Medical Microbiology Practice Questions - 1990 Verified Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology Practice Questions
Medical Microbiology is a comprehensive course that explores the roles of microorganisms in human health and disease. Students will examine the classification, physiology, and pathogenic mechanisms of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, as well as the immune system's response to these agents. The course covers diagnostic laboratory techniques, principles of infection control, and antimicrobial therapies. Emphasis is placed on understanding the epidemiology, clinical presentation, diagnosis, and treatment of infectious diseases, preparing students to recognize and manage microbial threats in medical practice.
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Microbiology An Evolving Science 4th Edition by John W. Foster
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) What feature of bacteria facilitated the DNA revolution in the 1970s?
A) They are very small.
B) They readily recombine DNA.
C) They have very large genomes.
D) All of their genes were known.
E) They do not cause disease.
Answer: B
Q2) The environment of early Earth may have contained all of the following EXCEPT A) ferrous iron.
B) methane.
C) ammonia.
D) oxygen.
E) hydrogen gas.
Answer: D
Q3) Robert Koch's postulates have not been used to prove HIV as the causative agent of AIDS. Why not?
Answer: Answers may vary, but a major reason is that humans cannot be injected with HIV to see if they develop AIDS, and a suitable animal host doesn't exist for testing.
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3
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) Which two components of the Gram stain form a complex that is retained by Gram-positive cells?
A) crystal violet and iodine
B) safranin and iodine
C) crystal violet and safranin
D) alcohol and safranin
E) alcohol and iodine
Answer: A
Q2) List and describe three common shapes of bacteria.
Answer: Bacilli (bacillus in the singular) are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci (singular, coccus) are spherical-shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are tightly coiled spirals or corkscrew-shaped bacteria.
Q3) In which type of microscopy do dust particles interfere the MOST?
A) bright-field
B) dark-field
C) phase-contrast
D) interference
E) fluorescence
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Penicillin-binding proteins (pbps) are proteins located in the periplasmic space in Gram-negative bacteria and are involved in synthesizing the cell wall. Thus, they are a target for antibiotics and are of interest to drug developers. Describe how one could obtain these pbps for further study.
Answer: After harvesting and washing cells, one would add sucrose to the cell suspension. This provides osmotic support. One would then add lysozyme to degrade the cell wall and obtain spheroplasts. Once the spheroplasts are obtained, they are transferred to distilled water to osmotically shock the cells and thus release the contents, including pbps, into the extracellular medium. Other compartments such as the cytoplasm and membranes are removed by ultracentrifugation.
Q2) Compare and contrast FtsZ and tubulin. Why do the similarities support evolution of prokaryotes and eukaryotes from a common ancestor?
Answer: FtsZ is a protein that forms a Z ring around the equator of a prokaryotic cell, where septation and division will take place. It is a homolog of tubulin, which is involved in mitosis in eukaryotes. They are similar in that they are both involved in cell division. The major difference is that FtsZ is present in prokaryotes and tubulin is found in eukaryotes. Since they are homologs, they likely evolved from a common ancestral cell.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Some bacteria form environmentally resistant dormant forms called A) endospores.
B) heterocysts. C) colonies.
D) hyphae.
E) actinomycetes.
Q2) All of Earth's life-forms are based on A) hydrogen. B) nitrogen. C) oxygen. D) carbon. E) phosphorus.
Q3) What are some specific problems that biofilms can cause in the medical field, and why are they so difficult to prevent and destroy?
Q4) When studying the metabolism of an organism, why is it better to grow organisms in a defined synthetic medium instead of a complex medium?
Q5) Why would an organism go through the process of sporulation? How might endospores cause problems in the food industry?
Q6) Discuss some disadvantages of viable counts of microorganisms.
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) The general result of the Arrhenius equation is that growth rate roughly doubles for every ________°C rise in temperature.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
E) 25
Q2) One function of programmed cell death is to
A) increase the pH of the local environment.
B) release antibiotic resistance compounds.
C) increase the solute concentration of a hypotonic solution.
D) decrease the pH of the local environment.
E) release nutrients that neighboring cells use to survive.
Q3) Organisms adapted to grow at overwhelmingly high pressures are called A) psychrophiles.
B) thermophiles.
C) barophiles.
D) acidophiles.
E) mesophiles.
Q4) Briefly describe three techniques used to culture anaerobes in the laboratory.
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) How can a virus be used to transfer genes from one bacterial cell to another?
Q2) What role do acute viruses play in their ecosystem?
A) transfer genes across species
B) act as predator or parasite
C) evolve symbiotically with host
D) act as a bioweapon
E) act as a viral shunt
Q3) The proteins found in animals and plants that can recognize general signs of viral infections are
A) RNA interference.
B) interferons.
C) T-lymphocytes.
D) surface receptors.
E) antibodies.
Q4) Which of the following is an example of double-stranded RNA viruses?
A) herpes viruses
B) corona viruses
C) retrovirus
D) orthomixoviruses
E) hepadnaviruses
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about pseudogenes?
A) Portions of their DNA sequences are similar to those of genes with known functions.
B) RNA can be transcribed from some pseudogenes, but the protein products will not have an obvious function.
C) Pseudogenes are lost more quickly in bacteria because of their faster replication processes.
D) Bacterial pseudogenes account for less of the genome than in eukaryotes.
E) Pseudogenes have not been found in bacteria.
Q2) Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement?
A) Reproduction in archaea is predominantly asexual.
B) RNA polymerase components of the archaeon Sulfolobus are homologous to those of eukaryotic RNA Pol II.
C) All known archaea have a single circular chromosome and genes organized in operons.
D) Archaeal DNA-packing proteins and ribosomal components closely resemble those of eukaryotes.
E) Both archaeal and eukaryotic genomes encode metabolic pathways of methanogenesis.
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Which of the following is normally read as a stop codon but encodes tryptophan in vertebrate mitochondria?
A) AUG
B) UCA
C) UAC
D) UGA
E) UAG
Q2) The general secretion complex known as the SecYEG translocon is found in the A) nucleus.
B) inner membrane.
C) cell wall.
D) periplasmic space.
E) outer membrane.
Q3) Explain how a type I secretion system works. Are the secreted proteins ever in periplasmic space?
Q4) What are the functions of the different types of RNA molecules?
Q5) Name two antibiotics that affect transcription and explain their mode of action.
Q6) Name two antibiotics that affect translation and explain their modes of action.
Q7) Where is the Shine-Dalgarno sequence located and what is it responsible for?
Q8) What does it mean to annotate a genome? Explain the goals.
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) The process in which bacteriophages carry host DNA from one cell to another is known as
A) conjugation.
B) transformation.
C) transposition.
D) recombination.
E) transduction.
Q2) Newly replicated, and consequently ________, DNA sequences are invisible to a restriction enzyme.
A) mutated
B) restricted
C) modified
D) hemimethylated
E) single-stranded
Q3) Phages that carry host DNA are called transducing particles. Describe how the Salmonella P22 phage accidentally packages host DNA.
Q4) Describe four of the informational classes of mutations.
Q5) Describe the process whereby DNA is transferred from Agrobacterium to plants.
Q7) Describe the purpose of an Ames revision test and how it is performed. Page 11
Q6) What are the differences between replicative and nonreplicative transposition?
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) A transmembrane sensor kinase protein senses an environmental condition outside ________ bacteria or in the periplasm of a(n) ________ bacteria.
A) Gram-positive; Gram-negative
B) Gram-negative; Gram-positive
C) prokaryotic; eukaryotic
D) prokaryotic; archaean
E) Gram-positive; acid-fast
Q2) Quorum sensing plays a role in interspecies communications. Describe the relationship between green seaweed Enteromorpha and Vibrio anguillarum bacterial cells in biofilms, and explain how Escherichia coli was used to understand this interaction.
Q3) A quorum-sensing gene system requires the accumulation of a secreted small molecule called a(n)
A) autoinducer.
B) activator.
C) repressor.
D) inducer.
E) corepressor.
Q4) Describe the function of prokaryotic activator proteins.
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) The segmentation of the influenza genome is conducive to ________, which can be defined as the process by which two different viruses swap genome segments to form a new genome.
A) recombination
B) hybridization
C) ligation
D) reassortment
E) shuffling
Q2) Endogenous retroviruses (ERVs) express viral components, including reverse transcriptase, as part of the host cell normal functions. What role do ERVs play in mouse B-cell immune response to carbohydrate antigens?
Q3) Approximately 60%-80% of Americans acquire herpes simplex, usually HSV-1, in epithelial lesions commonly known as
A) chancres.
B) pox.
C) cold sores.
D) shingles.
E) hives.
Q4) Describe the replication process of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
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Chapter 12: Biotechniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) Both southern and northern blots involve the use of agarose gels. How do the types of agarose gels differ and why?
Q2) The uses for phage display include all the following EXCEPT
A) antibody fragments cloned from synthetic sources.
B) the identification of high-affinity peptides that bind to attachment proteins of some eukaryotic viruses and effectively block viral infection.
C) antibody fragments cloned from natural sources.
D) collections of mutant enzymes to be tested for activity.
E) directed evolution projects.
Q3) How can a protein be detected on a western blot?
Q4) Gene fusions of a protein of interest and GFP, or its derivatives, can be used in all of the following EXCEPT
A) studying protein targeting to organelles in eukaryotic cells.
B) monitoring microbial protein movement inside infected eukaryotic cells.
C) tracking viral protein movement inside or between infected eukaryotic cells.
D) detecting interactions between microbial extracellular proteins and attachment surfaces.
E) CRISPR-Cas9.
Q5) Describe the use of a primary and secondary antibody in a western blot.
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) What technique can be used to determine entropy and enthalpy changes associated with biochemical reactions?
A) nuclear magnetic resonance
B) calorimetry
C) electron microscopy
D) mass spectroscopy
E) measurement of light levels
Q2) Glucose is activated by ________ phosphorylation(s) by ATP during the first stage of the Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) Glucose is not phosphorylated.
Q3) Describe the Entner-Doudoroff (ED) pathway. What are the advantages to microorganisms that display the ED pathway?
Q4) What metabolic pathway does Mycobacterium tuberculosis use that allows it to grow slowly inside macrophages? What led to this discovery, and what practical application can further analysis of this pathway have?
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) In dehalorespiration of chlorinated pollutants, the chlorine is removed and replaced by
A) hydrogen.
B) oxygen.
C) nitrogen.
D) sulfur.
E) ammonia.
Q2) The reduction of U to U by Geobacter metallireducens is an example of A) assimilatory metal reduction.
B) fermentation.
C) dissimilatory metal reduction.
D) organotrophy.
E) lithotrophy.
Q3) The chemiosmotic theory states that the proton potential is composed of
A) [ATP] and [ADP]+[Pi].
B) a pH gradient and [Na+] gradient.
C) pH and pNa+.
D) DpH and DY
E) a pH gradient and a [Ca2+] wave.
Q4) What is photoheterotrophy? Give examples of photoheterotrophic organisms.
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true about Rubisco?
A) It catalyzes the addition of CO to ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate.
B) It is present in all organisms that use the Calvin cycle to fix CO .
C) It is found in the carboxysomes of autotrophic bacteria.
D) All species contain the same number of large and small subunits.
E) Its structure is highly conserved across bacterial groups and chloroplasts.
Q2) The most ancient CO fixation pathway in anaerobic phototrophic bacteria and archaea is the
A) reverse TCA cycle.
B) 3-hydroxypropionate cycle.
C) Calvin cycle.
D) reductive acetyl-CoA pathway.
E) glyoxylate bypass.
Q3) Briefly describe how NH is assimilated into biomass by bacteria.
Q4) What are polyalkanoates, and what are bacterially produced polyalkanoates used for? Why are they of ecological and medical interest?
Q5) How do ammonium and oxygen regulate the expression of nitrogen fixation genes?
Q6) How do cyanobacteria benefit from their heterocysts attracting heterotrophic bacteria?
Q7) How is fatty acid biosynthesis regulated in bacteria?
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Escherichia coli O157:H7 was first observed in fast-food hamburger meat. More recently, it has been associated with contamination of spinach and other vegetables. How did the spread of this strain from meat to vegetables happen?
A) It picked up genes for plant virulence.
B) Strain O157:H7 can grow as a plant endophyte.
C) It has become a psychrotroph and can grow in refrigerated foods.
D) It produces toxins that can survive on plant material.
E) This bacterial strain has lost genes needed to grow in meat.
Q2) Which of the following contains protein as high as 25% dry weight and are an excellent source of all the essential dietary amino acids?
A) algae
B) bacteria
C) mushrooms
D) yeast cells
E) plants
Q3) What are some of the purposes of food fermentation? Why have humans been making fermented foods for so long?
Q4) Explain the difference between food spoilage and food poisoning.
Q5) Describe several physical means of food preservation.
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) The presence of cells of the alga Chorella growing within Paramecium bursaria is an example of
A) ectosymbiosis.
B) intracellular endosymbiosis.
C) parasitism.
D) commensalism.
E) competition.
Q2) Evidence in the study of adaptive evolution CANNOT be obtained from A) comparisons of gene sequences within a genome.
B) comparisons of gene sequences between genomes.
C) the study of microorganisms growing in strongly selective environments.
D) sequencing a single genome several times (deep sequencing).
E) experimental evolution.
Q3) Analyses of d¹³C % has revealed biosignatures in A) igneous rock.
B) mantle rock.
C) carbonate rock.
D) sedimentary rock.
E) calcareous sand.
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common feature in many spirochetes?
A) tight spiral morphology
B) heterotrophy
C) thick outer sheaths
D) periplasmic flagella
E) rigid cell walls
Q2) Discuss the chemical nature of mycolic acids and some of the traits they confer to organisms that possess them.
Q3) Methylobacterium species are methylotrophs, which means that they
Q4) What is unique about the genome of Borrelia species?
Q5) Describe the lifestyle and development of Streptomyces mycelia.
Q6) How do Bacteroides fragilis and B. thetaiotaomicron contribute to 15% of human caloric intake? Are there other benefits provided by these microbes to human health? Are they potentially pathogenic?
Q7) Describe the photosynthetic machinery of cyanobacteria.
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Nanoarchaeum equitans is a hyperthermophilic symbiont of
A) Ignicoccus.
B) Sulfolobus.
C) Halobacterium.
D) Methanococcus.
E) Thermoplasma.
Q2) The Sulfolobus species maintains an internal pH ________ that of its habitat. A) equivalent to B) higher than C) lower than D) variable enough that it cannot be measured against E) not determined to be different to
Q3) The ________ have/has such divergent SSU rRNA that its/their sequence fails to amplify with "standard" PCR primers.
A) Crenarchaeota
B) Euryarchaeota
C) Thaumarchaeota
D) Ancient Archaeal Group
E) Haloarchaea
Q4) Why are hot springs and geysers important habitats for many crenarchaeotes?
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Briefly describe the life cycle of Ascomyta and describe three ascomycetes that have been used in science or in the culinary arts.
Q2) Why are sponges, jellyfish, worms, reptiles, humans, yeast, and microsporidia placed in the same eukaryotic clade?
Q3) A major group of marine phytoplankton that is essential to the marine food chain includes
A) microsporidia.
B) dinoflagellates.
C) apicomplexan.
D) metamonads.
E) yeasts.
Q4) Physarum polycephalum is a type of plasmodial slime mold that can be seen as a yellow mass growing on decaying wood. This organism produces A) a fruiting body in which individual cells remain unicellular.
B) no fruiting bodies and no spore formations.
C) a giant multinucleated cell that produces fruiting bodies.
D) fruiting bodies within a calcified shell structure.
E) no fruiting bodies and spores that move using pseudopodia.
Q5) What are choanoflagellates and what is their importance in evolutionary studies?
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Bacteroids remain sequestered within a sac of plant-derived membrane known as the
A) flavonoid.
B) infection thread.
C) Nod factor.
D) nucleosome.
E) symbiosome.
Q2) Compared to eutrophic lakes, the biochemical oxygen demand, or BOD, of oligotrophic lakes is
A) low.
B) similar.
C) high.
D) unpredictable.
E) extremely high.
Q3) All of the following are likely to be found among the benthic microbes EXCEPT A) barophiles.
B) psychrophiles.
C) thermophiles.
D) phototrophs.
E) methanogens.
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Jupiter's moon ________ is a candidate for extraterrestrial life due to its subsurface oceans.
A) Io
B) Europa
C) Titan
D) Mimas
E) Deimos
Q2) Discuss the difference in environmental availability of phosphorus versus sulfur and nitrogen.
Q3) Which of these is involved in commercial chemical fertilizer production?
A) lightning strikes
B) the Haber process
C) cellular nitrogen fixation
D) nitrification
E) denitrification
Q4) Discuss the concept of iron fertilization to remove excess CO from the atmosphere.
Q5) Compare and contrast assimilatory and dissimilatory nitrate reduction.
Q6) Astrobiology is the study of life in the universe. Why might our rDNA probes NOT be appropriate to detect extraterrestrial life?
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Is it correct to state that bacteria introduced through a skin cut will most likely be engulfed by Langerhans cells?
Q2) Why are healthy individuals usually "immune" to cholera, whereas malnourished individuals are not?
Q3) Which factor does NOT account for the hygiene hypothesis?
A) exposure to animals
B) caves
C) soap
D) bugs
E) feces
Q4) Which of the following factors contribute to dysbiosis?
A) emotional stress
B) carbohydrate catabolism
C) probiotics
D) bacteriocin
E) anti-inflammatory cytokines
Q5) Microbes in and on humans sharpen immunity and protect from infection. Explain why these benefits also come with considerable risk.
Q6) Describe how natural killer cells work in response to a bacterial infection.
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Edward Jenner was able to demonstrate the first example of immunological cross-protection because
A) the smallpox virus was nonpathogenic.
B) the cowpox virus only affected milkmaids.
C) cowpox and smallpox viruses were metabolically different.
D) cowpox virus was structurally similar to the smallpox virus.
E) plague survivors were immune to smallpox.
Q2) Positive selection in T-cell education refers to
A) T-cell receptors that can bind strongly to self MHC proteins.
B) CD8 receptors that can bind strongly to self MHC proteins.
C) T-cell receptors that can bind weakly to self MHC proteins.
D) CD4 that can bind weakly to self MHC proteins.
E) B-cell receptors that bind weakly to T-cell receptors.
Q3) The small segment of antigen that is capable of eliciting an immune response is called a(n)
A) hapten.
B) clonotope.
C) aggretope.
D) epitope.
E) naïve antigen.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Exotoxins
A) are secreted by Gram-positive bacteria only.
B) primarily contain glycolipids.
C) are protein toxins made by Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.
D) serve as adhesins for mucosal pathogens.
E) contain lipid A.
Q2) Why is a microbial agent that prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion more virulent as an intracellular pathogen than one that is not?
Q3) What would be expected to happen to the Helicobacter pylori bacteria in a patient who has taken a large amount of antacids in the last month?
Q4) Consider two isolates, A and B. Microbe A had an LD of 5 * 10 , while microbe B recorded an LD of 5 * 10 . Which isolate is more virulent?
A) unable to know based on information provided
B) microbe A
C) microbe B
D) They are equally virulent.
E) The values indicate that neither one is virulent.
Q5) Diphtheria toxin is a classic AB exotoxin. How does it cause host cell damage?
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Regarding the neurotoxigenic disease caused by Clostridium tetani, which of the following is NOT correct?
A) The tetanospasmin toxoid is an effective vaccine.
B) It is a spasmic paralytic disease.
C) The causative agent produces endospores.
D) Herd immunity can decrease the risk of acquiring it.
E) It inhibits neurotransmitters.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct about malaria?
A) It infects over 300 million people worldwide each year.
B) It is highly communicable from host to host.
C) Plasmodium species are the causative agents.
D) Free-iron toxicity is the mode of action of chloroquine.
E) Drug resistance is a challenge.
Q3) Giardia causes more diarrhea than any other protozoan globally. Interpret the reasons for its success in causing disease.
Q4) What makes uropathogenic Escherichia coli different from the other E. coli?
Q5) How does Clostridium botulinum, an obligate anaerobe, secrete its potent toxins in food?
Q6) Why do urinary tract infections (UTIs) often occur in women?
Page 29
Q7) Compare and contrast the characteristic symptoms of the common cold and the flu.
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Several antifungal therapeutic agents act to inhibit sterol synthesis. Explain why this does NOT affect mammalian systems.
Q2) Minimal inhibitory concentration, or MIC, is ________ concentration of a drug that will prevent the growth of an organism.
A) the average
B) the lowest
C) the highest
D) the midline
E) any
Q3) A persister cell is an unsolved mystery of microbiology because these cells
A) grow rapidly in the presence of antibiotics.
B) neither grow nor die in the presence of an antibiotic.
C) cannot exit log phase growth when placed in an optimum antibiotic niche.
D) can form neither individual cells nor biofilms.
E) cycle between animal and human populations, never dying out.
Q4) Why is the newly discovered antibiotic class called pyronins considered to be a class of antibiotics that will be hard for a bacteria to become resistant to?
Q5) Why are drug-resistant bacteria less viable in comparison with wild type?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/27338
Sample Questions
Q1) The correct definition of "bioweapon" is any
A) agent categorized as a biosafety level IV organism.
B) infectious disease spread person to person with a low mortality rate.
C) agent causing widespread psychological trauma, with few casualties.
D) microbial agent or pieces of microbes that can be loaded into bombs.
E) infectious agent or toxin that has a high virulence and/or mortality rate.
Q2) Compare and contrast the use of point-of-care rapid tests as diagnostic methods in doctors' offices.
Q3) An abscess caused by the anaerobic species Clostridium perfringens would best be collected and transported by
A) aspiration into an oxygen-filled tube.
B) swabbing onto blood agar media.
C) aspiration into a nitrogen-filled tube.
D) draining with a catheter.
E) draining into a syringe.
Q4) Compare and contrast the epidemiological terms "endemic," "epidemic," and "pandemic." Give an example of each to support your answer.
Q5) How were Koch's postulates modified in the discovery of Tropheryma whipplei, the causative agent of Whipple's disease?
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