Medical Microbiology Study Guide Questions - 1245 Verified Questions
Medical Microbiology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology is a branch of microbiology focused on the study of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that cause diseases in humans. This course explores the mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity, diagnostic laboratory techniques, epidemiology of infectious diseases, host-pathogen interactions, and principles of infection control. Through lectures, laboratory sessions, and case studies, students gain foundational knowledge on microbial identification, antimicrobial susceptibility, immune responses, and public health implications of infectious agents, preparing them for further study and research in medical and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 14th Edition by Patricia Tille
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Sample Questions
Q1) Species identification is based on all of the following except:
A)DNA-DNA Hybridization.
B)16sRNA sequencing.
C)Cell wall composition.
D)Colonial pigmentation.
Answer: D
Q2) A bacterium that has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas)to another genus (Burkholderia)would be correctly noted as which one of the following?
A)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia)
B)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas)
C)Pseudomonas,formerly Burkholderia
D)Burkholderia,formerly Pseudomonas
Answer: B
Q3) The difference between a subspecies and biotype is:
A)a subspecies has the same genetic makeup.
B)a subspecies has a differential expression of the same genes.
C)a subspecies is genetically different than the type species.
D)a biotype and subspecies are the same.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure
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Q1) The enzyme that adds nucleotide bases to each growing daughter strand in the replication process is called:
A)replication enzymes.
B)DNA polymerase.
C)insertion sequence enzymes.
D)transcriptase.
Answer: B
Q2) Mutation is defined as the:
A)change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another.
B)internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism's genome.
C)process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another.
D)uptake of free DNA from the environment and recombination with the recipient's homologous DNA.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) Latent infections are those that:
A)develop and progress slowly.
B)develop quickly and end soon.
C)exist as a silent phase in which the agent is causing no notable effect.
D)develop quickly but last long.
Answer: C
Q2) Pathogens are able to produce enzymes that directly destroy or inactivate antibodies.These enzymes are referred to as:
A)proteases.
B)nucleases.
C)collagenases.
D)polymerases.
Answer: A
Q3) Pathogenic organisms are transmitted through a variety of routes including all of the following except:
A)eating.
B)sexual contact.
C)contaminated food.
D)respiratory droplets.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) A cleaning solution used on the laboratory bench top to kill bacteria that are potentially harmful to humans would be called a(n):
A)surfactant.
B)disinfectant.
C)biocide.
D)antiseptic.
Q2) The autoclave sterilizes material by:
A)applying dry heat at high temperatures and pressure.
B)infusing gaseous chemicals that kill organisms.
C)applying moist heat at high temperatures and increased pressure.
D)cleaving protein bonds found in most biological agent cell walls.
Q3) The laboratory receives a blood soaked gauze pad with some tissue wrapped in it for culture in a sterile container.The proper disposal of the material will include:
A)placement in the appropriate biohazard container.
B)placement in the garbage as long as it is enclosed in the sterile container.
C)treatment with a disinfectant prior to disposal in the biohazard container.
D)placement in the appropriate biohazard container and sterilization for contamination with organic material.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Increased concentrations of CO (5% to 10%)and approximately 15% O produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q2) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of one group of organisms,but not another,by containing antimicrobials,dyes,or alcohol?
A)Selective
B)Nutritive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
Q3) Specimens for microbiologic studies should be:
A)transported to the laboratory within 48 hours of collection.
B)collected in nonsterile specimen containers.
C)transported in sealable,leak-proof plastic bags with a separate section for paperwork.
D)sent to the laboratory on ice,no matter what type of specimen.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) The value of indirect Gram staining from a broth culture in comparison to a agar plate culture is:
A)there is no significant difference in the results of the indirect smear technique.
B)organisms tend to demonstrate natural cell shape and arrangement in liquid medium.
C)organisms tend to demonstrate more growth and easier visualization from agar plates.
D)none of the answers are correct.
Q2) When assessing the quality of a direct Gram stain,neutrophils should appear as:
A)cells with pink cytoplasm and darker more purplish nuclear lobes.
B)cells with pink cytoplasm and pink nuclear lobes.
C)cells with purple cytoplasm and pink nuclear lobes.
D)cells with purple cytoplasm and purple nuclear lobes.
Q3) The fluorochrome stain used to study a fungus is:
A)calcofluor white.
B)acridine orange.
C)auramine.
D)immunofluorescence.
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) Which medium can be described as containing hemoglobin,hemin (X factor),and the co-enzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)(V factor)?
A)Chocolate
B)CNA blood
C)BHI
D)Thioglycollate broth
Q2) A bacterial colony can be described as:
A)sufficiently large numbers of a bacterium that can be observable with the unaided eye.
B)derived from many different types of bacterial cells.
C)belonging to different genera and species.
D)having different genetic and phenotypic characteristics.
Q3) Oxidative or fermentative media were set up on an organism suspected of being P.aeruginosa.What results would be expected?
A)Yellow in both tubes
B)Green in both tubes
C)Yellow in the open tube and green in the closed tube
D)Green in the open tube and yellow in the closed tube
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) Gen-Probe Mycobacterium tuberculosis direct test uses which type of nucleic acid amplification test?
Q2) The target in the hybridization assay can be described as:
A)originating from the unknown organism to be detected or identified.
B)a reporter molecule that chemically forms a complex with the single-stranded probe DNA.
C)originating from an organism of known identity.
D)an enzyme that adds nucleotides during the replication process.
Q3) Analysis of the number of target molecules in the original clinical specimen can be determined using which of the following molecular techniques?
A)Arbritary Primed PCR
B)Peptide Nucleic Acid (PNA)FISH
C)Nested PCR
D)Quantitative PCR
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Chapter 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection
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Q1) For an accurate diagnostic of a current infection,acute and convalescent sera should reflect a(n)_____ in the patient's antibody titer of _____ doubling dilutions.
Q2) Opsonizing antibodies are those that function by:
A)attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by the lytic action of complement.
B)binding to and blocking surface receptors for host cells.
C)attaching to the surface of pathogens and making the pathogens more amenable to ingestion by phagocytic cells.
D)attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by chemotaxis.
Q3) Monoclonal antibodies are those that:
A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C)are produced by the offspring of a single hybrid cell.
D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Q1) Antimicrobial agents that inhibit bacterial growth but generally do not kill the organism are known as:
A)bactericidal.
B)antibiotic.
C)bacteriostatic.
D)antagonistic.
Q2) Penicillin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA)synthesis inhibition
Q3) Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive organism that produces the enzyme -lactamase,which renders certain types of antibiotics inactive.The mode of action that is prevented in certain antibiotics sensitive to this enzyme is:
A)cell wall synthesis.
B)protein synthesis to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
C)protein synthesis to the 50S ribosomal subunit.
D)deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)synthesis.
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Chapter 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) Up-to-date tables that list potential antimicrobial agents to include in batteries for testing against particular organisms or organism groups are published by the:
A)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
B)U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
C)Manual of Standard Operating Procedures (MSOP).
D)Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI).
Q2) Quality control results for disk diffusion AST using appropriate ATCC strains of bacteria showed zone size diameters decreasing over time for a few antimicrobials.Which of the following statements is a possible explanation?
A)Antimicrobial disks were stored in a frost-free freezer.
B)Concentration of the bacterial inoculum was 5× 10<sup>5</sup> CFU/mL.
C)Depth of Mueller-Hinton agar plates measured 3 mm.
D)Plates were incubated less than 16 hours in ambient air.
Q3) Bactericidal tests should be performed:
A)for severe and life-threatening infections.
B)for every clinically significant organism isolated from a clinical specimen.
C)for evaluation of antimicrobial agents usually considered bacteriostatic.
D)for bacteria isolated from wounds,whether or not they are clinically significant.
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Chapter 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which virulent and important human pathogen can also be recovered from the nares,perineum,and other skin sites of healthy people,especially in the hospital setting?
A)Micrococcus luteus
B)S.intermedius
C)S.aureus
D)All Micrococcaceae
Q2) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the oxidase reagent?
A)S.aureus and S.epidermidis
B)S.epidermidis and Enterococcus
C)Aerococcus and Enterococcus
D)Micrococcus and Aerococcus
Q3) The tube coagulase test:
A)detects bound coagulase.
B)detects extracellular coagulase.
C)is performed on slide coagulase-positive isolates to confirm a positive result.
D)requires citrated reagent plasma.
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Chapter 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) What morphologic feature is a major consideration in determining an identification scheme for streptococci?
A)Colony shape and color
B)Hemolytic pattern
C)Smell
D)Consistency
Q2) S.pneumoniae can be described as:
A)resistant to bile and optochin.
B) -hemolytic on sheep blood agar
C)CAMP positive
D)often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
Q3) The bacterial species that can be described as able to grow in 6.5% sodium chloride (NaCl)and 40% bile,is part of the normal fecal flora of animals and humans,displays g hemolysis,and is a major cause of nosocomial infections is:
A)E.faecalis.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.pyogenes.
D)S.agalactiae.
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Chapter 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with _____ agar.
A)5% sheep blood
B)PLET acetate
C)bicarbonate
D)urea
Q2) A gram-positive Bacillus,which is -hemolytic on 5% sheep blood agar,produces a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar,is nonmotile,and was isolated from the stool of a patient with abdominal pain and watery diarrhea.Because of the patient's existing immunocompromised state,the physician administered penicillin as the antibiotic therapy.The patient's condition did not improve after 7 days of treatment.Which one of the following statements explains the reason for the antibiotic failure?
A)The course was too abbreviated and should be given for 14 days.
B)The patient may be allergic to penicillin and its therapeutic effects.
C)Penicillin is ineffective against gram-positive organisms.
D)The organism produces -lactamase,which renders the drug inactive.
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Chapter 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Patients who are immunocompromised and women who are pregnant should avoid eating soft cheeses such as Mexican-style,feta,Brie,Camembert,and blue-veined cheeses to prevent:
A)food-borne listeriosis.
B)staphylococcal food poisoning.
C)gastric gangrene.
D)Salmonella infection.
Q2) After 48 hours of incubation,black colonies with a dark brown halo are observed on Tinsdale agar.What type of toxin does this organism produce?
A)Emetic toxin
B)Exotoxin
C)Enterotoxin
D)Endotoxin
Q3) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is:
A)L.monocytogenes.
B)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C)Bacillus anthracis.
D)Bacillus cereus group
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-negative,non-spore forming,nonbranching,gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into triple sugar iron (TSI)agar is most likely:
A)Corynebacterium.
B)Bacillus.
C)Actinomyces.
D)Erysipelothrix.
Q2) The wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis will reveal large:
A)squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods.
B)numbers of large gram-positive rods.
C)numbers of polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
D)pleomorphic gram-negative rods with many leukocytes.
Q3) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?
A)G.vaginalis
B)Lactobacillus
C)Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D)A.haemolyticum
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Q1) The group of bacteria that can be described as being normal inhabitants of soil and water and primarily responsible for the decomposition of plant material is:
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Chapter 18: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) On MacConkey agar,Serratia spp.would appear:
A)red.
B)colorless.
C)green.
D)yellow.
Q2) Which is correct for the description "alkaline slant,acid butt,no H S"?
A)Salmonella spp.
B)E.coli
C)Proteus spp.
D)Pseudomonas spp.
Q3) E.coli can produce a toxin similar to S.dysenteriae and can cause hemorrhagic colitis.What other organ does it affect?
A)Heart
B)Lungs
C)Liver
D)Kidney
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Chapter 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) A bronchoscopy was performed on a patient who later developed a nosocomial infection as a result of the procedure.The organism recovered from his lung was a nonlactose fermenter that oxidized glucose and maltose,was lysine decarboxylase-positive,and was motile.The organism is most likely which one of the following?
A)Bordetella parapertussis
B)Saccharolytic Acinetobacter
C)P.luteola
D)S.maltophilia
Q2) Of the following species,which are widely distributed in nature and hospital environments?
A)Pseudomonas luteola
B)Acinetobacter spp.
C)Pseudomonas oryzihabitans
D)Bordetella trematum
Q3) The natural habitat of Acinetobacter sp.can best be described as the:
A)mucous membranes of animals.
B)gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)natural environment.
D)genitourinary tract of animals.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which combination of nonfermenting gram-negative bacilli are oxidase positive,but do not grow on MacConkey agar within 24 to 48 hours.
A)B.cepacia and Pseudomonas stutzeri
B)Brevundimonas dimunuta and Pseudomonas veronii
C)P.aeruginosa and R.insidiosa
D)B.vesicularis and Acidovorax facilis
Q2) In some immunocompromised patients,bacteremia caused by P.aeruginosa can invade and destroy the walls of subcutaneous blood vessels,resulting in the formation of cutaneous papules that become black and necrotic.This condition is known as:
A)nodular folliculitis
B)ecthyma gangrenosum
C)malignant otitis externa
D)necrolytic migratory erythema
Q3) Which organism exhibits bipolar staining on the Gram stain,which resembles a "safety-pin" appearance?
A)B.mallei
B)B.pseudomallei
C)B.diminuta
D)B.vesicularis
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Chapter 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which nonlactose-fermenting organism,that rarely causes human infection,grows poorly at 35°C;however,grows optimally between 20°C and 25°C?
A)Psychrobacter pulmonis
B)A.xylosoxidans
C)R.radiobacter
D)S.putrefaciens
Q2) The reservoir for O.anthropi is:
A)environment only,not human flora.
B)animal oral and respiratory flora.
C)environment,cold climates.
D)environment and human flora.
Q3) Which of the following organisms has clear colonies on MacConkey agar,oxidizes glucose and xylose,and has the ability to hydrolyze esculin?
A)Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
B)Paracoccus yeei
C)Rhizobium radiobacter
D)Shewanella putrefaciens
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Chapter 22: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A patient with a bacteremia identified as E.meningoseptica infection was placed on intravenous penicillin;however,the patient did not improve after 5 days.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?
A)The dose was abbreviated and therefore did not have time to work.
B)The patient is most likely allergic to penicillin and is not responding.
C)Penicillin is ineffective against this organism.
D)An aminoglycoside should be given along with the penicillin to increase its effects.
Q2) Which organism's virulence is due to protease and gelatinase production,which causes the destruction of host cells and tissues?
A)Bergeyella zoohelcum
B)E.meningoseptica
C)Chryseobacterium indologenes
D)Agrobacterium spp.
Q3) The natural habitat of Chryseobacterium sp.can best be described as the:
A)mucous membranes of animals.
B)gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)natural environment.
D)genitourinary tract of animals.
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Chapter 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The mode of transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica can best be described as:
A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
Q2) Achromobacter,Alcaligenes,and Bordetella are all:
A)urea positive.
B)oxidase negative.
C)nonglucose utilizers.
D)lactose fermenters.
Q3) The organism most frequently associated with various infections in humans is: A)Bordetella.
C)resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42°C.
D)nonmotile and both urea positive and phenylalanine deaminase positive.
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Chapter 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) Which organism appears green on TCBS agar and is halophilic?
A)V.cholerae
B)V.harveyi
C)Vibrio fluvialis
D)V.vulnificus
Q2) A vibriostatic test using 0/129 (2,4-diamino-6,7-diisopropylpteridine)-impregnated disks differentiates vibrio cells,which are susceptible,and _________,which are resistant.
A)Enterobacteriaceae
B)Plesiomonas spp.
C)aeromonads
D)Chromobacterium spp.
Q3) The reagent used in the "string test" is:
A)bile solubility.
B)sodium deoxycholate.
C)bile esculin.
D)0/129 (2,4-diamino-6,7-diisopropylpteridine).
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Chapter 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) This bacterium is unique in that it does not possess a flagellum but is motile by gliding motility.
A)Acidovorax spp.
B)Sphingobacterium spp.
C)Spingomonas spp.
D)Pseudomonas spp.
Q2) Oxidase-positive,glucose-positive (oxidatively)gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:
A)Pseudomonas.
B)Vibrio.
C)Stenotrophomonas.
D)Sphingomonas.
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax,Sphingobacterium,and Sphingomonas?
A)Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)Habitats are unknown.
C)Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
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Chapter 26: Moraxella
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Q1) True cocci,such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella catarrhalis,can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by:
A)comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B)subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C)identifying the resistance of Moraxella to many -lactam antimicrobial agents.
D)performing the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)test.
Q2) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections,primarily of the respiratory tract,is:
A)M.catarrhalis.
B)Moraxella lacunata.
C)Moraxella canis.
D)Moraxella atlantae.
Q3) Testing for differentiation of M.lacunata from other Moraxella species can best be performed by:
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
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Chapter 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following organisms is negative for catalase,indole,and arginine dihydrolase tests and pits the agar on a sheep blood agar plate?
A)E.corrodens
B)W.virosa
C)P.maltophilia
D)S.paucimobilis
Q2) Of the asaccharolytic,oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar,which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
Q3) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?
A)E.corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.
B)W.virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum
C)B.zoohelcum and Escherichia coli
D)E.corrodens and W.virosa
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Chapter 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) An organism that causes infection as a result of a dog or cat bite was tested for catalase,resulting in a positive reaction.What could be the possible source of the error?
A)The catalase reagent could be expired.
B)This organism is normally negative for catalase;therefore a mutation may have occurred.
C)A false-positive result occurred because of the catalase production of the red blood cells in the 5% sheep blood agar.
D)No error is present.This organism is catalase-positive.
Q2) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A)Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B)M.haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C)P.multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D)Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
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Q1) K.denitrificans,which is nonhemolytic and tends to pit the agar,also grows on selective media that support the growth of which gram-negative diplococci?
A)Capnocytophaga spp.
B)C.hominis
C)A.aphrophilus
D)N.gonorrhoeae
Q2) Which antimicrobial regimen should be administered to a patient suspected of having endocarditis as a result of infection with C.hominis?
A)Chloramphenicol and tetracycline
B)Erythromycin and ciprofloxacin
C)Ampicillin and ceftriaxone
D)Penicillin,with or without an aminoglycoside agent
Q3) Which of the following biochemical reactions identifies an organism associated with blood,bone,and joint infections in young children?
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Chapter 30: Haemophilus
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Q1) H.influenzae can be distinguished from H.aegyptius by its _____ test for _____.
A)negative;sucrose fermentation
B)negative;lactose fermentation
C)positive;catalase
D)positive;xylose fermentation
Q2) To increase the sensitivity of direct Gram-stain examination of body fluid specimens,the specimens are usually:
A)incubated for 18 to 24 hours before staining.
B)centrifuged before staining.
C)examined for at least 1 hour.
D)stained for an additional 5 minutes.
Q3) Which of the following media provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?
A)5% sheep blood agar
B)Brain-heart infusion agar
C)Chocolate agar
D)Nutrient agar
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Chapter 31: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Trench fever,bacteremia,endocarditis,chronic lymphadenopathy,and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:
A)A.felis.
B)B.quintana.
C)B.clarridgeiae.
D)B.henselae.
Q2) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species,which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?
A)B.bacilliformis
B)B.henselae
C)B.elizabethae
D)B.clarridgeiae
Q3) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?
A)Gram stain
B)Wright's stain
C)Trichrome stain
D)Warthin-Starry silver stain
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33
Chapter 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Which of the following genes may attribute to the virulence of H.pylori by encoding for outer membrane proteins that mediate adherence to a specific blood group antigen on the surface of gastric epithelial cells?
A)babA
B)iceA
C)cagA
D)vacA
Q2) Ensuring that all foods derived from animal sources are thoroughly cooked,all milk is pasteurized,and all drinking water is chlorinated are ways to avoid becoming infected with:
A)Helicobacter.
B)Arcobacter.
C)Enterobacter.
D)Campylobacter.
Q3) Antimicrobial therapy for H.pylori infection consists of:
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Legionella
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Q1) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory,a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?
A)L-cysteine and iron
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
Q2) A direct immunofluorescent antibody (DFA)test was performed on a sputum sample that yielded a positive test.The organism grew on BCYE medium and was a thin gram-negative,faintly staining bacillus.What is the drug of choice for this organism?
A)Fluoroquinolones
B)Erythromycin
C)Penicillin
D)Aminoglycosides
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)faintly staining,thin gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 34: Brucella
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Q1) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:
A)cattle.
B)sheep or goats.
C)swine.
D)dogs.
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable,which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A)Penicillin and azithromycin
B)Ampicillin and gentamycin
C)Doxycycline and rifampin
D)Gentamycin and vancomycin
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Chapter 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis,symptoms are:
A)runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
Q2) Pertussis (whooping cough)is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious,acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the:
A)Brucella spp.
B)Bordetella spp.
C)Pasteurella spp.
D)Francisella spp.
Q3) If real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is performed on a Bordetella isolate,then it must be noted that this type of swab is unacceptable for collection because of the presence of which of the following inhibitory factors?
A)Dacron
B)Cotton
C)Rayon
D)Calcium alginate
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Chapter 36: Francisella
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Q1) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:
A)is oxidase-negative.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D)does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
Q2) Tularemia,characterized by glandular,ulceroglandular,oculoglandular,oropharyngeal,systemic,and pneumonic presentations,is caused by which of the following species?
A)Brucella
B)Bordetella
C)Pasteurella
D)Francisella
Q3) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory,a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A)Cysteine and cystine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
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Chapter 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Rat-bite fever caused by S.minus can be differentiated from that caused by S.moniliformis by:
A)chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and often severe joint pains.
B)a granulomatous lesion.
C)septic arthritis.
D)endocarditis.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A)sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)monillic fever.
D)monillic gastritis.
Q3) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever,or Haverhill fever,which is characterized by acute onset of chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and severe joint pains,as well as a rash on the palms,soles of the feet,and other extremities?
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis
B)Brucella abortus
C)Bordetella spp.
D)Pasteurella spp.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) An endocervical swab was collected from a 26-year-old woman with a purulent discharge.The Gram stain revealed the following:
·Many white blood cells (WBCs)
·Moderate gram-negative diplococci
·Moderate gram-negative coccobacilli
·Few yeast
Based on these findings,what would be the next course of action?
A)Report the isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Work up the yeast.
C)Report the Gram stain,and follow up with culture.
D)Request a new specimen;this one is contaminated.
Q2) N.gonorrhoeae is spread by:
A)person-to-person nosocomial spread by respiratory droplets.
B)person-to-person spread by sexual contact.
C)from infected mother to newborn during birth.
D)B and C only.
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Chapter 39: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) The indicator used to determine whether anaerobic conditions are achieved in an anaerobic jar is:
A)phenol red.
B)bromothymol blue.
C)methylene blue.
D)methyl red.
Q2) Urine via percutaneous aspiration is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q3) Cervical swab is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q4) PEA agar
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective;supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
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Chapter 40: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) Characteristics that strongly indicate the presence of pigmented Prevotella or Porphyromonas in a clinical specimen include:
A)yellow-green fluorescence.
B)rhizoid margins resembling a "Medusa head" on anaerobic blood agar.
C)brick-red fluorescence under long-wavelength ultraviolet (UV)light.
D)chartreuse fluorescens.
Q2) Fecal cultures to isolate Clostridium difficile are plated on:
A)anaerobic blood agar.
B)LKV blood agar.
C)aerobic 5% sheep blood agar.
D)cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA).
Q3) Nonpigmented Prevotella
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
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42
Chapter 41: Mycobacteria
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Q1) In the identification of mycobacterial isolates,the catalase test involves the:
A)breakdown of phenolphthalein disulfate into phenolphthalein and other salts.
B)measurement of the height of a column of bubbles of oxygen.
C)production of a lipase that is able to hydrolyze the catalase.
D)development of a pink-to-red color,indicating a positive result.
Q2) Negative mycobacterial cultures are reported final and the cultures are discarded after what period?
A)7 days
B)2 weeks
C)4 weeks
D)8 weeks
Q3) The fluorochrome method of staining Mycobacterium:
A)is less sensitive than the conventional carbolfuchsin stains.
B)enables the smear to be initially examined at lower magnifications.
C)results in a lower yield of positive smears.
D)increases the amount of time needed for examining smears.
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43
Chapter 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) Binary fission within vacuoles divides which of the following forms of Chlamydia?
A)RB
B)EB
C)Replicate body
D)Initial body
Q2) The most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen and a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)is:
A)Rickettsia rickettsii.
B)Chlamydia trachomatis.
C)Klebsiella granulomatis.
D)Coxiella burnetii.
Q3) Tropheryma whipplei is characterized by the presence of periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-staining macrophages,which indicates mucopolysaccharide or glycoprotein,in almost every organ system.Without treatment,this disease is uniformly fatal.Identification is achieved using:
A)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B)IFA.
C)immunoblotting.
D)real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) The laboratory method of choice to identify Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma infections is:
A)enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C)latex agglutination.
D)real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Q2) Quality control is set up to test urea agar.M.genitalium and M.hominis are used;however,both organisms are negative for urease activity.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?
A)The urea agar is most likely expired.
B)The incubation time is most likely abbreviated.
C)A technical error has occurred.
D)These two organisms are poor choices for quality control of urea agar.
Q3) Which group of drugs is effective against M.pneumoniae infections?
A) -Lactams
B)Sulfonamides
C)Cephalosporins
D)Fluoroquinolones
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Chapter 44: The Spirochetes
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Q1) A destructive lesion of the gums,also known as acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis,that is caused by oral spirochetes and other bacteria is known as:
A)Vincent's disease.
B)primary syphilis.
C)chancres.
D)Weil syndrome.
Q2) A nontreponemal flocculation serologic test in which soluble antigen particles are coalesced to form larger particles that are visible as clumps when they are aggregated by antibody is called the __________ test.
A)nontreponemal flocculation (NTF)
B)FTA-ABS
C)VDRL
D)TP-PA
Q3) A widely used nontreponemal serologic assay is the ________ test.
C)fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS)
D)microhemagglutination test for antibody to T.pallidum (MHA-TP)
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46
Chapter 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology
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Q1) Which of the following is currently the only fixative available that does not contain formalin,polyvinyl alcohol (PVA),or mercury?
A)Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
B)Sodium acetate-acetic acid-formalin (SAF)
C)ECOFIX
D)TOTAL-FIX
Q2) Which of the following intestinal parasites is found in humans and also in pigs?
A)G.lamblia
B)D.fragilis
C)Cryptosporidium spp.
D)Balantidium coli
Q3) Some strains of leishmaniae have reservoir hosts,including dogs and wild rodents.Transmission is via the bite of a:
A)tsetse fly.
B)tick.
C)sandfly.
D)triatomid bug.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) A patient has amebic colitis.A microscopic examination reveals the following:
·18 µm in diameter
·Fine granules
·Centrally located karyosome
·Cytoplasm with a "ground-glass" appearance
·RBC inclusions
This protozoan can be identified as:
A)Entamoeba dispar.
B)E.histolytica.
C)Entamoeba hartmanni.
D)E.coli.
Q2) Which of the following flagellates has a single nucleus in the cyst and the typical curved,cytostomal fibril,which is called a shepherd's crook?
A)G.duodenalis
B)C.mesnili
C)D.fragilis
D)E.hominis
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Chapter 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) P.ovale
A)Normal shape and size
B)Normal shape;size may be normal or slightly smaller
C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal;oval to normal
D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval
Q2) The most frequent clinical signs of chronic Chagas disease involve the enlargement of which organ?
A)Heart
B)Liver
C)Spleen
D)Lung
Q3) Stage I of trypanosomiasis characteristically involves systemic trypanosomiasis infection without central nervous system (CNS)involvement.Lymphadenopathy is also a feature of this disease.The trypomastigotes of which protozoa are involved?
A)T.cruzi
B)T.rangeli
C)T.brucei rhodesiense
D)T.brucei gambiense
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Chapter 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites
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Q1) The Acanthamoeba organism is motile and has spinelike pseudopods,a single round nucleus in the cyst form,and a large karyosome in the nucleus of the troph.An estimated 70% of clinical cases of Acanthamoeba keratitis are misdiagnosed as __________ keratitis.
A)bacterial
B)fungal
C)prion
D)viral
Q2) Trichomoniasis is the primary nonviral sexually transmitted disease worldwide.One complication of this infection is:
A)keratitis.
B)endometritis.
C)meningitis.
D)appendicitis.
Q3) Laboratory diagnosis of T.gondii is confirmed by:
A)Giemsa stain.
B)tissue culture.
C)serologic testing.
D)Western blot.
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Chapter 49: Intestinal Nematodes
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Q1) A short buccal capsule,large bulb on the esophagus,and prominent genital primordium are all characteristics of which worm?
A)T.trichiura
B)Capillaria philippinensis
C)S.stercoralis
D)A.lumbricoides
Q2) Löffler syndrome is associated with which roundworm infection?
A)S.stercoralis
B)Ancylostoma duodenale
C)Trichostrongylus spp.
D)A.lumbricoides
Q3) Direct penetration of which of the following worms results in tissue damage at the site of attachment,blood loss,and an acute gastrointestinal phase demonstrated by an increased eosinophilia?
A)Whipworm
B)Pinworm
C)Threadworm
D)Hookworm
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Chapter 50: Tissue Nematodes
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Q1) Copepods
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q2) Swine
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q3) Crabs
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q4) Snails
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
52
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Chapter 51: Blood Nematodes
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Q1) Mansonella spp.
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q2) A Giemsa stain is performed on an eye exudate on a patient with calabar swelling,eosinophilia,and a recent travel history to Africa.L.loa is suspected;however,the sheath in the adult worm recovered does not stain.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The worm recovered is not L.loa.
B)The specimen should have been stained with trichrome stain.
C)The Giemsa stain is most likely expired.
D)No discrepancy is present.The sheath does not stain with Giemsa stain.
Q3) L.loa
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
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Chapter 52: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The double-pored tapeworm,Diphyllobothrium caninum,consisting of many small proglottids,measures 10 to 70 cm in length as an adult.The scolex contains four suckers and an armed rostellum.The intermediate host in which infective cysticercoids develop is the:
A)dog.
B)cat.
C)flea.
D)human.
Q2) The T.solium organism,which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long,contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is: A)dogs.
B)cats.
C)pigs.
D)cattle.
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54
Chapter 53: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) In E.granulosus infections,the hydatid cysts usually occur in which organ?
A)Stomach
B)Brain
C)Intestines
D)Liver
Q2) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A)T.solium
B)Echinococcus granulosus
C)Spirometra mansonoides
D)Echinococcus multilocularis
Q3) The Taenia multiceps tapeworm is 5 to 6 cm long and consists of 200 to 250 segments.It has four suckers in its scolex and a proboscis with 22 to 32 hooks arranged in two rows.This organism causes which condition?
A)Coenurosis
B)Cysticercosis
C)Hydatid disease
D)Sparganosis
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55
Chapter 54: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The adult form of the fluke,Fasciolopsis buski,is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is: A)snails.
B)birds.
C)rodents. D)dogs.
Q2) A 36-year-old man who has traveled for several weeks in the orient is experiencing abdominal pain and diarrhea with a large amount of mucus.A H.heterophyes egg measuring 28 by 15 µm is identified in the stool.The treatment of choice for this intestinal trematode is:
A)metronidazole.
B)chloroquine.
C)albendazole. D)praziquantel.
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Chapter 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Chinese liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
Q2) Which second intermediate host ingests the cercariae of Clonorchis and Opisthorchis?
A)Snail
B)Crustacean
C)Copepod
D)Freshwater fish
Q3) Southeast Asian liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
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Chapter 56: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) The only intermediate host required in the life cycle of blood flukes is a:
A)copepod.
B)crustacean.
C)freshwater snail.
D)freshwater fish.
Q2) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A)Schistosoma mansoni
B)Schistosoma japonicum
C)S.haematobium
D)Schistosoma mekongi
Q3) Rodents,marsupials,and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A)S.japonicum
B)S.haematobium
C)S.mansoni
D)Schistosoma intercalatum
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Chapter 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) A 16-year-old male teenager is diagnosed with a fungal infection of his foot,which he acquired at the gym.This infection would most likely be classified as a(n)_______ mycosis.
A)superficial
B)subcutaneous
C)systemic
D)opportunistic
Q2) An example of a thermally monomorphic mold is:
A)P.marneffei.
B)S.schenckii.
C)Epidermophyton.
D)H.capsulatum.
Q3) The mode of transmission for most of the dimorphic fungi is:
A)inoculation.
B)inhalation.
C)arthropod.
D)blood.
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Hyaline
Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Which rapidly growing Aspergillus spp.(2 to 6 days)best describes a mold that produces a fluffy-to-granular,white-to-blue green colony?
A)A.niger
B)A.flavus
C)A.fumigatus
D)A.terreus
Q2) Small,round-to-oval yeast cells;2 to 5 µm in diameter
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q3) Which of the following Trichophyton spp.grows slowly (14 to 30 days)and best at 35°C to 37°C? In addition,enriched media with thiamine and inositol enhance its growth.
A)Trichophyton verrucosum
B)Trichophyton tonsurans
C)T.rubrum
D)T.mentagrophytes
Page 60
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Chapter 59: Dematiaceious Molds
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Q1) This fundus exhibits cup- or flask-shaped collarette.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladophialophora
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q2) Black-grain mycetoma
A)E.jeanselmei
B)P.boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)H.werneckii
E)Alternaria
Q3) White grain mycetoma
A)E.jeanselmei
B)P.boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)H.werneckii
E)Alternaria
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Q3) The cell membrane of P.jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______,which differentiates it from other fungi.
A)sterols;cholesterol
B)ergosterol;sterols
C)cholesterol;ergosterol
D)sitosterol;sterols
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Chapter 61: The Yeasts
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Q1) Tinea versicolor is a skin infection characterized by superficial brownish scaly areas most often on the trunk,arms,or shoulders.Which type of replacement therapy places patients at risk for developing this type of skin infection?
A)Hormone
B)Lipid
C)Saccharide
D)Gene
Q2) A patient with leukemia is diagnosed with a Candida infection after receiving several doses of chemotherapy.The most likely yeast causing the infection is:
A)C.albicans.
B)C.parapsilosis.
C)C.tropicalis.
D)Candidametapsilosis.
Q3) The most commonly isolated yeast in clinical specimens is:
A)Candida albicans.
B)Candida tropicalis.
C)Candida dubliniensis.
D)Candida krusei.
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Chapter
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Q1) Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) Binds microtubular proteins
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q3) Inhibits protein synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
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Chapter 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) Respiratory
A)Adenovirus
B)HSV
C)HBV
D)Arbovirus
Q2) Adenovirus serotypes 40 and 41
A)RSV
B)HIV
C)CMV
D)Adenovirus
E)HSV
F)Pediatric respiratory virus
G)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
H)Influenzas A and B
Q3) Nasopharyngeal
A)Varicella-zoster virus
B)Enterovirus
C)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D)Parainfluenza virus
E)CMV
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Chapter 64: Viruses in Human Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 8-month-old female infant is admitted to the emergency department in respiratory distress on Christmas Eve.A nasopharyngeal aspirate is obtained and sent to the laboratory on ice for analysis.The most probable organism that would be isolated is:
A)varicella-zoster virus.
B)respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
C)rotavirus.
D)coxsackievirus.
Q2) Chicken pox
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV)type 1
B)HSV type 2
C)Zoster
D)Varicella
E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F)CMV
G)Human herpesvirus (HHV)8
Q3) Hand-foot-mouth
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
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Chapter 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention
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Q1) At the end of the 2008-2009 influenza season,100% of influenza A H3N2 and the novel 2009 influenza A H1N1 were resistant to:
A)adamantane.
B)oseltamivir.
C)Tamiflu.
D)Relenza.
Q2) Detects resistance genes.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q3) Quantifies sequence variation.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
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Chapter 66: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) Which virus found in the blood involves infecting certain T lymphocytes and possibly macrophages?
A)Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C)Rubella virus
D)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Q2) A 36-year-old emergency medical technician (EMT)is exposed to a patient with brucellosis.Blood cultures are drawn from the EMT and reported as negative after 1 week.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The blood culture system is most likely not correctly functioning.
B)Brucella does not grow in the blood.
C)The blood culture bottles are most likely expired.
D)The blood should have been incubated for a minimum of 3 weeks.
Q3) Saponin,polypropylene glycol,SPS,and ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)are all components in which blood culture system?
A)BACTEC system
B)BacT/ALERT system
C)ESP system
D)Lysis centrifugation system
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Respiratory syncytial virus is one of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A)previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)school-age children.
Q2) One of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age is:
A)C.pneumoniae.
B)M.pneumoniae.
C)S.pneumoniae.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
Q3) M.pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A)previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)school-age children.
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69
Chapter 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical specimens from suspected cases of epiglottitis should be plated at least to _______ agar(s).
A)sheep blood
B)sheep blood and chocolate
C)Regan-Lowe
D)charcoal horse blood
Q2) Pharyngitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q3) Infection of the buccal (cheek)mucosa,tongue,or oropharynx by Candida spp.is:
A)pharyngitis.
B)Vincent angina.
C)rhinitis.
D)thrush.
Page 70
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Chapter 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) A collective term used for the three layers of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:
A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q2) The outermost layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the: A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q3) Specialized secretory cells centrally located in the brain in the third and fourth ventricles that produce CSF are called the: A)choroid plexus.
B)ventricles.
C)meninges.
D)pia mater.
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Page 71
Chapter 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses
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D)Any bacterium,including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S.aureus and S.pyogenes
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Chapter 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) The term acute urethral syndrome is used to describe a syndrome of symptoms that include:
A)greater than 105 colony-forming units of bacteria per milliliter (CFU/mL)of urine,dysuria,and frequent urination.
B)dysuria,frequency,and urgency but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture.
C)fever and flank pain,dysuria,vomiting,diarrhea,chills,increased heart rate,and lower abdominal pain.
D)dysuria,frequency and urgency along with tenderness and pain over the area of the bladder.
Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeast.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)Corynebacteria.
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Chapter 72: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) The predominant organism in vaginal secretions from normal women of reproductive age is:
A)lactobacilli.
B)Streptococcus agalactiae.
C)Enterobacteriaceae.
D)staphylococci.
Q2) Chorioamnionitis
A)Inflammation of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching
B)Polymicrobial type of vaginitis characterized by mild perivaginal irritation and a foul-smelling discharge
C)Infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy
D)Mild-to-severe inflammation of the testicles that is generally acquired by blood-borne dissemination of viruses such as the mumps virus
Q3) An infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy is called: A)PID.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)chorioamnionitis.
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Page 74
Chapter 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Gram-negative broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) Cultures for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli should be incubated in:
A)a capnophilic atmosphere at 42°C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
B)a microaerophilic atmosphere at 35°C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
C)regular room air at 35°C and examined at 48 and 72 hours.
D)a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42°C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
Q3) Sheep blood agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
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Chapter 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections
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Q1) An abnormal passage between two organs or leading from an internal organ to the body surface is known as a:
A)fistula.
B)sinus tract.
C)necrotizing fascia.
D)decubitus.
Q2) Meleney ulcer
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups,often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication,particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
Q3) The causative agents of lumpy jaw are:
A)Clostridium spp.
B)Bacteroides spp.
C)Prevotella spp.
D)Actinomyces spp.
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Page 76
Chapter 75: Normally Sterile Body Fluids, Bone and Bone
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) The proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is:
A)grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B)placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C)centrifugation with glass beads.
D)filtration under pressure.
Q2) Which fungal condition is most often detected in the bone marrow?
A)Brucellosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Leishmaniasis
Q3) Fluids should be processed for direct microscopic examination.If one organism is observed per oil immersion field,then at least _____ organisms per milliliter of specimen are present.
A)10<sup>2</sup>
B)10<sup>3</sup>
C)10<sup>4</sup>
D)10<sup>5</sup>
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Chapter 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Examination and work-up of a culture and interpretation of results by the microbiologist would pertain to which step in the quality assurance process?
A)Preanalytic
B)Analytic
C)Postanalytic
D)Analytic review
Q2) If a clinical laboratory receives a "blind unknown" for proficiency testing (PT),it is most likely sent by which private accrediting agency?
A)CLSI
B)National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS)
C)College of American Pathologists (CAP)
D)American Society of Consultant Pharmacists (ASCP)
Q3) Protocol for testing susceptibility test systems include testing _____ consecutive days.
A)daily for 7
B)bi-weekly for 30
C)every other day for 14
D)with use for 20
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Chapter 77: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique that examines an organism's susceptibility to bacterial peptides (proteins)is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of the organism of interest is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriophage typing.
Q3) The classification of a surgical wound as dirty refers to a:
A)lack of cleanliness of the surgical instruments.
B)surgical wound in an emergency setting in which the cleansing protocol was not followed.
C)surgical wound that has become grossly infected.
D)large number of contaminating organisms at the wound site.
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Chapter 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A)biosecurity.
B)bio crime.
C)microterrorism.
D)cactiterrorism.
Q2) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):
A)covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)covert event is announced,and an overt event is not announced.
C)overt event is announced,and a covert event is not announced.
D)overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q3) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:
A)horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.
C)microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.
D)living beings to wage war in peacetime.
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