Medical Microbiology Study Guide Questions - 1527 Verified Questions
Medical Microbiology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology explores the biology of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that are responsible for human disease. This course covers microbial structure, classification, and physiology, with an emphasis on pathogenic mechanisms, host immune responses, modes of transmission, principles of infection control, and laboratory identification techniques. Students will also analyze case studies to understand clinical manifestations, diagnosis, treatment options, and prevention strategies for infectious diseases.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience 1st Edition by John W. Foster
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46013
Sample Questions
Q1) Thiobacillus ferrooxidans is a microorganism that gains its energy from the oxidation of ferrous iron (Fe² )to ferric iron (Fe³ )and hydrogen sulfide (H S)to sulfuric acid (H SO ).Based on this information,T.ferrooxidans is an example of a A) nitrogen fixer.
B) lithotroph.
C) endosymbiont.
D) biofilm participant.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements does NOT provide evidence in support of the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells?
A) The DNA sequence of mitochondria is similar to the DNA sequence of respiring bacteria.
B) The DNA of chloroplasts is circular like the DNA of phototrophic bacteria.
C) Mitochondria are capable of free-living outside of a eukaryotic cell.
D) There is a lot of sequence homology between the DNA sequences of chloroplasts and phototrophic bacteria.
Answer: C
Q3) In 1884,the Gram stain was devised to distinguish bacteria from ________ cells.
Answer: human
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46014
Sample Questions
Q1) Walter defecates in the company restroom,does not wash his hands thoroughly,and then uses the office coffee pot,transferring bacteria onto the handle of the pot.Marcia pours some coffee and then goes to her desk to eat a muffin,ingesting some of the bacteria she picked up from the coffee pot.What is the route of transmission of this infection?
A) fecal-oral
B) respiratory
C) urogenital
D) parenteral
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following might be an effective means of limiting a disease spread via a parenteral route?
A) not sharing needles
B) wearing condoms during sexual activity
C) wearing a mask that covers the nose and mouth
D) cooking foods thoroughly
Answer: A
Q3) A fever is often a host response to a pathogen.As such,fever is an example of
Answer: immunopathology
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46015
Sample Questions
Q1) Assume you stain Bacillus with malachite green with heat and then counterstain with safranin.What type of stain would you be performing?
A) a differential and endospore stain
B) a differential and Gram stain
C) a simple and endospore stain
D) a simple and Gram stain
Answer: A
Q2) In a compound microscope,which is the accurate pathway of light?
A) light source, condenser, objective, specimen, eyepiece
B) condenser, light source, eyepiece, specimen, objective
C) eyepiece, objective, specimen, condenser, light source
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46016
Sample Questions
Q1) You fluorescently label the phospholipid head groups of a small number of phospholipids in the outer leaflet of the cell membrane to observe them over time with a microscope.At time zero,all the fluorescent label is concentrated in one spot.What will you observe at a later time point?
A) The fluorescently tagged phospholipids will still be together, concentrated in a spot.
B) The fluorescently tagged phospholipids will be spread out, but will still all be part of the outer leaflet.
C) The fluorescently tagged phospholipids will be spread out in the outer leaflet and some will have flip-flopped into the inner leaflet as well.
D) It is impossible to predict what will happen to the labeled phospholipids over time.
Q2) The enzyme commonly used in PCR,Taq polymerase,synthesizes what macromolecule?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) proteins
D) polysaccharides
Q3) What is a condensation reaction?
Q4) ________ is the general name for a six-carbon sugar.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 6
Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46017
Sample Questions
Q1) Lipopolysaccharides are found in
A) Gram-positive bacteria.
B) Gram-negative bacteria.
C) archaea.
D) eukaryotic microbes.
Q2) Pili and stalks enable bacterial
A) adherence.
B) chemotaxis.
C) photosynthesis.
D) symport.
Q3) The bacterial nucleoid contains loops of DNA that emanate from a central point called the ________.
Q4) Which of the following shows the correct path a secreted protein takes in a eukaryotic cell?
A) Golgi complex, rough ER, vesicle, cell membrane
B) vesicle, rough ER, Golgi complex, cell membrane
C) rough ER, Golgi complex, vesicle, cell membrane
D) rough ER, Golgi complex, cell membrane, vesicle
Q5) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46018
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is needed as an important enzyme cofactor for microbial growth?
A) Na<sup>+</sup>
B) Mg²<sup>+</sup>
C) sulfur
D) oxygen
Q2) Which of the following is NOT required for microorganisms to grow and divide?
A) DNA replication
B) binary fission
C) equatorial septum formation
D) conjugation
Q3) If you start with 14 organisms at time 0,how many organisms will you have after 9 generations,assuming exponential growth?
A) 126
B) 512
C) 7,168
D) 14,336
Q4) Explain why extremophiles are not a pathogenic threat to humans.
Q5) Aerobic bacteria are capable of using ________ as a terminal electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.
8
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46019
Sample Questions
Q1) An organism gains energy using H as an electron donor and sulfate as an electron acceptor.This organism is categorized as an
A) aerobic lithotroph.
B) anaerobic lithotroph.
C) aerobic organotroph.
D) anaerobic organotroph.
Q2) During photosynthesis,ATP is produced via A) oxidation of glucose.
B) transfer of a phosphate from NADPH onto ADP.
C) ATP synthase powered by a pmf.
D) ATP synthase powered directly by light.
Q3) The ultimate goal of the Calvin cycle is to produce ________.
Q4) Which of the following is true of nitrogen fixation?
A) It requires ATP but not reducing agents.
B) It requires reducing agents but not ATP.
C) It is an important reaction carried out by organisms in all three domains of life.
D) Only prokaryotes have the metabolic capability to fix nitrogen.
Q5) Compare and contrast anaerobic respiration and fermentation.How are they similar and how do they differ?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46020
Sample Questions
Q1) Plasmids usually contain genes that are
A) important for cell survival in all environments.
B) important for cell survival in particular environments.
C) not important for cell survival in any environments.
D) composed of single-stranded DNA.
Q2) A mutation known as a pyrimidine dimer is usually caused by
A) acridine orange.
B) DNA polymerase errors.
C) UV light.
D) X-rays.
Q3) Two common levels of regulation of protein activity are transcriptional control and posttranslational control.Please discuss the differences between the two in terms of speed of response and energy efficiency.
Q4) What enzyme is used to produce cDNA?
A) DNA polymerase III
B) DNA ligase
C) RNA polymerase
D) reverse transcriptase
Q5) Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
Page 10
Q6) Transcription of genes starts at regions of the genome called ________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46021
Sample Questions
Q1) What are two reasons why the definition of a species is problematic for bacteria?
Q2) How does one begin to identify a predicted protein?
A) experimentally determine its amino acid sequence
B) compare its predicted amino acid or DNA sequence to that of known proteins
C) analyze its RNA sequence
D) determine the sequence of its paralog
Q3) Create an example that shows how random mutations lead to natural selection and divergence of organisms.
Q4) A protein called integrase is encoded by ________ and allows for site-specific recombination in C.diphtheria.
A) E. coli
B) S. pneumoniae
C) C. diphtheria
D) beta phage
Q5) Describe how gene duplication leads to paralogs.
Q6) The ________ gene was used as a molecular clock to reveal the divergence of three domains of life.
Q7) The enzyme ________ is important for generalized recombination.
Q8) A ________ relationship develops between endosymbionts and their hosts.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46022
Sample Questions
Q1) There are multiple causative agents of pneumonia.Which of the following pairs below include two bacterial species known to cause pneumonia?
A) Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Vibrio cholera
C) Vibrio parahaemolyticus and Bordetella pertussis
D) Helicobacter pylori and Francisella tularensis
Q2) The form of a Chlamydia species outside of a host cell is referred to as a(n)________ body.
Q3) Many Proteobacteria are referred to as ________ because they oxidize minerals for energy.
Q4) A tissue sample from a woman's reproductive tract reveals human cells that contain growing and dividing reticulate bodies with netlike chromosomes.Which of the following bacterial species has most likely infected the human cells?
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Coxiella burnetii
Q5) Describe the two developmental stages of the Chlamydias.
Q6) Cyanobacteria are the only bacteria that produce ________.
Page 12
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46023
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is perianal itching significant in the life cycle of pinworms?
A) When a host scratches the anus, pinworm larvae enter the bloodstream.
B) Eggs are trapped under fingernails and transferred to new hosts.
C) Scratching allows mature worms to break through the surface of the skin.
D) Transmission of pinworms ends when the host scratches the anus.
Q2) How do filamentous fungi grow in length?
A) Their hyphae undergo mitosis without cell division.
B) Their hyphae undergo meiosis to produce new cells.
C) They produce asci by mitosis without cell division.
D) They produce asci by meiosis without cell division.
Q3) Fungal filaments associated with the root systems of trees that expand the trees' access to water and nutrients are known as
A) mycorrhizae.
B) molds.
C) chitin.
D) saprophytes.
Q4) What distinguishing characteristic places helminths and arthropods under the category of "eukaryotic microbiology" and outside of the category of "true" microbes?
Q5) Describe two positive impacts fungi have on our environment.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Viruses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46024
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following stages of the influenza infection cycle is inhibited by Tamiflu?
A) the coating of the capsid envelope
B) the assembly of the capsid
C) the cleaving of the host receptor and release of the virus by budding
D) the packaging of viral genome segments and exit from the nucleus
Q2) Which of the following is NOT caused by an aberrant protein?
A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B) scrapie
C) hepatitis
D) kuru
Q3) Which of the following could possibly be an ancestor of the large asymmetrical DNA Vaccinia virus?
A) a degenerate single-celled organism
B) a bacteriophage
C) influenza
D) a cow
Q4) Lentiviruses like HIV can be used positively for ________.
Q5) Explain how antigenic drift requires individuals to get a flu vaccine yearly.
Q6) Influenza contains a ________ genome.
Page 14
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46025
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major downside to the often necessary long-term treatment with fungal drugs?
A) dry skin
B) high cost
C) antifungal resistance
D) potential toxic side effects
Q2) The function of polymyxin is similar to that of a detergent.What cell structure will be most affected by this drug?
A) cell membrane
B) cell wall
C) ribosome
D) chromosome
Q3) Describe how the antibiotic resistance mechanism using drug efflux pumps works.How could the medical community respond to this resistance mechanism to overcome it?
Q4) Highly active antiretroviral therapy is used to treat
A) HPV.
B) HIV.
C) hepatitis C.
D) influenza.
Page 15
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46026
Sample Questions
Q1) Sequestered body sites tend to be ________.
Q2) Explain two potential negative effects of using phage therapy to treat bacterial infections.
Q3) Which of the following situations demonstrates the risk of a microbiome?
A) Mary suffers from colon cancer. While being treated, she develops an opportunistic Bacteroides fragilis infection.
B) Andy is lactose intolerant. His body does not break down lactose, so the microorganisms in the gut do it for him.
C) Jenna is prone to yeast infections, so she routinely eats yogurt and takes a probiotic supplement to increase the amount of lactic acid bacteria in her vagina.
D) Anthony suffers from debilitating diarrhea after a lengthy course of antibiotics to treat his MRSA infection.
Q4) Production of indole by E.coli tells host intestinal epithelial cells to tighten tight junctions and increase production of ________.
Q5) Give three reasons for why the microbiome should be considered an independent organ system.
Q6) Give an example of how our cells communicate with the microbiome.
Page 16
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46027
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT A) extravasation.
B) release of cytokines.
C) antibody synthesis.
D) vasodilation.
Q2) A specialized macrophage located in skin-associated lymphoid tissue (SALT)is called
A) macrophage.
B) alveolar macrophage.
C) a dendritic cell.
D) a Langerhans cell.
Q3) Peyer's patches are located within gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT).Explain the function of Peyer's patches in regard to their function in the immune system.
Q4) Lysozyme is an example of a(n)
A) chemical barrier.
B) physical barrier.
C) defensin.
D) adaptive immune response.
Q5) Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46028
Sample Questions
Q1) Rank the following macromolecules in terms of their antigenicity and explain your ranking: carbohydrates,proteins,lipids,and nucleic acids.
Q2) One health risk associated with excessive cytokine release is the chance of
A) severe tissue damage.
B) cytokines destroying antibodies.
C) damage to virally infected cells.
D) inactivating mitosis.
Q3) Which of the following statements correctly describes the molecules that elicit an immune response?
A) Antigens are small molecules that must be bound to an immunogen to elicit an immune response.
B) Small segments of an antigen that elicit an immune response are called epitopes.
C) Haptens are proteins that elicit the synthesis of antibodies and are also known as antigens.
D) Immunogens are small segments of antigens that are recognized by the immune system.
Q4) Describe the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC).
Q5) Cytotoxic T cells display the surface antigen ________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46029
Sample Questions
Q1) Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with A) IgE antibodies.
B) macrophages.
C) IgG antibodies.
D) histamine.
Q2) The process that detects and eliminates cancer cells as they arise is called a(n)________.
Q3) CASE HISTORY
Richard,who is blood group B,was undergoing surgery after a car accident and accidentally received a transfusion with type A blood.Within hours,Richard experienced chills and lowered blood pressure.His urine turned red with blood.All these symptoms indicate an ABO blood group incompatibility. Is there an identifiable allergen present in this case study? How can you tell?
Q4) All of the following are examples of passive immunization EXCEPT A) injection of immune globulin.
B) breast-feeding. C) antitoxins.
D) vaccinia virus.
Q5) Antigens that possess structures similar in shape to host structures are called
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46030
Sample Questions
Q1) Biofilm infections are important clinically because
A) WBC easily penetrate biofilms.
B) bacteria in biofilms are more susceptible to antimicrobial compounds.
C) bacteria in biofilms can persist against host defenses.
D) bacteria in biofilms do not grown on medical devices.
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding type II secretion systems?
A) The type II secretion genes are homologous to the type IV pilus.
B) Type II secretion mechanisms are static with no twitching motility.
C) Proteins secreted by type II secretion systems are secreted directly out of the cell.
D) Shiga toxin is a well-known example of a protein that a type II secretion mechanism expels.
Q3) Cervical warts are caused by
A) HBV.
B) HPV.
C) HIV.
D) herpes.
Q4) Organized,high-density communities of cells that embed themselves in self-made exopolymer matrices are called ________.
Q5) Most pathogenicity island genes were acquired by ________ transmission.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46031
Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the cycle of acne.What is the causative agent and why are some individuals more prone to acne than others?
Q2) An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat.Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother,who had shingles.What infection does the eight-year-old have?
A) chickenpox
B) measles
C) rubella
D) fever blisters
Q3) The greatest single cause of infectious blindness is A) neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia.
B) keratoconjunctivitis.
C) trachoma.
D) pinkeye.
Q4) Inflammation of the thin clear membrane lining the eyelid and eye is properly termed
A) keratitis.
B) trachoma.
C) conjunctivitis.
D) opthalmia neonatorum.
21
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46032
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is considered part of the upper respiratory tract?
A) trachea
B) primary bronchi
C) alveoli
D) larynx
Q2) Which of the following infections would affect the upper respiratory tract but NOT the lower respiratory tract?
A) the common cold
B) pneumonia
C) tuberculosis
D) bronchitis
Q3) A day-care worker reports that two young children have been coughing all day.She first noticed that both children had runny noses a few days ago,but is not sure if they had fevers.She states that they both sound like barking seals.Most likely these children have
A) the common cold.
B) croup.
C) influenza.
D) respiratory syncytial disease.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 22
Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46033
Sample Questions
Q1) How do rickettsioses,such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever,cause systemic symptoms?
A) Rickettsia species are obligate intracellular bacteria that infect endothelial cells throughout the body.
B) Rickettsia species are phagocytized by macrophages and travel throughout the blood within macrophages.
C) Rickettsia species infect lymphocytes and use the lymphatic system to move throughout the body.
D) Rickettsia species infect fibroblasts within connective tissues and use the reticuloendothelial system to move throughout the body.
Q2) A human vaccine is available to prevent
A) bubonic plague.
B) salmonellosis.
C) typhoid fever.
D) Lyme disease.
Q3) When traveling to tropical and subtropical areas where Aedes aegypti mosquitoes are endemic,U.S.citizens could receive a vaccine to prevent ________.
Q4) The asexual cycle of plasmodium within humans occurs within the ________ system.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46034
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common sign of a gastrointestinal infection is ________,having three or more loose stools per day.
Q2) Which is NOT a common cause of periodontal disease?
A) Aggregatibacter
B) Porphyromonas
C) Bacteroides
D) Lactobacillus
Q3) Adult infection with ________ can sometimes lead to meningitis.
A) rotavirus
B) mumps virus
C) hepatitis A
D) hepatitis D
Q4) A recall on spinach potentially contaminated with Yersinia enterocolitica occurs.Sally hears about the recall but has kept her spinach in the refrigerator.She figures that even if her spinach had been contaminated,the organism will not grow in the refrigerator.Therefore,the number of organisms present will be so small that even if her spinach is contaminated,she will not be affected.Is Sally correct? Explain.
Q5) Explain how infections with Yersinia enterocolitica can cause symptoms outside of the gastrointestinal tract.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46035
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about the female reproductive system?
A) The entire female reproductive system is internal.
B) The mature oocyte is deposited directly into the uterus.
C) The uterus ends at the opening of the vagina.
D) The uterus is the site of fertilization.
Q2) CASE HISTORY
Odonna,a pregnant 18-year-old woman,came to the Nassau County,New York,urgent-care clinic with a low-grade fever,malaise,and headache.She was sent home with a diagnosis of influenza.She again sought treatment seven days later after she discovered a macular rash (flat,red)developing on her trunk,arms,palms of her hands,and soles of her feet.She thought maybe she was allergic to the new soap she was using,but the rash was not itchy or painful.Further questioning of the patient revealed that one year ago she had a painless ulcer on her vagina that healed spontaneously.She was diagnosed with secondary syphilis,a stage of the disease that can mimic many other conditions.She was given a single intramuscular injection of penicillin and told that her sexual partners had to be treated as well. If Odonna's infection had not been correctly diagnosed at this stage,how might the disease have progressed,and what complications would she be likely to face? Would these be different if the patient were male?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46036
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of polio EXCEPT
A) the portal of entry is ingestion of contaminated water.
B) most cases are severe and result in paralysis.
C) it replicates in the throat and small intestines.
D) the Sabin vaccine contains attenuated strains of the virus.
Q2) All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT that
A) it is also known as "sleeping sickness."
B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.
C) it is transmitted by the tsetse fly.
D) death occurs without proper treatment.
Q3) Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is A) tetanus immune globulin.
B) tetanus toxoid.
C) penicillin.
D) debridement.
Q4) One of the complications of poliomyelitis is damage to the ________ nerve,which interferes with breathing.
Q5) Inflammation of the meninges is called ________,while inflammation of the brain is called ________.
Page 26
Q6) A small proteinaceous infectious particle is known as a ________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46037
Sample Questions
Q1) A young child arrives at a local hospital with neck stiffness,nausea,and vomiting.The attending physician suspects bacterial meningitis and sends a sample of cerebrospinal fluid to the hospital laboratory.Which of the following actions would most quickly identify the bacterial species?
A) using sequential biochemical tests in which each test dictates the next test
B) carrying out a series of tests simultaneously and then interpreting the tests sequentially
C) plating the species first on selective media to eliminate the number of normal microbiota
D) obtaining a sequence of the patient's genome to determine his or her susceptibility to specific microbes
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of using polymerase chain reaction (PCR)instead of relying on biochemical tests?
A) PCR can be completed within hours instead of days.
B) Only PCR provides a conclusive identification of a bacterium.
C) PCR provides information about antibiotic sensitivity.
D) PCR does not require specialized equipment.
Q3) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best identified by using a staining technique called a(n)________ stain.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46038
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT involve testing a hypothesis?
A) descriptive epidemiology
B) analytical epidemiology
C) experimental study
D) cohort study
Q2) Which of the following bioweapons would be used with the intent of terrorizing people rather than inflicting death on large numbers of individuals?
A) a virus that is easily transmitted between people and to which most individuals in a population are susceptible
B) a virus with a low infectious dose and high mortality that is easily dispersed through the air
C) a virus that is not easily transmitted between people and has a high infectious dose
D) a virus that is easily dispersed from one infected person to many within a day and has a high mortality rate
Q3) Explain why it is important to recognize "patient zero" during an epidemic of a disease such as severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
Q4) Explain the relationship between the terms endemic,epidemic,and pandemic.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46039
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of aeration basins at wastewater treatment facilities?
A) Aeration encourages fermentation.
B) Aeration maximizes microbial breakdown of pollutants to carbon dioxide and nitrates.
C) Aeration limits free-floating populations of bacteria.
D) Aeration allows filamentous methanogens to metabolize acetate within the interior of flocs.
Q2) Bacteria,such as Listeria monocytogenes,that are able to grow at refrigeration temperatures are referred to as ________.
Q3) Organic molecules in lake water are consumed as food and combined with oxygen by ________.
Q4) The fixed form of nitrogen (ammonium ion and ammonia)can be oxidized for energy by
A) methanogens.
B) nitrifiers.
C) lithotrophs.
D) fermenters.
Q5) List two ways in which food fermentation benefits humans and provide one example for each.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
