Medical Microbiology Practice Questions - 1728 Verified Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology Practice Questions
Medical Microbiology explores the biology of microorganisms that cause diseases in humans, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. This course covers the fundamental principles of microbial pathogenesis, host immune responses, laboratory identification techniques, and the epidemiology of infectious diseases. Students will gain an understanding of mechanisms of infection, diagnosis, treatment, prevention strategies, and emerging concerns such as antimicrobial resistance. By integrating case studies and clinical examples, the course prepares students for practical application in healthcare and research settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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22 Chapters
1728 Verified Questions
1728 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which area of biology states that living things undergo gradual,structural,and functional changes over long periods of time?
A)morphology
B)phylogeny
C)evolution
D)genetics
E)None of the choices is correct.
Answer: C
Q2) The structure of proteins is complex and unique,and only specific molecules can interact with their surface features.The natural shape of each protein is termed the native state.When proteins are exposed to heat,acid,or alcohol,their shape is disrupted and they become nonfunctional or A)digested.
B)denatured.
C)distorted.
D)depolymerized.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it
A)uses electrons to produce a specimen image.
B)is a type of compound microscope.
C)requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein.
D)is commonly used to diagnose certain infections.
E)requires an ultraviolet radiation source.
Answer: A
Q2) Which type of microscope bombards a whole,metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it?
A)fluorescence
B)differential interference contrast
C)scanning electron
D)transmission electron
E)phase contrast
Answer: C
Q3) Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells form a _____ arrangement when cells in a chain snap back upon each other forming a row of cells oriented side by side.
A)tetrad
B)strep
C)staph
D)sarcina
E)palisade
Answer: E
Q2) The term that refers to the presence of flagella over the cell surface is
A)amphitrichous.
B)atrichous.
C)lophotrichous.
D)monotrichous.
E)peritrichous.
Answer: E
Q3) Cellular organisms without a true nucleus include bacteria and viruses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The group of protozoa that have flagella are the A)sarcodina.
B)ciliophora.
C)mastigophora.
D)apicomplexa.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host?
A)primary host
B)secondary host
C)definitive host
D)transport host
E)Mating takes place in all hosts.
Q3) Histones are
A)found in polyribosomes.
B)enzymes found in lysosomes.
C)proteins of the cytoskeleton.
D)proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus.
E)on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
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6
Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Life Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses are used to produce vaccines for prevention of certain viral infections. A)True
B)False
Q2) Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during A)replication. B)assembly.
C)adsorption. D)release. E)penetration.
Q3) A specific animal virus has the ability to attach to and enter almost any animal host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called A)viroids. B)phages. C)prions.
D)oncogenic viruses. E)spikes.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called
A)saprobes.
B)parasites.
C)autotrophs.
D)lithoautotrophs.
E)phototrophs.
Q2) Following the patient's surgical procedure,he is admitted to the neurological intensive care unit.Interventions are implemented to decrease intracranial pressure,including the administration of intravenous hypertonic saline.Which of the following do you anticipate as the therapeutic response to the administration of this medication?
A)decreased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume
B)decreased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume
C)increased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume
D)increased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume
Q3) In a commensal relationship,the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor benefited.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub> molecules are oxidized in which step of the aerobic respiration process?
A)electron transport system
B)Krebs cycle
C)glycolysis
D)step before Krebs cycle
Q2) Denaturing an apoenzyme will destroy the three-dimensional shape of the protein,making it nonfunctional.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The organism is found to grow throughout the entire tube of broth media.Which of the following terms best describes the oxygen requirement of this organism?
A)obligate aerobe
B)microaerophile
C)facultative anaerobe
D)obligate anaerobe
Q4) Microbes can utilize only carbohydrates for energy production.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA Polymerase III
A)synthesizes primer.
B)removes primer.
C)joins Okazaki fragments.
D)unzips the DNA helix.
E)adds new bases and proofreads new DNA.
Q2) A three base sequence on mRNA is called a(n) A)codon.
B)exon.
C)anticodon.
D)intron.
Q3) Which is incorrect about inducible operons?
A)have genes turned off by a buildup of end product
B)are often for catabolic pathways
C)are normally turned off
D)are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme
E)include the lac operon
Q4) All mutations are detrimental to the cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)antisepsis.
D)sanitization.
E)degermation.
Q2) Analine dyes,like crystal violet,have antimicrobial activity particularly against gram-positive bacteria and some fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Agents that can denature microbial proteins include all of the following except A)moist heat.
B)alcohol. C)acids.
D)metallic ions.
E)X rays.
Q4) Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs include
A)low toxicity for human tissues.
B)high toxicity against microbial cells.
C)do not cause serious side effects in humans.
D)stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which antimicrobial does not interfere with protein synthesis?
A)aminoglycosides
B)tetracyclines
C)erythromycin
D)trimethroprim
E)gentamicin
Q3) Side effects that occur in patient's tissues while on antimicrobial drugs include all the following except
A)development of resistance to the drug.
B)hepatotoxicity.
C)nephrotoxicity.
D)diarrhea.
E)deafness.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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98 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the endotoxin?
A)hemolysin
B)hyaluronidase
C)toxinosis
D)collagenase
E)lipopolysaccharide
Q2) Keritinase has the greatest effect on the
A)respiratory system.
B)gastrointestinal system.
C)urinary system.
D)genital system.
E)skin.
Q3) Latency is a dormant state of an infectious agent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Under certain circumstances,a person's resident biota can be opportunistic pathogens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte?
A)neutrophil
B)macrophage
C)Kupffer cell
D)monocyte
E)lymphocyte
Q2) At this phase of injury,how would you expect the area surrounding the injury to present?
A)cool and blue
B)pink,warm,and dry
C)red and hot
D)dusky,gray,and clammy
Q3) Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?
A)lymph nodes
B)thymus
C)spleen
D)GALT
E)tonsils
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Edward Jenner's work involved
A)inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
B)development of passive immunotherapy.
C)development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
D)immunization using a related,less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) An example of natural active immunity would be
A)chickenpox infection followed by lifelong immunity.
B)chickenpox vaccine which triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C)giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D)a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) Antibody molecules circulate in lymph,blood,and tissue fluids.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
A)degranulation
B)bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)histamine acts on smooth muscle
E)prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Q2) Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against
A)myelin sheath cells of the nervous system.
B)acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle.
C)acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle.
D)sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane.
E)cells in thyroid follicles.
Q3) Corticosteroids will
A)inhibit the activity of lymphocytes.
B)bind to histamine receptors on target organs.
C)block synthesis of leukotrienes.
D)relieve inflammatory symptoms.
E)reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which test is used to confirm rheumatic fever?
A)ELISA
B)Western blot
C)Widal test
D)complement fixation
E)antistreptolysin O
Q2) Halley's nasal wash results came back,and were reported as "insufficient cells available for testing." What does this mean?
A)Halley is free of infection since insufficient cells could be isolated.
B)A smaller sample must be sent,since the counts clouded the results.
C)This is a very specific and sensitive finding that points to a viral infection.
D)The sample was inadequate,and the nasal wash procedure must be repeated.
Q3) Antibody testing requires
A)a known antigen.
B)a known antibody.
C)both a known antigen and a known antibody.
D)either a known antigen or a known antibody.
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17
Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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69 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)has the following characteristics except A)starts with a high fever.
B)causes roseola in infants and young children.
C)appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults.
D)a rash appears on the fourth day.
E)it is a very rare form of herpesvirus.
Q2) Staphylococcus can be differentiated from Streptococcus by the A)Gram stain.
B)coagulase test.
C)catalase test.
D)fermentation of mannitol.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) Measles is also known as A)rubella.
B)shingles.
C)rubeola.
D)fifth disease.
E)varicella.
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18
Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Q3) A lumbar puncture is performed,which confirms a diagnosis of meningitis.Antibiotics are started right away.Amanda's cerebral spinal fluid is placed on a microscope slide and Gram-stained.On stain,you see gram-positive cocci in pairs.What is the most likely offending organism?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Neisseria meningitides
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Listeria monocytogenes
Q4) Some cases of CJD may be caused by a mutation of the PrP gene.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should Suzanne's newborn baby be tested for HIV,assuming she does not breast-feed?
A)at birth
B)6 months of age
C)at birth and 6 months of age
D)every 6 months for 3 years
Q2) Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis?
A)exhibits bipolar staining
B)gram-negative rod
C)transmitted by fleas
D)has a capsule
E)produces enterotoxin
Q3) What is the likelihood that this presentation is fungal in nature?
A)90%
B)50%
C)10%
D)0%
Q4) A vaccine for Lyme disease is available.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary bacterial infections may occur with the common cold.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves a(n)
A)chest X ray.
B)acid-fast stain of sputum.
C)sputum culture.
D)tuberculin skin test.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Superantigens
A)include streptolysin O.
B)include erythrogenic toxin.
C)induce production of tumor necrosis factor.
D)can initiate a cascade of immune responses.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Respiratory syncytial virus is a major cause of global respiratory infection outbreaks in infants 6 months of age or younger.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of schistosomiasis?
A)It is caused by blood flukes.
B)Larvae called cercariae can invade intact skin.
C)It may cause liver swelling or malfunction.
D)Worms can invade the brain.
E)It can "cloak" itself with proteins in the blood.
Q2) Salmonelloses are
A)not caused by Salmonella typhi.
B)associated with undercooked poultry and eggs,and reptile and rodent feces.
C)types of gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea.
D)treated with fluid and electrolyte replacement.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following helminths is paired with a correct characteristic/s of its pathogenesis?
A)Ascaris lumbricoides - life and transmission cycle B
B)Necator americanus - life and transmission cycle A
C)Trichuris trichuria - life and transmission cycle B
D)Strongyloides stercoralis - life and transmission cycle B
E)Taenia solium - life and transmission cycle A
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Even after a positive test for a microbial cause,prostatitis is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy.Why?
A)It is a viral infection.
B)Drug-induced side effects are too great.
C)Mixed biofilms are hard to kill.
D)The infection is sporadic.
E)Prostatitis is never caused by bacteria.
Q2) Lymphogranuloma venereum is a complication of A)gonorrhea.
B)chlamydia.
C)genital herpes.
D)syphilis.
E)HIV.
Q3) Trichomonas vaginalis
A)does not produce cysts.
B)in males causes urethritis.
C)in females causes vaginitis with a foul-smelling discharge.
D)has four flagella and an undulating membrane.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: One Health: The Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary sewage treatment includes
A)sludge digesting.
B)skimming.
C)filtration.
D)chlorination.
E)aeration.
Q2) The reservoirs of West Nile virus are __________ and the vectors are __________.
A)birds;mosquitoes
B)birds;humans
C)humans;birds
D)mosquitoes;birds
Q3) Monitoring of drinking water and recreational water is done by testing for indicator bacteria.Indicator bacteria
A)are bacteria typically found in the mammalian mouth,nose,and throat.
B)are bacteria typically found in the mammalian gastrointestinal tract.
C)are bacteria known to proliferate in aquatic environments and fish.
D)are bacteria known to cause human disease.
Q4) HIV did not begin to spread throughout the African continent until the 1970s.
A)True
B)False
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