Medical Microbiology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology explores the complex relationships between microorganisms and human health, focusing on the biology and pathogenic mechanisms of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that cause disease in humans. The course covers foundational concepts such as microbial structure, physiology, genetics, and the immune response to infection. Students learn about disease transmission, diagnostic laboratory techniques, epidemiology, mechanisms of antimicrobial action and resistance, and current approaches to treatment and prevention. Through case studies and practical laboratory experiences, the course prepares students to understand the clinical significance of pathogens and to apply microbiological principles in medical and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience 1st Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which scientist is credited with constructing the first microscope?
A) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
B) Catherine of Siena
C) Robert Hooke
D) Louis Pasteur
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following would you not expect to find in the human digestive tract?
A) archaea
B) algae
C) bacteria
D) intestinal viruses
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of an endosymbiont?
A) Bacillus anthracis spores present in the soil of cattle farms
B) rhizobial bacteria growing in the root nodules of certain plants
C) microorganisms in the digestive system of the cow degrading cellulose
D) bacteria in termite intestines digesting plant polymers
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) What factor is most responsible for both the very young and the very old being most susceptible to infectious diseases?
A) the host genotype
B) different portals of entry for pathogens
C) the host immune system
D) the inability of these populations to communicate symptoms to health care providers
Answer: C
Q2) A mosquito can transmit a viral pathogen into humans.What is the mode of transmission of the virus in this instance?
A) oral
B) respiratory
C) urogenital
D) parenteral
Answer: B
Q3) What is the difference between a sign and a symptom?
Answer: Signs (such as rashes)can be observed by others.Symptoms (body aches)cannot be directly observed by others but are felt by the patient.
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Gram-negative cells,which layer is disrupted by the decolorizer in the Gram-staining procedure?
A) techoic acids
B) outer membrane
C) peptidoglycan
D) mycolic acid
Answer: B
Q2) Which type of stain would be the most useful in helping clinicians decide which class of antibiotics to prescribe?
A) negative stain
B) simple stain
C) endospore stain
D) Gram stain
Answer: D
Q3) Which microscope is used to observe specific fluorescent-labeled structures?
A) a compound light microscope
B) a phase-contrast microscope
C) a fluorescence microscope
D) an electron microscope
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of glucose?
A) It is a component of DNA and RNA.
B) It can form a ring structure.
C) It contains numerous amino groups.
D) It is a five-carbon sugar.
Q2) A cell's genome consists of 20% thymine.What is the percentage of cytosine?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q3) The sharing of electrons between two atoms forms ________ bonds.
Q4) In a cell membrane,phosphate head groups
A) only face the extracellular environment.
B) only face the aqueous cytoplasm.
C) bind each other via ionic bonds in the interior of the membrane.
D) face both the extracellular environment and the cytoplasm.
Q5) What are some structural differences between cellular DNA and RNA?
Q6) What is osmosis and why is it important for cells to maintain osmotic balance?
Q7) Redox reactions involve the movement of ________ from one molecule or atom to another.
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) ATP synthase is found in bacterial cell membranes.In eukaryotic cells,ATP synthase is found in the
A) cell membrane.
B) cytoplasm.
C) mitochondrial inner membrane.
D) mitochondrial matrix.
Q2) Which organelle houses a eukaryotic cell's genome?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) contractile vacuole
C) ribosome
D) nucleus
Q3) Flagella are required for bacterial
A) chemotaxis.
B) growth.
C) adherence.
D) buoyancy.
Q4) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
Q5) The ability of bacterial cells to swim toward favorable environments and away from harmful environments is known as ________.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a problem with the viable count method of cell quantification?
A) underestimation of the number of living cells in the culture
B) takes too long if you want to immediately study cells at a particular growth phase
C) not accurate for organisms whose cells remain attached (for example, Streptococci growing in chains)
D) not useful for living cells
Q2) Direct counting of bacterial cells under the microscope can be accomplished using a ________.
Q3) A culture of Salmonella increases from 20 cells to over 10,000 cells in just three hours.Of what is this an example?
A) lag phase
B) doubling time
C) budding
D) exponential growth
Q4) A ________ contains only the most basic compounds an organism needs to grow and nothing more.
Q5) Mesophilic proteins are ________ flexible than psychrophilic proteins.
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) What catabolite is produced first from the catabolism of starch and cellulose?
A) acetyl-CoA
B) amino acids
C) glucose
D) glycerol
Q2) A bacterium that lacks a respiratory chain likely relies on what metabolic strategy for energy production?
A) aerobic lithotrophy
B) anaerobic lithotrophy
C) photosynthesis
D) glycolysis followed by fermentation
Q3) The human genome does NOT code for enzymes that can catabolize
A) cellulose.
B) starch.
C) fatty acids.
D) proteins.
Q4) The ultimate goal of the Calvin cycle is to produce ________.
Q5) If Fe³ is the final electron acceptor at the end of an electron transport system,the waste product is ________.
Q6) Biosynthetic reactions are also known as ________ reactions.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a portion of the template strand of a gene has the sequence 5¢ TTGCAGCT 3¢,what is the sequence of the RNA transcribed from this template?
A) 5¢AACGTCGA3¢
B) 5¢AACGUCGA3¢
C) 5¢ AGCUGCAA3¢
D) 5¢ AGCTGCAA3¢
Q2) Bacteria regulate virulence gene expression because A) the genes need to be expressed all the time.
B) the genes do not need to be expressed all the time, and regulation saves energy.
C) the genes do not need to be expressed all the time; if they were, the bacterial cell would die.
D) it does not cost them any energy to keep the gene expressed all the time.
Q3) An enzyme that cuts the DNA phosphodiester backbone at a particular DNA sequence is called a ________.
Q4) Two common levels of regulation of protein activity are transcriptional control and posttranslational control.Please discuss the differences between the two in terms of speed of response and energy efficiency.
Q5) Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The traits of the hidden microbiota of humans can be predicted by analyzing A) cellular structure.
B) DNA sequences.
C) microscopic appearance.
D) growth patterns.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an open reading frame?
A) DNA sequence long enough to encode an amino acid sequence of at least 50.
B) It begins with a translation start codon.
C) It ends with a translation termination codon.
D) It contains a promoter sequence.
Q3) Genes for transfer RNA can be predicted through A) amino acid sequence similarity.
B) protein function prediction.
C) gene function prediction.
D) conservation over vast phylogenetic distances.
Q4) Explain how natural selection quickly leads to antibiotic resistance.
Q5) Describe how gene duplication leads to paralogs.
Q6) A ________ relationship develops between endosymbionts and their hosts.
Q7) Ancient ________ give evidence to the fact that all life originated from microorganisms.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT accurately describe Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A) causes opportunist infections in human surgical wounds
B) may form biofilms on pulmonary lining of cystic fibrosis patients
C) commonly grows in soil as a decomposer
D) may infect fleas, which transmit P. aeruginosa to humans
Q2) CASE HISTORY
Kimiko,a six-year-old girl from Shodo Island,in Japan,had a four-day history of fever,severe abdominal pain,and loose stools.She was diagnosed with appendicitis,but an exploratory laparotomy found a healthy appendix.She responded well to tetracycline antibiotic therapy.The doctors finally concluded she had enteritis (intestinal inflammation).Bacteriological examination of her stool eventually recovered Yersinia pseudotuberculosis,an occasional cause of enteritis.The organism,which is transmitted by ingesting contaminated food or water,was found in the family's well water and in the stool of animals found on their property.
Is Y.pseudotuberculosis the only member of the Enterobacteriaceae that could have caused Kimiko's symptoms? If not,describe another organism that also causes enteritis.
Q3) If all cyanobacteria were suddenly removed from our environment,how would you expect the biosphere to be affected?
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered "true" microbes?
A) nematode
B) cestodes
C) trematodes
D) fungi
Q2) Lobed amebas and filamentous amebas are differentiated by the form of their ________.
Q3) Trypanosoma brucei,the parasite that causes African sleeping sickness,is carried by A) deer ticks.
B) Anopheles mosquitoes.
C) tsetse flies.
D) bedbugs.
Q4) Describe how the parasites that cause malaria are able to evade an immune response during an infection.
Q5) Obligate parasites with a single flagellum,a complex life cycle,and unique organelles called "kinetoplasts" are known specifically as ________.
Q6) A single-celled eukaryotic microbe proliferating by mitosis is undergoing ________ reproduction.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of HPV causes cancer?
A) all types of HPV
B) no types of HPV
C) some types of latent HPV
D) all types of actively replicating HPV
Q2) ________ is an example of a virus that causes major economic losses in the agriculture industry.
A) Tobacco mosaic virus
B) Measles virus
C) HIV
D) Influenza
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a level of viral evolution?
A) within an organelle
B) within a host community
C) within a viral species population
D) within an individual organism
Q4) Human papillomavirus contains a ________ genome.
Q5) ________ proteins are expressed during viral infection of a host cell and are packaged between the envelope and the capsid during envelope formation.
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following will result from inhibited topoisomerases?
A) no cell wall synthesis
B) deficient plasma membrane
C) impaired DNA synthesis
D) impaired RNA synthesis
Q2) Fungal cells grown in the presence of fluconazole have
A) impaired cell division.
B) mutations in DNA.
C) defective cell walls.
D) defective cell membranes.
Q3) Explain why antifungal agents are less selectively toxic than antibacterial agents.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of biofilms that makes it resistant to disinfectants?
A) presence of an extracellular matrix
B) stress-induced physiology of surface cells
C) stress-induced physiology of cells deep in the biofilm
D) metabolic collaboration between multiple species
Q5) Describe how avoiding the use of antibiotics for viral infections can prevent the spread of antibiotic resistance.
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is evidenced by the health of gnotobiotic mice?
A) Antibiotic resistance is an ever-growing threat.
B) The presence of normal microbiota challenges the immune system.
C) Epithelial barriers prevent the spread of opportunistic infections.
D) Nothing has been learned from gnotobiotic mice.
Q2) ________ is the preferred carbon source for epithelial cells.
A) Glucose
B) L-DOPA
C) Norepinephrine
D) Butyrate
Q3) How has the development of clean water NEGATIVELY affected modern civilization?
A) reduced fecal transmission of bacteria resulting in missing microbiota
B) altered immunological environment
C) increased transmission of hormone-activating compounds
D) decreased amounts of important trace minerals
Q4) ________ is/are used to study host-microbiota relationships in the laboratory.
A) Tight junctions
B) Metagenomics
C) Gnotobiotic animals
D) Quorum sensing
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chill is a sign that
A) body temperature is falling.
B) body temperature is rising.
C) body temperature is not changing.
D) blood vessels are dilating.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of a white blood cell (WBC)?
A) mast cell
B) macrophage
C) monocyte
D) erythrocyte
Q3) There are two general types of interferons,type I and type II.Describe how type I interferons work to prevent the host from infection.
Q4) Once the inflammatory process is complete,neutrophils undergo A) phagocytosis.
B) oxidative burst.
C) apoptosis.
D) opsonization.
Q5) Toll-like receptors recognize ________ on pathogenic microorganisms.
17
Q6) Movement of neutrophils out of blood vessels and into infected tissue is called
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following accurately describes how a foreign molecule leads to the production of antibody?
A) Individual epitopes on an antigen are recognized and a single antibody is produced for each epitope.
B) The immune system recognizes whole microbes and responds by secreting a single antibody against the microbe.
C) The immune system recognizes individual haptens on an antigen and secretes several antibodies directed against that hapten.
D) Groups of epitopes on an antigen are recognized and a single antibody is produced for each group.
Q2) Describe the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC).
Q3) IgG,IgA,IgM,IgD,and IgE are all examples of A) antigens. B) idiotypes. C) isotypes. D) allotypes.
Q4) The small peptides released by various cells that influence the direction and intensity of an immune response are known as ________.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) CASE HISTORY
Richard,who is blood group B,was undergoing surgery after a car accident and accidentally received a transfusion with type A blood.Within hours,Richard experienced chills and lowered blood pressure.His urine turned red with blood.All these symptoms indicate an ABO blood group incompatibility. Is there an identifiable allergen present in this case study? How can you tell?
Q2) CASE HISTORY
The patient,Asuncion,is an eight-year-old girl from Argentina.She received the BCG vaccine for tuberculosis about one year before coming to the United States.Upon entering school in the United States,she must take a skin test for tuberculosis (TB).Asuncion tries to refuse but is told it is a requirement.She allows the nurse to apply the test to her arm.Three days later,the test site has a large red lesion and the skin is starting to slough (peel off).
From the information given in the case study,we cannot tell whether Asuncion could potentially pose a TB infection risk to her classmates.Why was this test an inappropriate one for Asuncion and what would be a more useful alternative?
Q3) Patients with ________ have normal or elevated serum IgM levels but low levels of other antibodies.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an obligate intracellular pathogen?
A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Shigella dysenteriae
C) Coxiella burnetii
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q2) Genomic islands have all of the following features EXCEPT
A) they are flanked by phage or plasmid genes.
B) the ratio of GC/AT nucleases.
C) they do not need toxins or secretion systems.
D) they encode clusters of genes that contribute to the fitness of the organism.
Q3) Most pathogenicity island genes were acquired by ________ transmission.
Q4) Organisms such as Shigella and Listeria are able to move from cell to cell without being detected by the host immune system.What method are they using?
A) production of an actin tail that propels them from cell to cell
B) production of a capsule to avoid antibody binding
C) production of protein A molecules to bind the Fc region of antibodies
D) production of proteins to trigger apoptosis in host cells
Q5) Organized,high-density communities of cells that embed themselves in self-made exopolymer matrices are called ________.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) Which of the follow is NOT caused by HSV-1?
A) cold sores
B) canker sores
C) herpes whitlow
D) herpes encephalitis
Q2) Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched?
A) Haemophilus influenzae-pinkeye
B) Pseudomonas-conjunctivitis
C) Chlamydia gonorrhoeae-trachoma
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae-respiratory infection
Q3) A 45-year-old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant,his right shoulder,and the upper right quadrant of his chest.His symptoms are most likely due to
A) Candida albicans.
B) herpes simplex virus.
C) varicella-zoster virus.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
Q4) Necrotizing fasciitis is often caused by ________.
Q5) Opthalmia neonatorum is a serious eye disease of infants caused by ________.
Page 22
Q6) Fungi that love human skin are called ________.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) A secondary bacterial infection is most likely in a patient who A) smokes cigarettes.
B) breathes humidified air.
C) breathes dry air.
D) has thin mucus secretions.
Q2) A viral disease of the lower respiratory tract would likely present with A) runny nose.
B) sinus congestion.
C) facial pain.
D) cough.
Q3) Some strains of the bacteria Haemophilus influenzae produce beta-lactamase enzyme that
A) confers antibiotic resistance to the bacteria.
B) allows attachment of the bacteria to cilia on host cells.
C) prevents immunity from forming in the host.
D) prevents lysosomes from fusing to phagosomes.
Q4) Stephanie,a one-year-old girl,frequently develops painful cases of acute otitis media within days of developing viral upper respiratory infections.Explain why viral infections of the upper respiratory tract may lead to acute otitis media.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) When Yersinia pestis remains untreated in a human body,it can enter the bloodstream and ultimately invade the
A) liver.
B) kidneys.
C) spleen.
D) lungs.
Q2) Which of the following diseases is caused by a helminth?
A) toxoplasmosis
B) babesiosis
C) leishmaniasis
D) schistosomiasis
Q3) What treatment is typically used for otherwise healthy individuals who contract infectious mononucleosis?
A) hospitalization
B) antiviral therapy
C) activity restriction
D) passive immunization
Q4) Preventing leishmaniasis would require preventing bites from ________.
Q5) Giant cells with the appearance of "owl's eyes" are indicative of a(n)________ infection.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) When does breakdown of food begin?
A) in the esophagus
B) when saliva is secreted by the salivary glands
C) in the gastric acids of the stomach
D) in the large intestine
Q2) Tapeworms are transmitted by the ________ route.
A) fecal-environment-skin
B) fecal-oral
C) fecal-oral-environment-skin
D) fecal-intermediate host-oral
Q3) A recall on spinach potentially contaminated with Yersinia enterocolitica occurs.Sally hears about the recall but has kept her spinach in the refrigerator.She figures that even if her spinach had been contaminated,the organism will not grow in the refrigerator.Therefore,the number of organisms present will be so small that even if her spinach is contaminated,she will not be affected.Is Sally correct? Explain.
Q4) People infected with ________ are treated with proton pump inhibitors and a high dose of antibiotics.
Q5) A liver biopsy is used to diagnose infection with the ________ helminth.
Q6) Infections of the oral cavity start as a ________.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) Nearly 70% of patients seen in STI clinics are men.Offer a reason why men are more likely to seek treatment than women.Why is it important that women seek treatment for STIs?
Q2) The observation of a "strawberry" cervix is a symptom of A) lymphogranuloma venereum.
B) candidiasis.
C) genital herpes.
D) trichomoniasis.
Q3) Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of A) candidiasis.
B) trichomoniasis.
C) genital herpes.
D) lymphogranuloma venereum.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT considered a clinical progression of an HIV infection?
A) increase in immune function
B) seroconversion
C) latency
D) AIDS
Q5) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________.
A) meningitis; bee stings
B) meningitis; mosquitoes
C) encephalitis; dog bites
D) encephalitis; mosquitoes
Q2) Which of the following is true about myelin sheaths?
A) They slow down the speed of nerve impulses.
B) They are made up of a protein molecule called myelin.
C) They are destroyed in certain disorders such as multiple sclerosis.
D) They cover all neuronal axons.
Q3) Viral diseases of the central nervous system are transmitted by all of the following EXCEPT
A) sexual contact.
B) mosquito bites.
C) the fecal-oral route.
D) stepping on a contaminated nail.
Q4) Explain the transmission,etiologies,and diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Q5) List and describe the defensive mechanisms that are in place to protect the central nervous system.
Page 27
Q6) A small proteinaceous infectious particle is known as a ________.
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) A patient suspected of having septicemia is having blood samples drawn from both of her arms.Why is it important to draw blood samples from two different sites?
Q2) Eosin methylene blue (EMB)agar contains dyes that inhibit the growth of Gram-positive organisms and bile salts that prevent the growth of Gram-negative bacteria other than fecal coliforms.Also included in EMB are stains that show a color change when an organism ferments lactose.This media is best described as
A) selective.
B) differential.
C) selective and differential.
D) nonselective.
Q3) Which of the following is considered a DISADVANTAGE of a point-of-care (POC)test?
A) Technicians are not required to culture the pathogen.
B) Clinicians are able to rapidly recognize a chain of infection.
C) Antibiotics can be avoided in cases of viral infection.
D) Multiple infections are more likely to go undetected.
Q4) Body sites that contain no microorganisms are considered to be ________.
Q5) API 20E test strips contain wells with media that test for specific ________ reactions.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) An infection with similar signs and symptoms appears in 24 prison inmates.There is evidence of bacterial etiology,but no laboratory has successfully isolated a bacterial agent in pure culture.Which of the following pieces of evidence would indicate a single bacterial species is causing the disease?
A) DNA sequence analysis reveals an organism genetically similar to a known bacterium. B) the presence of eukaryotic DNA within biopsy tissues from all individuals
C) high fevers and night sweats in all affected individuals
D) 16S ribosomal RNA amplified in 50% of biopsy tissue samples
Q2) One potential bioweapon is a virus that has been eradicated from natural populations;only two WHO-sanctioned laboratories still maintain vials of this virus.This virus is ____.
Q3) An elderly man is admitted to a hospital after he experiences a heart attack.Four days after his admission he is diagnosed with pneumonia caused by Pseudomonas.Three other patients in the same hospital at the same time also develop pneumonia caused by Pseudomonas.List at least four key questions an infectious disease epidemiologist would want answered as the source of these infections is investigated.
Q4) Explain the relationship between the terms endemic,epidemic,and pandemic.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46039
Sample Questions
Q1) A microbe's contribution to an ecosystem's health depends on the A) microbe's genome and the physical and chemical characteristics of the environment.
B) microbe's age and number of primary producers in the environment.
C) microbe's ability to cycle carbon and the number of decomposers in the ecosystem.
D) bioremediation capacity of the microbe and the number of predators in the ecosystem.
Q2) When carbon- and nitrogen-rich wastes are released into aquatic environments
A) algae populations decrease.
B) fish populations increase.
C) invertebrate populations increase.
D) bacterial populations increase.
Q3) Organic molecules in lake water are consumed as food and combined with oxygen by ________.
Q4) Bacteria and archaea are the only organisms capable of converting the element ________ between its oxidation states.
Q5) The specialized relationship in which one member benefits while the other member is harmed is known as ________.
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