Medical Microbiology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology is the study of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that cause diseases in humans. This course explores the mechanisms of microbial pathogenesis, host immune responses, methods of diagnosis, epidemiology, and principles of infection prevention and control. Emphasizing both fundamental concepts and clinical relevance, the course covers topics like antimicrobial agents, resistance mechanisms, laboratory identification of pathogens, and the emerging threats of novel infectious diseases. Students gain an understanding of how microbes interact with the human body, the ways in which infectious diseases are transmitted, and the strategies used in both treatment and public health management.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 1st Edition by Dave Wessner
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Q1) What term applies to the oxidation of glucose to pyruvate for the generation of energy?
A) gluconeogenesis
B) Krebs cycle
C) lactate fermentation
D) pentose phosphate pathway
E) glycolysis
Answer: E
Q2) The discovery of ribozymes provide evidence that life on the early Earth may have been based on:
A) DNA.
B) proteins.
C) RNA.
D) lipids.
E) polysaccharides.
Answer: C
Q3) The three domains of life are ________,________,and ________.
Answer: Bacteria,Archaea,Eukarya.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) What is the reaction of -lactamase enzymes?
A) Hydrolyze the glycan chain of peptidoglycan.
B) Hydrolyze lactose to glucose and galactose.
C) Inactivate antibiotics like penicillin.
D) Inactivate the enzyme lysozyme.
E) Prevent the transpeptidation reaction during peptidoglycan synthesis.
Answer: C
Q2) Diaminopimelic acid is an amino acid naturally found in peptidoglycan.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The movement of a bacterial cell toward a chemical attractant is called ________. Answer: chemotaxis
Q4) In the scientific name Bacillus cereus,the term Bacillus represents the organism's ___ and cereus its ____.
Answer: genus ,species
Q5) The bacterial ___ functions in protection from desiccation,and phagocytosis,and in attachment.
Answer: capsule
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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Q1) What is the defining organelle of eukaryal cells?
A) mitochondron
B) chloroplast
C) Golgi apparatus
D) nucleus
E) lysosome
Answer: D
Q2) A haploid Chlamydomonas replicates asexually under favorable environmental conditions.What happens when growth conditions deteriorate?
A) It becomes motile.
B) It stops growing.
C) It changes morphologically to form large aggregates.
D) It changes into a gamete and fuses with another gamete.
E) It changes morphologically into a spore for survival.
Answer: D
Q3) Microfilament are made of the protein ___.
Answer: actin
Q4) Plasmodium falciparum causes the disease ______.
Answer: malaria
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) Why did Woese and Fox use rRNA gene sequences to compare the phylogenetic relatedness between microbes?
Q2) The secondary structure and amino acid composition of proteins from hyperthermophiles differ somewhat from proteins in mesophiles.What would you expect to find in thermophiles?
A) More -sheets and the amino acids tyrosine and arginine.
B) More -helices and the amino acids tyrosine and arginine.
C) More -sheets and the amino acids cysteine and serine.
D) More -sheets and the amino acids glycine and glutamate.
E) More -helices and the amino acids cysteine and serine.
Q3) Which of these is true about methanogens?
A) They are aerobic and grow on methane.
B) They are anaerobic and ferment methane.
C) They are anaerobic and produce methane from CO reduction.
D) They are aerobic and ferment methane.
E) They are aerobic and produce methane from CO reduction.
Q4) Halobacterium salinarum possess the red-colored protein ___ that absorbs light energy to pump protons across the membrane to create a proton motive force.
Q5) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) How do bacteriophages invade the bacteria cell?
A) The bacteriophage fuses itself to the cell membrane.
B) The bacteriophage directly injects its nucleic acid.
C) Endocytosis of the bacteriophage.
D) Through lysis of the cell.
E) Via a hole in the cell membrane.
Q2) Viruses that have icosahedral symmetry have ________ faces and 12 vertices resulting in a spherical appearance.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 50
Q3) A single virus-infected cell may produce up to __________ new virions.
A) 10
B) 100
C) 1000
D) 10,000
E) one million
Q4) What is a prophage and how is the prophage established in a bacterial cell?
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A heterotroph is an organism that uses organic carbon as its carbon source.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pasteurization is a method of sterilization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the function of siderophores?
A) Transporting waste products out of the cell.
B) Binding iron for transport into the cell.
C) Binding glucose for transport into the cell.
D) Transporting proteins out of the cell.
E) Moving potassium into the cell for osmotic regulation.
Q4) What term applies to a microbe that can synthesize all of its cellular constituents from a simple carbon source and inorganic salts?
A) autotroph
B) heterotroph
C) auxotroph
D) prototroph
E) a chemotroph
Q5) A device used for the continuous culturing of bacteria is called a _________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Q1) In DNA replication nucleotides are always added in the 5' to 3' direction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mRNA of bacterial cells is often polycistronic.What does this term mean?
A) It can be translated more than once.
B) It contains the code for multiple peptides.
C) It can be translated from either end.
D) It is transcribed from multiple sites on the chromosome.
E) The translated protein may be modified in different ways.
Q3) Which of these would a signal peptide be used for?
A) To regulate translation.
B) To move a protein to the outside of the cell.
C) To help a protein fold correctly.
D) To help regulate the activity of an enzyme.
E) To initiate DNA replication.
Q4) The DNA replication process in Archaea more closely resembles that in Eukarya than in Bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The origin of replication site in yeast is called the _____ _______ sequence.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) Class III viruses,double-stranded RNA viruses,utilize the following polymerase for genome synthesis
A) host cell RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
B) host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C) viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
D) viral DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
E) viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
Q2) Most enveloped viruses exit the cell by the following process A) exocytosis.
B) budding.
C) Golgi transport.
D) cell lysis.
E) cytokinesis.
Q3) Most non-enveloped animal viruses enter the host cell by A) membrane fusion.
B) pinocytosis.
C) injection of nucleic acid into host cell.
D) lysis of host cell membrane.
E) receptor mediated endocytosis.
Q4) Most enveloped viruses exit their host cell through a process called __________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Q1) An auxotroph is a nutritional mutant of a wild-type strain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order for a plasmid to replicate once it enters a cell,it must contain an ______ of replication that is recognized by the cell.
Q3) Term for cells that can naturally take up extracellular DNA.
A) porous
B) competent
C) conjugant
D) susceptible
E) primed
Q4) An expression vector contains a strong promoter next to the cloning site. A)True
B)False
Q5) The first DNA cloning experiment required ALL of the following EXCEPT:
A) DNA ligase.
B) DNA polymerase.
C) restriction enzymes.
D) plasmid vector with antibiotic resistance gene.
E) competent cells.
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) Suppose it is observed that a small section of a microorganism's chromosome varies significantly in GC content from the majority of the chromosome.What likely caused this?
A) spontaneous mutations
B) induced mutations
C) horizontal gene transfer
D) vertical gene transfer
E) site-directed mutagenesis
Q2) DNA microarray technology allows a researcher to analyze gene expression in an organism cultured under different growth conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Sanger method of DNA sequencing has been automated and uses a(n):
A) thermal-stable DNA polymerase to allow for multiple rounds of DNA synthesis.
B) trideoxynucleotides in the synthesis reactions.
C) radiolabeled nucleotides for fragment detection.
D) agarose gel electrophoresis for fragment separation.
E) chemical digestion method for fragment generation.
Q4) The pH at which a protein's charge is completely neutral is the protein's ______________ point.
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Repressor proteins bind to the control region of a gene called the ___________.
Q2) How is chemotaxis regulated?
A) By increased gene expression.
B) By decreased gene expression.
C) By a series of signal transduction events.
D) By allosteric enzymes.
E) By an induction-type mechanism.
Q3) Diauxic growth is the preferential utilization of one carbon source over another carbon source.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The catabolite activator protein (CAP)enhances transcription of the lac operon by binding to an activator binding site upstream of the lac promoter.To become active,CAP must bind the co-activator ___________.
Q5) An activator protein enhances transcription by binding to the DNA molecule upstream of the promoter to enhance the binding of the RNA polymerase to the promoter.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The directed movement toward a light source is called ______________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of these is NOT considered a biofuel?
A) ethanol
B) methane
C) solar cells
D) algal lipids
E) butanol
Q2) Explain how the Ti plasmid- from Agrobacterium is used to create transgenic plants.
Q3) PCR can be used to introduce mutations into a microbial genome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The first recombinant protein produced for human use was ________.
Q5) Which of these amino acids are commonly used as supplements in animal feed to promote growth?
A) glycine and glutamate
B) methionine and lysine
C) proline and valine
D) tryptophan and tyrosine
E) aspartate and histidine
Q6) Why are microalgae an attractive source of biodiesel?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Q1) Which of these are important products of the pentose phosphate pathway that are used in biosynthesis?
A) pyruvate, ribose-5-phosphate, and NADPH
B) NADPH, ribose-5-phosphate, and erythrose-4-phosphate
C) pyruvate, citrate, and erythrose-4-phosphate
D) pyruvate, erythrose-4-phosphate, and ribose-5-phosphate
E) citrate, NADPH, and ribose-5-phosphate
Q2) Enzymes increase the rate of a biochemical reaction by lowering the _________ _________ of the reaction.
Q3) The purple sulfur bacteria produce reducing power during the light reactions of photosynthesis by what process?
A) cyclic photophosphorylation
B) the Calvin cycle
C) reverse electron flow
D) the reverse TCA cycle
E) the Parnas pathway
Q4) A reaction that has a negative G°' is exergonic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The photosynthetic membranes in cyanobacteria are called __________ membranes.
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) Which of these summarizes the overall process of nitrogen fixation?
A) ammonia N
B) N ammonia biomass
C) NO ammonia biomass
D) NO N
E) ammonia NO
Q2) Which of these is true regarding soil humus?
A) It is quickly broken down by microorganisms.
B) It is a minor component of organic carbon in the soil.
C) It is degraded very slowly over time.
D) It is primarily inorganic in composition.
E) It is a polymer of glucose.
Q3) Many metabolic reactions in anaerobic environments are driven by methanogens because of the rapid utilization of this material during methanogenesis.
A) carbon dioxide
B) sulfate
C) formate
D) hydrogen
E) nitrogen
Q4) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) Most of the organic matter in soil comes from the decomposition of what material?
A) animals
B) plants
C) fungi
D) protozoa
E) algae
Q2) Soil microbes surrounding the plant root contribute to plant growth by providing the plants with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) a source of fixed nitrogen.
B) soluble phosphorus.
C) water.
D) a usable carbon source.
E) protection from pathogens.
Q3) Microbes are able to generate energy through the:
A) oxidation of organic compounds only.
B) reduction of organic compounds only.
C) oxidation of inorganic and organic compounds.
D) reduction of inorganic and organic compounds.
E) synthesis of ATP.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) Staphylococcus aureus causes foodborne illness through A) the production of an enterotoxin that contaminates prepared foods.
B) a break in the skin during food preparation.
C) the ingestion of the microbe which grows in the large intestine to produce symptoms.
D) the production of an exotoxin after ingestion of the microbe.
E) the consumption of undercooked meat.
Q2) The fungus Penicillium is used in the production of A) blue cheese.
B) cheddar cheese.
C) limburger cheese.
D) American cheese.
E) Colby cheese.
Q3) The addition of salt to certain food for preservation has been used for hundreds of years.Salt helps to preserve food by lowering the water activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast a food-borne infection to intoxication.
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) When the diet of a ruminant is drastically changed from grass to a starch rich diet,the ruminant may become very ill or die because:
A) the microbes in the rumen cannot break down starch.
B) of the production of large amounts of acid, resulting in acidosis.
C) they lack a source of protein.
D) they are unable to regurgitate the starch as cud.
E) the starch is broken down very slowly and the rumen becomes clogged.
Q2) The red color of plant root nodules is due to this oxygen binding protein.
A) cytochrome c
B) flavoprotein
C) leghemoglobin
D) menaquinone
E) nitrate reductase
Q3) Bradyrhizobium japonicum will form nodules on soybeans but not on peas,alfalfa,or beans.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The heaviest colonized area of the human body is the __________.
Q5) Describe the characteristics of a primary endosymbiont.
Q6) Endophytes are microorganisms that live within the tissue of ___________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) A fomite is an inanimate object used for the transmission of a pathogenic agent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A pathogen that causes disease in a healthy host when displaced from its usual location in the body could be termed opportunistic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Give two specific examples of emerging pathogens and explain what factors may have contributed to their emergence.
Q4) Primary pathogens are distinguished from opportunistic pathogens in that they always cause a more severe disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Distinguish between a primary pathogen and an opportunistic pathogen.
Q6) Why is Koch's third postulate sometimes problematic?
Q7) The ability of Staphylococcus aureus to become antibiotic resistant is referred to as antigenic variation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Q1) All of the following are clinical signs of inflammation at the site of injury EXCEPT:
A) swelling.
B) heat.
C) constriction of blood vessels.
D) redness.
E) formation of pus.
Q2) What are the most numerous white blood cells in the body?
A) eosinophils
B) lymphocytes
C) neutrophils
D) basophils
E) monocytes
Q3) Natural Killer (NK)cells specialize in destroying these.
A) fungi
B) protozoa
C) parasitic worms
D) pathogen infected cells
E) viruses
Q4) What are the visible signs of inflammation and what causes these symptoms?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Which of these is NOT a function of dendritic cells?
A) Activate naïve CD4 T cells.
B) Activate naïve CD8 T cells.
C) Function as a "professional" phagocyte.
D) Activate effector CD4 T cells
E) Activate memory CD4 T cells.
Q2) The process of antigen cross presentation is especially important in:
A) developing a strong antibody response.
B) developing an appropriate response to viruses that do not infect APCs.
C) developing an appropriate response to virus-infected APCs.
D) processing of exogenous antigen.
E) processing of endogenous antigen.
Q3) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)in secretions has ______ antigen binding sites.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) six
E) eight
Q4) Describe the role of TH2 in antibody production.
Q5) Describe how a CD8 cell can recognize and kill a virus infected cell.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Survival in the Host
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Q1) What directly causes the damage during an active Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection?
A) A potent cytolysin that targets alveolar macrophages.
B) A cell-mediated inflammatory response.
C) A cytolysin that destroys lung tissue.
D) Growth of the bacterium in macrophages.
E) An exotoxin that enters into the bloodstream and targets heart muscle.
Q2) Enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus are weak superantigens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cytolysins are cytotoxins that act on the ________ membrane to lyse the cell.
Q4) Type III secretion systems of Gram negative bacteria allow for the direct secretion of toxin into the target cell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how superantigens are able to cause toxic shock syndrome.
Q6) A primary pathological feature of a Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection is the appearance of ___________ in the lungs.
Q7) A bacterial toxin that is secreted by the cell is called a(n)_________.
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Q8) Exotoxins that act specifically on the intestine are called __________________.
Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) Which of these would lead to a recombination in viruses?
A) Crossover events during meiosis.
B) Errors during DNA replication.
C) Crossover events during mitosis.
D) Errors during RNA replication.
E) Co-infection of a cell by two different strains of the virus.
Q2) Rhinovirus is a cause of the common cold.What type of infection does it usually cause?
A) acute
B) latent
C) persistent
D) latent or persistent, with equal likelihood
E) acute or latent, with equal likelihood
Q3) The polio virus and hepatitis A virus are both spread by a ___________ route of transmission.
A) respiratory
B) sexual
C) blood-borne
D) fecal-oral
E) vector-borne
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) -amanitin has influenced fruit fly evolution because it has contributed to the development of ______________.
A) increased competition for fungal food
B) resistance to parasites infecting the flies
C) immunity to the toxin in organisms that feed on fruit flies
D) lower populations of fruit flies
E) increased mutations in fruit fly genomes
Q2) Which of these may result in Candida albicans causing disease in immunocompetent people?
A) A change in the microflora because of antibiotic therapy.
B) A change in the antigenicity of the fungus.
C) The production of a potent exotoxin by the fungus.
D) Consumption of contaminated water containing the fungus.
E) Sexual transmission of the fungus.
Q3) Humans typically come into contact with saxitoxin through the ingestion of:
A) contaminated poultry.
B) raw shellfish.
C) contaminated drinking water.
D) raw vegetables.
E) raw beef.
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Acyclovir is a commonly used anti-herpes drug.It is a structural analog of dideoxyguanine.You would expect this drug to interfere with _____.
A) viral capsid assembly.
B) viral capsid synthesis.
C) viral DNA replication.
D) transcription of viral DNA.
E) the entry of the virus into the cell.
Q2) The mode of action of sulfa drugs is to inhibit _____.
A) peptidoglycan synthesis.
B) folic acid biosynthesis.
C) transcription.
D) tryptophan biosynthesis.
E) protein synthesis.
Q3) The Sabin polio vaccine was a(n)________________ vaccine.
Q4) The use of antimicrobial drugs is directly linked to the development of antibiotic resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe two unique targets for antimicrobial drugs in bacteria.
Q6) Azidothymidine (AZT)is an antiviral drug used to treat a(n)_________ infection.
Page 26
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