Medical Microbiology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology explores the complex interactions between humans and microorganisms, focusing on the role of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites in human disease. This course covers the fundamental biology of pathogenic microbes, mechanisms of infection and immunity, diagnostic microbiological techniques, and the principles of antimicrobial therapy. Students will gain insights into the epidemiology, pathogenesis, and control of major infectious diseases affecting global health, preparing them to understand clinical manifestations and laboratory approaches essential for diagnosis, treatment, and prevention in medical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 9th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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27 Chapters
1932 Verified Questions
1932 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on earth for approximately 2 billion years before eukaryotes appeared.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The most common infectious cause of death worldwide is A)HIV/AIDS. B)stroke. C)heart disease.
D)cancer.
E)malaria.
Answer: A
Q3) A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cations are
A)charged subatomic particles.
B)atoms that have gained electrons.
C)radioactive isotopes.
D)capable of forming ionic bonds with anions.
E)atoms without protons.
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are polysaccharides, except:
A)dextran in some bacterial slime layers
B)agar used to make solid culture media
C)a cell's glycocalyx
D)cellulose in certain cell walls
E)prostaglandins in inflammation
Answer: E
Q3) Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sally had a throat sample taken at a satellite lab within her health care provider's office.What kind of media would be best suited for this specimen?
A)TSA plate
B)TSB tube
C)Transport media
D)Pour plate
E)Quadrant streak plate
Answer: C
Q2) At the end of the Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The procedure for culturing a microorganism requires the use of a microscope. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed
Answer: fastidious
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to endotoxins, except they
A)are specific bacterial cell wall lipids.
B)can stimulate fever in the human body.
C)can cause shock in the human body.
D)are involved in typhoid fever and some meningitis cases.
E)are found in acid fast bacterial cell walls.
Q2) The cell _____ is composed of three layers: the glycocalyx, the cell wall, and the cell membrane.
Q3) All of the following are correct about a slime layer, except
A)it is a type of glycocalyx.
B)it can be easily washed off the cell.
C)it protects the cell from loss of water and nutrients.
D)it plays a role in cell motility.
E)it allows cells to participate in biofilms.
Q4) The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the A)ribosomes.
B)mitochondria.
C)cell wall.
D)inclusions.
E)cell membrane.
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the morphology of Cestodes, Trematodes, and Nematodes.
Q2) Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cell walls are not found on typical cells of A)protozoa.
B)algae.
C)fungi.
D)bacteria.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia.
Q5) Fungal spores
A)are only produced under harmful environmental conditions.
B)are only asexually produced.
C)cannot be seen in a light microscope.
D)are produced by molds but not by yeasts.
E)are used to identify fungi.
Q6) During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a _____.
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Page 8
Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Q1) Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is incorrect about prophages?
A)present when the virus is in lysogeny
B)formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
C)replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
D)cause lysis of host cells
E)occur when temperate phages enter host cells
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
A)envelope
B)capsomers
C)capsid
D)nucleic acid
E)genome
Q4) A(n) _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
Q5) Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid.
A)True
B)False
9
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Calcium is required for bacteria because
A)It stabilizes the cell wall
B)It stabilizes the ribosomes
C)It stabilizes the nucleoid
D)It maintains cellular pH
E)It makes strong bones
Q3) The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that
A)Have sunlight
B)Are very acidic
C)Have abundant oxygen and CO<sub>2</sub>
D)Are extremely cold
E)Are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO<sub>2</sub>
Q4) The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is an intermediary of glycolysis that can also be utilized in biosynthetic pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of _____ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction.
A)Cofactors
B)Vitamins
C)Enzymes
D)ATP
E)Coenzymes
Q3) _____ reactions are anabolic reactions involving ligases for synthesis and the release of one water molecule for each bond formed.
A)Reduction
B)Condensation
C)Oxidation
D)Transfer
E)None of the choices are correct
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of conjugation?
A)Involves direct contact between cells
B)Transfers genes for drug resistance
C)Transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules
D)Transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule
E)The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes
Q2) The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except
A)Contain codons within their rRNA molecules
B)Participate only in translation
C)Bind to the 5' end of mRNA by their small subunit
D)Use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding
E)Shift toward the 3'end of the mRNA strand from one codon to the next
Q3) Which is incorrect about inducible operons?
A)Have genes turned off by a buildup of end product
B)Are often for catabolic pathways
C)Are normally turned off
D)Are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme
E)Include the lac operon
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12
Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme___ adds three nucleotides of DNA in the ___direction when DNA is being semi-conservatively replicated
A)DNA polymerase III, 3'\(\rarr\)5'
B)DNA polymerase I, 3'\(\rarr\)5'
C)DNA polymerase III, 5'\(\rarr\)3'
D)DNA polymerase I, 5'\(\rarr\)3'
E)None of the above
Q2) Two different nucleic acids can _____ by uniting at their complementary sites.
Q3) Which of the following is a serious concern when performing PCR?
A)high temperature needed may denature the DNA
B)restriction enzymes are difficult to obtain in adequate quantities
C)introduction and amplification of contaminating DNA
D)exposure to radiation by the lab personnel
E)it is a very time consuming process
Q4) Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?
A)add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
B)cool DNA to between 50<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C and 65<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
C)add primers
D)heat target DNA to 94<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
E)repeat the cycle of heating and cooling
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alcohols:
A)denature proteins when in a 50-95% solution.
B)are used to disinfect items by soaking.
C)are skin degerming agents.
D)at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Discuss the purpose and level of control achieved by pasteurization.Compare the flash and batch methods.
Q3) The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is:
A)ethylene oxide.
B)iodophor.
C)glutaraldehyde.
D)formaldehyde.
E)chlorine dioxide.
Q4) Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?
A)Tincture of iodine
B)Merthiolate
C)Silver nitrate solutions
D)Zinc
E)Mercurochrome
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host-The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause A)nephrotoxicity.
B)superinfections.
C)allergic reactions.
D)drug toxicity.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed A)antibiotics.
B)narrow-spectrum drugs.
C)semisynthetic drugs.
D)synthetic drugs.
E)broad-spectrum drugs.
Q3) A superinfection results from
A)build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient.
B)the wrong drug administered to the patient.
C)an immune system reaction to the drug.
D)decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Describe how the therapeutic index of a drug is determined and explain its function.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection, Disease, and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth.This specimen was from an HIV positive patient.If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is A)direct.
B)fomite.
C)vehicle.
D)droplet nuclei.
E)aerosols.
Q3) Under certain circumstances, a person's resident flora can be opportunistic pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ are a set of criteria used to identify and link a specific microorganism as the etiologic agent of a new infectious disease.
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor.This means
A)redness.
B)pain.
C)loss of function.
D)warmth.
E)swelling.
Q2) Genetic differences among species, and within a species, can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When macrophages migrate to the skin and remain there, they are called _____ cells.
A)Alveolar
B)Langerhans
C)GALT
D)Kupffer
E)Dendritic
Q4) _____ lymphocytes function in humoral immunity, while _____ lymphocytes function in cell-mediated immunity.
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cytotoxic T cells
A)stimulate B cell proliferation.
B)lack specificity for a target cell.
C)secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
D)secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following, except
A)two identical heavy polypeptide chains.
B)two identical light polypeptide chains.
C)disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.
D)four antigen binding sites.
E)a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.
Q4) _____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
Q5) Alloantigens are the basis for an individual's blood group and MHC profile.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a myeloma cell with a normal _____ cell.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category
A)Type 1 only.
B)Type 1 and Type 4.
C)Type 4 only.
D)Type 1, Type 2, Type 3.
E)Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.
Q2) A person who has anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type A)A.
B)B.
C)AB.
D)O.
E)Rh.
Q3) Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases, except
A)rheumatoid arthritis.
B)myasthenia gravis.
C)Graves' disease.
D)tuberculin reaction.
E)multiple sclerosis.
Q4) An _____ is any chronic local allergy.
Q5) Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a Type _____ hypersensitivity.
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?
A)mycology
B)hematology
C)serology
D)histology
E)virology
Q2) The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is:
A)cross-reactions.
B)agglutination.
C)precipitation.
D)specificity.
E)sensitivity.
Q3) Precipitation tests involve all of the following, except:
A)they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection.
B)they include the VDRL test for syphilis.
C)they are often performed in agar gels.
D)they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution.
E)a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci
of Medical Importance
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Q1) If left untreated, an infection with ___ can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility.
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Neisseria meningitidis
C)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) Streptokinase causes the symptoms of scarlet fever.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss in detail why strep sore throat must be diagnosed and treated rapidly.
Q4) The production of the enzyme _____ by Staphylococcus aureus is a key characteristic used to identify it from other species of Staphylococcus.
Q5) Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group _____ streptococci. B
Q6) A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for:
A)Neisseria meningitidis.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.
E)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Page 21
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Page 22
Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes, except:
A)gram positive
B)sporeformer
C)contaminant of dairy products, meats, poultry
D)causes foodborne listeriosis
E)bacterial cells multiply within the cytoplasm of a host cell
Q2) Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in:
A)diphtheria.
B)listeriosis.
C)tuberculosis.
D)erysipeloid.
E)botulism.
Q3) When the centers of tubercles break down into _____ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue.
Q4) The _____ test injects 0.1 ml of PPD intradermally into the forearm.
Q5) Compare and contrast primary tuberculosis, secondary tuberculosis, and extrapulmonary tuberculosis.
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Q6) _____ is a chronic progressive disease of the skin and nerves caused by Mycobacterium leprae.
Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pseudomonas is an enteric gram negative rod.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is incorrect about pertussis?
A)A virulence factor of B. pertussis is toxins that destroy cilia cells is produced.
B)The source of infection is direct contact with inhaled droplets.
C)The paroxysmal stage is characterized by persistent coughing.
D)The number of cases is steadily decreasing since 1976.
E)It can cause severe, life-threatening complications in babies.
Q3) A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The virulence factor associated with the events of gram negative sepsis and septic shock is _____.
Q5) Discuss Legionella pneumophila with regard to: a) reservoir, b) virulence, c) transmission, d) types of diseases, and e) prevention.
Q6) Plague is a quarantinable disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) All of the following are correct about primary atypical pneumonia except A)it is mainly caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B)it can also be caused by adenoviruses.
C)it is transmitted by aerosol droplets.
D)it has symptoms similar to pneumococcal pneumonia.
E)community resistance is high.
Q2) In patients with diabetes or liver disease, ingestion of raw oysters contaminated with this organism can lead to death:
A)Vibrio vulnificus
B)Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C)Vibrio cholerae
D)Campylobacter jejuni
E)Helicobacter pylori
Q3) The RPR, VDRL, MHA-TP, FTA-ABS, and TPI tests are used to diagnose A)chlamydiosis.
B)syphilis.
C)lyme disease.
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
E)Q fever.
Q4) The two bacterial genera of obligate parasites are _____ and _____.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis?
A)pathogen grows inside macrophages
B)transmitted by inhalation of spores
C)respiratory infections range from mild to severe
D)chronic cases have symptoms similar to tuberculosis
E)never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract
Q2) Explain why Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci has been difficult to classify, and why traditional antifungal drugs are not effective against this microbe.
Q3) Sporotrichosis is associated with soil high in pigeon droppings that is introduced into subcutaneous tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fungi cannot be found growing in nutritionally poor and adverse conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All fungi are heterotrophic and can break their substrates down by secreting enzymes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include
A)headache, sweating, vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea.
B)a circular rash that appears on the trunk and spreads to the extremities.
C)loss of hair.
D)a red skin papule that spreads to a large ulcer.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is an apicomplexan parasite?
A)Naegleria fowleri
B)Toxoplasma gondii
C)Balantidium coli
D)Giardia lamblia
E)Entamoeba histolytica
Q3) Trichomonas vaginalis
A)does not produce cysts.
B)in males causes urethritis.
C)in females causes vaginitis with a foul-smelling discharge.
D)has four flagella and an undulating membrane.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Control of _____ revolves around mosquito control and methods to prevent human-mosquito contact.
27
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Q1) Polyomaviruses:
A)cause common asymptomatic to mild infections.
B)cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy.
C)cause problems in renal transplant patients.
D)include the JC virus and BK virus.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Adenoviruses cause an inflammation of the conjunctiva and cornea called _____.
Q3) There are vaccines that cause the development of immunity to the hepatitis B virus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which virus may play a role in multiple sclerosis?
A)Epstein Barr Virus
B)Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
C)Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D)Herpes simplex virus-2
E)Smallpox
Q5) Describe viral latency and oncogenicity, and discuss two examples of latent DNA viruses and two examples of oncogenic DNA viruses.
Q6) Using at least three examples, summarize how HPV can be prevented.
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is:
A)leukemia.
B)Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C)Kaposi's sarcoma.
D)melanoma.
E)colon cancer.
Q2) Which is correct about influenza?
A)Antigenic shift is a minor change in the viral strain.
B)The virus is found in swine and cats.
C)The virus is grown in poultry eggs for vaccines.
D)Influenza A has a mortality rate of close to 35%.
E)The virus binds to the intestinal mucosa.
Q3) Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involve:
A)fever, headache, and rash.
B)coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases.
C)myalgia and orbital pain.
D)muscle aches and joint stiffness.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) An antigenic _____ occurs when genome segments from different influenza strains recombine.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which organism is a nitrogen fixing symbiont of legumes?
A)Rhizobium
B)Nitrobacter
C)Pseudomonas
D)Nostoc
E)Azotobacter
Q2) Living or dead organisms that occupy an organism's habitat are called biotic factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A group of organisms of the same species within a community is called a A)niche.
B)habitat.
C)population.
D)community.
E)biome.
Q4) Differentiate between the following terms and provide an example for each: mutualism, communalism, synergism, parasitism.
Q5) An _____ is the term for a deep groundwater source.
Q6) An _____ is a region where the river meets the sea.
Page 30
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) In batch fermentation, substrate is added continuously and the product is siphoned off throughout the run.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hypertonic levels of sugar or salt create high __________ pressure that plasmolyzes bacteria.
Q3) The yeast used in making bread, beer, and wine is
A)Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
B)Leuconostoc mesenteroides.
C)Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus.
D)Propionibacterium.
E)Spirulina.
Q4) A food _____ results from ingestion of whole microbial cells that target the intestine.
Q5) ____________ protein can be produced from waste materials such as molasses or petroleum by-products to be used as a food.
Q6) The process of recovery, purification, and packaging of product is known as _________ processing.
Q7) List some examples of products made through industrial microbiology.
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