Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology
Final Test Solutions
Medical Microbiology explores the biology of microorganisms that cause diseases in humans, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course covers the mechanisms of microbial pathogenesis, host immune responses, principles of infection control, and antimicrobial therapies. Emphasis is placed on diagnostic microbiological techniques, epidemiology of infectious diseases, and understanding the clinical manifestations of major pathogens. Through lectures and laboratory sessions, students gain foundational knowledge essential for healthcare, research, and public health applications.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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Page 2
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Q1) The overarching term that describes the study of the factors responsible for the prevalence and transmission of infectious diseases is
A)Pathogenesis
B)Epidemiology
C)Immunology
D)Virology
Answer: B
Q2) What is the general term for the first obstacles to infection which can prevent the pathogenic organism from doing harm?
A)Nosocomial response
B)Virulence factor
C)Host defense
D)Toxins
E)Digestive enzyme
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Q1) Chemical bonding between two different atoms always occurs between their
A)Unfilled outer orbital
B)Nuclei
C)First shells
D)Cores
E)Third shells
Answer: A
Q2) All 20 amino acids have three common chemical components attached to a central carbon.Which of the following is not attached?
A)Hydrogen
B)Carboxyl group
C)Glucose
D)Amino group
Answer: C
Q3) Atomic structure gives an atom
A)Its mass
B)Its reactivity
C)Its valence in molecules
D)All of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding eukaryotic electron transport is true?
A)Electron transport occurs in the cytoplasm
B)A consequence of electron transport is the formation of a concentration gradient of protons
C)Generates a concentration gradient of electrons
D)NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub> are reduced during electron transport
Answer: B
Q2) Describe three ways in which the cell can regulate enzyme activity.
Answer: Cells can regulate enzyme activity by competitive,allosteric,and feedback inhibition.Competitive inhibition operates when an inhibitory molecule,bearing structural similarity to the substrate,binds to the enzyme's active site and thereby interferes with the substrate's ability to bind.Allosteric inhibition also involves an inhibitory molecule,but it binds to a site other than the active site or the enzyme.Once bound,the enzyme's shape changes affecting the three-dimensional contour of the active site,which can then no longer bind to the substrate.Feedback inhibition is similar to allosteric inhibition except that the inhibitor is the product of the metabolic pathway itself.As the product of the pathway accumulates,it binds to the first enzyme in the pathway,causing it to change shape,resulting in the inactivation of the entire pathway.
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) All of the following can be present in prokaryotic cells except
A)Peptidoglycan
B)Cilia
C)Capsules
D)Pili
E)Plasmids
Q2) In the Gram stain,_____ is used as a mordant to stabilize crystal violet in _____ cells.
A)Alcohol; Gram-positive
B)Alcohol; Gram-negative
C)Iodine; Gram-positive
D)Iodine; Gram-negative
E)Safranin; Gram-nonreactive
Q3) A new device,developed at Lawrence Livermore laboratories,can detect any of 300,000 different pathogens in with one test.Explain the basis for the analysis.
Q4) Explain why a high mortality (death)rate is not necessarily a favorable outcome for a pathogen.
Q5) Name and describe the three components that contribute to the cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells.
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) "Rice-water stool" is related to _____,which results in the release of large quantities of _____.
A)Staphylococcal diarrhea; hemolysin
B)Bacillary dysentery; protein synthesis inhibitors
C)Cholera; electrolytes
D)Salmonella food poisoning; lipopolysaccharide
E)Tetanus; snare protein proteases
Q2) Which of the following is the process by which phagocytic cells adhere to and ingest antibody-coated or complement-coated bacteria?
A)Resolution
B)Pinocytosis
C)Phagocytosis
D)Binary fission
E)Opsonization
Q3) Which of the following is not a location where mucous membranes are found?
A)Lungs
B)Esophagus
C)Urinary bladder
D)Vagina
E)Pancreas
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Which of these describes vectors?
A)Vectors transmit organisms from one host to another
B)Vectors are always living organisms
C)Vectors must allow organisms to grow and increase in numbers
D)Mosquitos are not vectors
E)Fomites are not vectors
Q2) Explain why patients with malignant tumors who are receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy are more susceptible to infections.
Q3) The likelihood that a particular host will succumb to an infectious microorganism depends on many factors.Identify and describe at least five different circumstances that contribute to disease susceptibility in a host.
Q4) Tetanus,caused by Clostridium tetani,is often acquired by people walking barefooted because its reservoir is
A)Food
B)Soil
C)Ticks
D)Water
E)Air
Q5) Describe and provide examples for the three types of contact transmission.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) The development of shingles is believed to be linked to A)Persistent granulomas
B)Aging
C)Microbial antagonism
D)Toxemia
Q2) Explain the process by which Streptococcus pyogenes causes streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS).
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Bacteremia: bacteria present in the blood
B)Toxemia: toxins present in the blood
C)Viremia: viruses replicating in the blood
D)Viremia: viruses present in the blood
Q4) Escherichia coli cells producing bacteriocins are participating in A)Opportunism
B)Antibiotic resistance
C)Commensalism
D)Parasitism
E)Microbial antagonism
Q5) Explain why normally harmless bacteria that comprise our microbial flora have the potential to be pathogenic.Provide examples.
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates recruitment by chemokines?
Q2) SARS is transmitted by all of the following mechanisms except
A)Droplet
B)Fomite
C)Direct contact
D)Mosquitoes
E)Aerosol
Q3) Explain which measures led to the development of resistance to amantadine and rimantadine in the H5N1 influenza virus and why this resistance is a problem.Are there any alternative drugs to combat H5N1 and,if so,could sufficient protection be provided if there was an influenza pandemic?
Q4) Name and describe four different transition patterns that emerging diseases have followed through history.Provide an example for each.
Q5) Identify and explain four different factors that have contributed to the re-emergence of tuberculosis.
Q6) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates apoptosis?
Q7) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates virus particles?
Q8) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates a macrophage?
Q9) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates production of edema?
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Mycobacterium species incorporate mycolic acid (a waxy substance)in their cell walls,which makes them resistant to antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Treponema pallidum,the causative agent of syphilis,is able to bore through tissues by using
A)S pili
B)Flagella
C)Hooks
D)Axial filaments
E)Integral proteins
Q3) A barrier to water is achieved in the interior of the plasma membrane by orienting the _____ of the phospholipid layers toward each other.
A)Hydrophobic tails
B)Hydrophobic heads
C)Hydrophilic tails
D)Hydrophilic heads
E)Integral proteins
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) Which growth characteristic best matches Treponema pallidum?
A)Extreme thermophile
B)Spirochete
C)Obligate anaerobe
D)Short doubling time
E)Grows inside mucous layer
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Hyperthermophile; grows at 80°C or above
B)Acidophile; grows between pH 0 and pH 5
C)Mesophile; grows near human body temperature
D)Microaerophile; grows in 20% oxygen
E)Alkalophile; grows between pH 8.5 and pH 11.5
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Pathogens of humans are chemoautotrophs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You need to culture Clostridium perfringens and will use a GasPak jar.Explain how a GasPak jar ensures that oxygen is removed from the environment.How will you know that an anaerobic state has been reached?
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Q1) An mRNA that encodes information for more than one protein is a(n)_____ mRNA.
A)Inducible
B)Repressible
C)Constitutive
D)Poly-cistronic
E)Transposable
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Anticodon loop: codon recognition
B)Promoter: DNA polymerase
C)Origin of replication: DNA polymerase
D)P site: peptidyl-tRNA
E)Acceptor arm: amino acid
Q3) The initiation codon is important in fixing the _____ during the translation of messenger RNA.
A)Origin of replication
B)Initiator protein
C)Anticodon region
D)Reading frame
E)Leading strand
Q4) In the figure which letter (A-C)refers to the codon AUG?
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) Explain the difference between helical and icosahedral symmetry.Provide an example of each.
Q2) Reverse transcriptase is a(n)
A)RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B)RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
C)DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D)DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
Q3) Why is the capsid an important part of the structure of the virus?
A)It allows for the virion to withstand harsh environments until it infects a cell
B)It is easily shed when the virion enters into the host cell
C)It selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter into the virion
D)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and is easily shed when it enters the host cell
E)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter the virion
Q4) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the RNA or DNA?
Q5) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates neuraminidase or hemagglutinin?
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Q1) Which of the following uses host intestinal proteases to be converted into infectious viral particles?
A)Rhinovirus
B)Norwalk virus
C)Poliovirus
D)Reovirus
E)Adenovirus
Q2) Why is vaccination the most promising approach to the control of viral epidemics? Describe the three classes of viral vaccine administered to humans and provide examples of each.
Q3) Virus that use the digestive tract as a site of entry can become systemic by
A)Entering the blood and lymph through abrasions of the intestinal epithelium
B)Direct transfer into the intestinal lymph system
C)Using M cells to enter the blood and lymph
D)Degrading cell membranes and entry into the bloodstream
Q4) What is virulence and what factors have an effect on the virulence of viral infections? Explain why host susceptibility is such an important consideration in viral virulence.
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Q1) Which of the following parasites does not use more than one host to complete its life cycle?
A)Plasmodium falciparum
B)Trichomonas vaginalis
C)Taenia saginata
D)Trypanosoma cruzii
Q2) Ascaris lumbricoides infection would result in which symptoms?
A)Pain, vaginal discharge, and dysuria
B)A chancre and swollen lymph nodes
C)Tissue cysts in skeletal muscle
D)Nausea, abdominal pain, and diarrhea
E)Fever accompanied by worms vomited up or passed in the stool
Q3) What can reach a length exceeding 10 meters while inhabiting the human jejunum?
A)Taenia saginata
B)Clonorchis sinensis
C)Schistosoma species
D)Paragonimus species
Q4) Explain how genetic recombination occurs in fungi.
Q5) Describe the lifecycle of Plasmodium falciparum beginning with the ingestion of human blood by the Anopheles mosquito.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Q1) During parasitic infections and allergy,the number of circulating _____ increases significantly.
A)Neutrophils
B)Monocytes
C)Basophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Eosinophils
Q2) Which of the following are low-molecular-weight proteins?
A)Hematopoietins
B)Chemokines
C)Both hematopoietins and chemokines
D)None of the choices
Q3) All of the following are examples of granulocytes except A)B lymphocytes
B)Basophils
C)Neutrophils
D)Eosinophils
Q4) Why is it problematic for the host if a pathogen is able to resist phagocytosis?
Provide an example of a pathogen that can resist phagocytosis and explain how this is achieved.
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) What protects the mucosal surfaces of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts by inhibiting the adherence of pathogens to host cell surfaces?
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Q2) Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A)Helper T cells: CD8
B)MHC class I: cytotoxic T cells
C)Cytotoxic T cells: CD8
D)MHC class II: antigen derived from vesicular compartments
E)Humoral immune response: B cells
Q3) Explain what is meant by the phrase "T and B cell cooperation" in the context of adaptive immune responses.Why is it important that the B cell functions as an antigen-presenting cell for this cooperation to occur and how is this accomplished?
Q4) Explain the key differences between superantigens and conventional antigens recognized by T cells.Provide an example of a super antigen.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune disease commonly caused by what bacterial species?
A)Staphylococcal species
B)Streptococcal species
C)Listeria species
D)Mycobacterium species
Q2) B-cell immunodeficiencies cause all of the following except
A)Failure to protect mucosal surfaces with neutralizing antibody
B)Increased susceptibility to viral infections
C)Inability to opsonize encapsulated bacteria
D)Loss of toxin neutralization function
E)Severe combined immunodeficiency
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of HIV?
A)Enveloped
B)Retrovirus
C)Single-stranded DNA
D)Sexually transmitted
E)Encodes reverse transcriptase
Q4) Describe the three phases of HIV infection.
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Silver nitrate: catheters
B)Ozone: water treatment
C)Peracetic acid: food-processing equipment
D)QUATS: mouthwashes
E)Ethylene oxide: bed laundry
Q2) The microbial death rate associated with antimicrobial agents is
A)Sporadic
B)Logarithmic
C)Latent
D)Linear
Q3) Explain what happens when a protein becomes denatured and why this process is likely to be detrimental to microbes.Provide three examples of how proteins can be denatured.
Q4) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Pasteurization: flash method
B)Non-ionizing radiation: ultraviolet rays
C)Freeze-drying: lyophilization
D)Food preservation: hypotonic medium
E)Pressurized steam: autoclave
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Clavulanic acid is an
A)Penicillin-binding protein modifier
B) -lactamase inhibitor
C)Efflux pump inhibitor
D)Immune response stimulator
Q2) Which of the following is the drug combination of choice when treating tuberculosis?
A)Vancomycin, imipenem, aztreonam
B)Methicillin, teicoplanin, isoniazid
C)Polymyxin B, ethambutol, erythromycin
D)Isoniazid, ethambutol, rifampin
E)Tetracycline, rifamycin, ciprofloxacin
Q3) The treatment of malaria has changed since quinine was first used in the 1600s.What has changed and why?
Q4) Penicillin resistance in bacteria is conferred by the production of
A)Lysozyme
B)Transglycosylase
C) -lactamase
D)N-acetylglucosamine
E)Penicillin-binding proteins
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Why is selective toxicity particularly problematic when developing antimicrobials to treat viral infections?
Q2) The process used to generate thousands of drugs daily with the aid of computer programs is referred to as
A)High-throughput screening
B)Bioinformatics
C)Combinatorial chemistry
D)Genome sequencing
E)Mechanism-based screening
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair in reference to antibiotic compounds composed of peptide fragments and where they are derived from?
A)Drosocin: insects
B)Nisin: Gram-positive bacteria
C)Apidaecin: insects
D)Defensins: Gram-negative bacteria
E)lantibiotics: Gram-positive bacteria
Q4) Describe the four types of protective mechanism microbes use to develop resistance to antibiotics.Provide an example of each type.
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which is the most likely manner in which Legionella pneumophila is transmitted?
A)By direct contact with an infected human
B)From bird droppings
C)By direct contact with farm animals
D)From contaminated water supplies as aerosolized mist
E)From contaminated nebulizers in hospital settings
Q2) Describe three ways in which host defenses can be breached,leading to predisposition to respiratory tract infections.
Q3) Compare the parainfluenza and influenza viruses.Which causes infections of the respiratory tract?
A)Parainfluenza virus
B)Influenza virus
C)Both parainfluenza and influenza viruses
D)Neither parainfluenza and influenza
Q4) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae resemble Chinese letters because of a unique interaction between the cells and the agar.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Saliva will protect against the establishment of many bacteria because it contains IgG.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are characteristic of a rotavirus infection except
A)Mild diarrhea
B)"Blunting" of the colonic mucosa by the virus
C)Dehydration
D)Leukocyte infiltration into microvilli
E)Abrupt onset with vomiting
Q3) Which family of viruses does Hepatitis C belong to?
A)Hepadnaviridae
B)Flaviviridae
C)Reoviridae
D)Picornaviridae
E)Caliciviridae
Q4) Explain why hepatitis D is referred to as a satellite virus.Describe the conditions under which hepatitis D is replicated.
Q5) Describe the life cycle of a hookworm.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Which of the following is responsible for more than 90% of cystitis cases?
A)Staphylococcus
B)Streptococcus
C)Pseudomonas
D)Enterococcus
E)Escherichia
Q2) Identify and differentiate between the four types of urinary tract infection (UTI)affecting men.How are UTIs treated?
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement:
C. trachomatis does not contain peptidoglycan.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Treponema pallidum causes which of the following infections?
A)Syphilis
B)Genital warts
C)Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
D)Vaginal candidiasis
E)Lymphogranuloma venereum
Q5) Describe the virulence factors associated with uropathogenic Escherichia coli.
Page 25
Q6) Explain why antiviral drugs are ineffective for the eradication of HSV-2.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Identify two ways in which polio virus can gain entry into the central nervous system (CNS).Describe three types of infection that may result from the polio virus.
Q2) All of the following are layers of the meninges except
A)Pia mater
B)Arachnoid mater
C)Choroid mater
D)Dura mater
Q3) Honey should not be given to infants under the age of 1 year because it may contain spores of _____ that,in severe cases,may lead to paralysis.
A)Bacillus subtilis
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Clostridium tetani
D)Streptomyces spp.
Q4) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: It is important to know the causative agent of aseptic meningitis,because antibiotic therapy can prevent the spread of the infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) The most common vector for transmission of arboviruses is the
A)Louse
B)Tick
C)Mosquito
D)Flea
E)Sand-fly
Q2) What are the most common complications of infectious endocarditis? Identify the four most common bacterial sources of infectious endocarditis.
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A)The causative agent multiplies in the endothelial cells of small blood vessels
B)Calf muscle tenderness
C)Treated with sulfonamides
D)Rash caused by thrombocytosis
E)Mortality reduced from 25% to 5-7% with treatment
Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Borrelia burgdorferi?
A)Transmitted to humans by Ixodes tick larvae
B)Long doubling time of 8-24 hours
C)Majority of cases worldwide occur in the United States
D)Mice are the primary reservoir
E)Gram-negative coccobacillus
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) A skin lesion called a(n)_____ develops after ulceration in cutaneous anthrax.
A)Crepitant lesion
B)Necrotoma
C)Carbuncle
D)Eschar
E)Papulovesicular rash
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of acne?
A)Skin lesions common in adolescents
B)Exotoxins termed exfoliatins
C)Staphylococcal or streptococcal skin lesions
D)Congenital infection can be dangerous
E)Inflammation of mucous membranes of vagina or oral cavity
Q3) Compare cutaneous to inhalation anthrax.Which produces eschars?
A)Cutaneous anthrax
B)Inhalation anthrax
C)Both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax
D)Neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax
Q4) What is the etiological agent of gas gangrene? Explain the sequence of events leading to the development of this condition and the associated pathology.How is gas gangrene treated?
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