) Neocallomastix sp. is/does NOT
A) classified as a Chytridiomycota.
B) an obligate aerobe.
C) possess flagellated reproductive forms called zoospores.
D) contain hydrogenosomes evolved from mitochondria.
E) ferment plant material in bovine rumen.
Q4) Why are phylogenetic data in the domain Eukarya overall harder to obtain than phylogenetic evidence in either the Bacteria or Archaea domains? How has this affected the systematics of Eukarya?
Q5) What are choanoflagellates and what is their importance in evolutionary studies?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14986
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following require endosymbiotic protists and bacteria to digest plant material such as lignin and cellulose?
A) termites
B) cattle
C) gorillas
D) humans
E) microplankton
Q2) The availability of oxygen and other electron acceptors is the most important determinant of the types of metabolism in a habitat. Which of the following is NOT true about anaerobic environments?
A) They have slower rates of assimilation compared to aerobic habitats.
B) Their rates of dissimilation are slower compared to aerobic environments.
C) Microbes sometimes use minerals such as NO2- to oxidize organic compounds.
D) Anaerobic microbial biomass far exceeds that of the oxygenated biosphere.
E) Respiration of organic compounds is highly dissimilatory, reducing them to CO<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) Describe the process of haustorial parasitism.
Q4) Propose a method to measure biomass production in terms of DNA synthesis. What are the limitations?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14987
Sample Questions
Q1) In the marine photic zone, the rate of photosynthesis
A) is equal to the amount of CO<sub>2</sub> released from the niche.
B) exceeds the rate of respiration.
C) is less than the respiration rate.
D) does not affect carbon cycling.
E) is inversely related to rate of respiration.
Q2) Which of these is involved in commercial chemical fertilizer production?
A) lightning strikes
B) the Haber process
C) cellular nitrogen fixation
D) nitrification
E) denitrification
Q3) If life is found on other planets, it will almost certainly be
A) thermophilic.
B) microbial.
C) barophilic.
D) psychrophilic.
E) multicellular.
Q4) Explain how the Mississippi River drainage into the Gulf of Mexico off the coast of Louisiana leads to a large dead zone.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14988
Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor does NOT account for the hygiene hypothesis?
A) exposure to animals
B) caves
C) soap
D) bugs
E) feces
Q2) Which of the following innate immunity mechanisms is mismatched with its associated structure or body fluid?
A) lysozyme-tears
B) mucociliary elevator-intestines
C) highly acidic pH-stomach
D) acidic pH, sebum, salinity-skin
E) low pH-urogenital tract
Q3) Defensins are short cationic peptides that
A) are produced by skin, GI-tract, and lung cells for defense when stimulated.
B) bind to specific protein receptors to gain entry into microbial cells.
C) are only produced by phagocytes upon activation.
D) inhibit microbial DNA synthesis.
E) are equally effective at killing eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
Q4) Explain the distinguishing characteristics of innate and adaptive immunity.
Page 25
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14989
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is type AB blood considered to be the "universal recipient"? Explain what this means in terms of the antigens and antibodies present in blood types.
Q2) If a person was unable to undergo negative selection during T-cell education, what is T-cell education, and why would this be a severe immune problem?
Q3) A mutation that caused a person to have an ineffective complement C6 protein would have a direct effect on formation of
A) complement-antibody complex.
B) C3 convertase.
C) C3b opsonins for phagocytosis.
D) membrane attack complex.
E) C5 convertase.
Q4) The antigen-binding receptor expressing hepatitis antigen in an infected liver cell would be
A) TCR.
B) MHC II.
C) MHC I.
D) CD4.
E) CD8.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14990
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about a patient who died from endotoxin pathologies?
A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation may have contributed to death.
B) The methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, or MRSA, superbug is a likely suspect.
C) The patient may have died from hypotension.
D) The patient may not have run a fever if AIDS was present.
E) The lipid A in the endotoxin is responsible for the virulence.
Q2) Pathogenicity islands include all of the following EXCEPT that A) genes are not expressed as operons.
B) GC/AT ratio differs from the rest of the genome.
C) residual phage genomes flank the island.
D) they are often linked to tRNA.
E) they encode the type III protein secretion (T3SS) export systems.
Q3) Which of the following produces a toxin that disrupts protein synthesis?
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Shigella dysenteriae
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Bacillus anthracis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 27
Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14991
Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ vaccine is recommended for administration when one becomes an adolescent (11-12 years).
A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) pneumococcal
D) meningococcal
E) tuberculosis
Q2) German measles and ________ are different names describing the same disease.
A) shingles
B) rubeola
C) rubella
D) varicella
E) smallpox
Q3) Many infectious diseases display similar ________, making diagnosis difficult.
A) syndromes
B) symptoms
C) vectors
D) disease mechanisms
E) modes of transmission
Q4) Describe epigenetic silencing and the role it plays in malaria.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14992
Sample Questions
Q1) You are designing a new antibiotic to treat infections caused by the fungal agent Cryptococcus neoformans, a potentially fatal lung infection in patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy. What issues could you run into with selective toxicity, and what strategies would you use in your development?
Q2) A new antibiotic, platensimycin, was recently discovered from what organism?
A) Bacillus subtilis
B) Bacillus thuringiensis
C) Escherichia platentis
D) Streptomyces platensis
E) Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q3) Why is metronidazole uneffective against an aerobic bacteria like Staphylococcus aureas?
Q4) An MIC test can determine all of the following EXCEPT
A) the lowest level of an antibiotic that kills a particular bacteria.
B) the highest level of an antibiotic that kills a particular bacteria.
C) levels of an antibiotic that do not kill a particular bacteria.
D) drug susceptibility and resistance.
E) whether the drug is bacteriostatic or bactericidal.
Q5) Why are drug-resistant bacteria less viable in comparison with wild type?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/14993
Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the epidemiological terms "endemic," "epidemic," and "pandemic." Give an example of each to support your answer.
Q2) The cause of the infection from which a patient suffers is best known as the
A) clinical agent.
B) etiological agent.
C) pathogenic culprit.
D) epidemiological agent.
E) antibiotic menace.
Q3) The correct definition of "bioweapon" is any
A) agent categorized as a biosafety level IV organism.
B) infectious disease spread person to person with a low mortality rate.
C) agent causing widespread psychological trauma, with few casualties.
D) microbial agent or pieces of microbes that can be loaded into bombs.
E) infectious agent or toxin that has a high virulence and/or mortality rate.
Q4) Chocolate agar is considered ________ in comparison to blood agar.
A) more nutrient rich (capable of growing a greater variety of bacteria)
B) less nutrient rich (capable of growing fewer variety of bacteria)
C) equally nutrient rich (since they both contain red blood cells)
D) a chemically defined media (whereas blood agar is not)
E) better for determining hemolytic bacterial reactions
Page 30
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
