Medical Microbiology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology is the study of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that cause diseases in humans. This course examines the fundamental biology of these pathogens, their mechanisms of infection, immune evasion strategies, and the clinical manifestations of the diseases they produce. Topics include laboratory techniques for isolating and identifying microorganisms, principles of antimicrobial therapy, epidemiology of infectious diseases, and the role of the immune system in controlling infections. Through understanding pathogen-host interactions, students gain insights into prevention, diagnosis, and treatment strategies essential for managing infectious diseases in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook Prescotts Microbiology 10th Edition By
Joanne Willey
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Chapter 1: The Evolution of Microorganisms and Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ribosomal RNA studies that led to the division of prokaryotic organisms into the Bacteria and the Archaea were begun by A)Pasteur.
B)Woese.
C)Needham.
D)Watson. Answer: B
Q2) The first disease to be identified as being caused by a virus was tobacco mosaic disease.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Protists contain all of the following forms of life EXCEPT A)protozoa.
B)fungi.
C)slime molds.
D)algae. Answer: B
Q4) Archaea are cellular organisms that have unique cell membrane __________. Answer: lipids
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Chapter 2: Microscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scanning tunneling electron microscopes create a three-dimensional image of specimens at atomic level resolution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) You are researching the structure of a transmembrane protein.Which type of microscopy would provide you the best view of this protein?
A)Bright field microscopy
B)Scanning electron microscopy
C)Transmission electron microscopy
D)Atomic force microscopy
Answer: D
Q3) Immersion oil is used to prevent a specimen from drying out.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The procedure in which a single stain is used to visualize microorganisms is called __________ staining.
Answer: simple
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Chapter 3: Bacterial Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria
A)retains the cytoplasm and its contents.
B)acts as a selectively permeable barrier,allowing some molecules to pass while preventing the movement of others.
C)is the major site of ATP synthesis in aerobes.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) Twitching or gliding motility involves
A)type IV pili.
B)axial fibrils.
C)movement of slime.
D)both type IV pili and movement of slime can be involved in twitching or gliding motility.
Answer: D
Q3) The trace amounts of micronutrients needed by microorganisms are usually supplied as inadvertent contaminants in water and regular media components.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Archaeal Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) One type of archaeon,Haloquadratum walsbyi,is shaped like a postage stamp with dimensions of 2 µm x 3 µm x 0.25 µm.What advantage would this shape provide?
A)This shape enables this bacteria to float on surfaces and obtain better light exposure.
B)This shape increases the surface to volume ratio enabling more efficient nutrient uptake.
C)This shape is difficult for phagocytic cells to attach to and engulf.
D)This shape is more conducive to the formation of biofilm communities.
Q2) Diglycerol tetraether lipids
A)are a characteristic feature of thermophilic Archaea.
B)tend to make the membrane less rigid.
C)are found in some bacteria and some Archaea.
D)form typical bilayer membranes in thermophilic Archaea of the genus Thermoplasma.
Q3) Some archaeons are symbionts in animal digestive tracts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A peptidoglycan-like polymer found in the cell walls of some Archaea is called
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cell Structure
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Q1) Electron transport reactions that occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotes take place on the inner membrane of that structure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The endoplasmic reticulum is composed of flattened sacs called A)thylakoids.
B)cristae.
C)cisternae.
D)vacuomes.
Q3) The enzymes and electron carriers involved in electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation are located in the __________ membrane of the mitochondrion.
A)inner
B)outer
C)inner and outer
D)neither inner nor outer
Q4) The inner membrane system of chloroplasts consists of flattened sacs called __________ that form stacks called __________.
Q5) The region of the cell bounded by the plasma membrane is the
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Chapter 6: Viruses and Other Acellular Infectious Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Virion size ranges from
A)1-40 nm.
B)10-400 nm.
C)600-1,000 nm.
D)1,000-10,000 nm.
Q2) Some viruses cause abnormal growth of cells rather than destruction.This is called __________.
Q3) There are no known human diseases that have been linked to prions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Viroids are of economic significance because they cause disease in A)plants. B)animals.
C)humans.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) Microscopic or macroscopic degenerative changes or abnormalities in infected host cells and tissues are called __________ __________.
Q6) __________ are glycoprotein spikes protruding from the outer surface of the viral envelope.
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Q7) Viruses that are polyhedrons with 20 sides are said to have __________ symmetry.
Chapter 7: Microbial Growth
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Q1) Which of the following methods could be used to detect the presence of viable but nonculturable cells of a pathogen in a water or food specimen?
A)Culture on enriched agar
B)Use of enrichment techniques
C)Polymerase chain reaction
D)Culture on selective agar
Q2) The membranes of psychrophilic bacteria have relatively high levels of __________ fatty acids,which allow them to remain semifluid at cold temperatures.
A)saturated
B)unsaturated
C)sterol
D)aromatic
Q3) DNA of thermophiles is stabilized by binding of special nucleoid-associated proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ __________ is the length of time it takes for a population of microorganisms to double in number.
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Chapter 8: Control of Microorganisms in the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)__________ is a chemical that can be used to sterilize materials.
A)oxidant
B)disinfectant
C)antiseptic
D)sterilant
Q2) Bacterial pathogens may be controlled by ___________________,which are viruses that specifically infect and lyse the bacterial host. or
Q3) The higher the phenol coefficient value,the _______ effective the disinfectant under the test conditions.
Q4) The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supplies is __________.
A)fluorine
B)chlorine
C)either fluorine or chlorine
D)ultraviolet light
Q5) Moist heat sterilizes by
A)causing the formation of thymine dimers.
B)denaturing proteins.
C)causing production of singlet oxygen.
D)All of the choices are correct.
10
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Chapter 9: Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drug level required for the clinical treatment of a particular infection is called the A)therapeutic dose.
B)toxic dose.
C)therapeutic index.
D)minimal inhibitory concentration.
Q2) The ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose is called the A)toxicity index.
B)phenol coefficient.
C)therapeutic index.
D)susceptibility quotient.
Q3) Which of the following does not inhibit protein synthesis?
A)Tetracycline
B)Streptomycin
C)Erythromycin
D)Penicillin
E)All of the choices inhibit protein synthesis.
Q4) Metronidazole is used to treat Entamoeba infections.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Which strategy can be used for regulation of metabolism?
A)Feedback inhibition
B)Allosteric regulation
C)Regulation of enzyme synthesis
D)Covalent modification of enzymes
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Consider a biochemical pathway with five steps that lead to the production of product Q.If there is an abundance of product Q,the most efficient way to slow down the entire pathway would be to regulate _____________________.
A)the first enzyme in the pathway
B)the last enzyme in the pathway
C)every enzyme in the pathway
Q3) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction but do not alter equilibrium constants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cells must efficiently transfer energy from their energy-trapping systems to the systems actually carrying out work and also use various metabolic processes to replace the energy used in doing work.This is called the __________ ______________.
Q5) The molecules formed by an enzyme-catalyzed reaction are called __________.
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Chapter 11: Catabolism: Energy Release and Conservation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What enzymes hydrolyze proteins,releasing amino acids?
A)Tranaminases
B)Proteases
C)Decarboxylases
D)Deaminases
Q2) When cells of a facultative anaerobe such as Paracoccus denitrificans are growing under anaerobic conditions and using nitrate as the terminal electron acceptor,______________ nitrate reduction is occurring.
Q3) The TCA cycle is located in the ______________ of bacteria,and in the _____________ of eukaryotes.
A)cytoplasm; mitochondrial matrix
B)plasma membrane; inner mitochondrial membrane
C)plasma membrane; mitochondrial matrix
D)cytoplasm; inner mitochondrial membrane
Q4) The sum total of all chemical reactions occurring in a cell is called
A)anabolism.
B)catabolism.
C)metabolism.
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q5) TCA cycle enzymes are found in the _____________ _________ of eukaryotic cells.
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Chapter 12: Anabolism: the Use of Energy in Biosynthesis
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Q1) A purine or pyrimidine that is attached to a sugar,either ribose or deoxyribose,is called a _______.
A)nucleotide
B)nucleoside
C)nitrogenous base
D)nucleic acid
Q2) Nitrogen fixation depends on the enzyme nitrogenase,which is produced by some ______.
A)Archaea
B)bacteria
C)eukaryotes
D)bacteria and Archaea but no eukaryotes
E)fungi and bacteria
Q3) Bacteria synthesize CDP-diacylglycerol in order to build _____,a major cell membrane phospholipid component.
A)phosphatidylethanolamine
B)lipid rafts
C)lipopolysaccharide
D)peptidoglycan
Q4) Purine bases,such as adenine and guanine,have ring(s)in their structure.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Bacterial Genome Replication and Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) In __________,ribosomes can attach to the mRNA and begin translation even though transcription has not been completed.
A)prokaryotes
B)eukaryotes
C)fungi
D)protozoa and some plants
Q2) In the Hershey and Chase experiment,how did labeling DNA and protein with different radioactive isotopes demonstrate that DNA,rather than protein,carried the genetic information in the T2 virus?
A)Researchers could track which part of the virus entered a bacterial cell.
B)Researchers could use radio labeling to inactivate DNA and protein in the bacteria.
C)Researchers could distinguish bacterial DNA from viral protein.
D)Researchers could better elucidate DNA or protein structure.
E)Researchers could monitor how DNA interacted with protein in the virus.
Q3) The unexpressed regions of split genes are called
A)exons.
B)endons.
C)introns.
D)codons.
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Chapter 14: Regulation of Bacterial Cellular Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term describes a set of genes that is controlled by a common regulatory protein?
A)Codon
B)Regulon
C)Transcription
D)Kinase
Q2) Which of the following is not a regulatory mechanism used to control the tryptophan operon in Escherichia coli?
A)Repression
B)Catabolite repression
C)Attenuation
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Riboswitches regulate transcription,rather than translation,in cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When there is no arabinose available in the environment,the AraC protein acts as a(n)______________ for the E.coli ara operon.
Q5) ____________ is used to measure the amount of a chemoattractant encountered over time.
16
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Chapter 15: Eukaryotic and Archaeal Genome Replication and
Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA replication is a complex and ungoverned process,and,as a result,the frequency of error is quite high.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Unlike members of the Bacteria,most archaeons have linear chromosomes with multiple origins of replication.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Split or interrupted genes have been found in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The transcribed,but not translated,sequence that is immediately upstream of the region that encodes the functional product is called the __________ region.
A)leader
B)promoter
C)coding
D)trailer
Q5) A DNA site called a _____ is the binding location for a transcriptional repressor.
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Chapter 16: Mechanisms of Genetic Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) One possible fate for an exogenote is
A)integration into the host chromosome.
B)independent replication and functioning.
C)degradation to nucleotides.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Predict the outcome of an F<sup>+ </sup>to F<sup>-</sup> mating if the F<sup>+</sup> cell lacked a functional tra operon.
A)Upon entering the recipient,the F factor would be unable to integrate into to host chromosome.
B)Conjugation would not occur because there would be no contact between the F<sup>+</sup> and F<sup>-</sup> cells.
C)Conjugation would occur,but the F<sup>-</sup> recipient could not become Hfr.
D)There would be no effect on conjugation.
Q3) In an F<sup>+</sup> *F<sup>-</sup> mating,all or part of the host chromosome usually is transferred to the recipient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n)__________ is a latent form of a virus genome that remains within the host without destroying it.
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Chapter 17: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) A (n)__________ vector contains promoters that result in high-level transcription of the gene cloned within a multicloning site.
A)shuttle
B)chimeric
C)expression
D)phage
Q2) Plasmid cloning vector DNA is usually introduced into bacterial hosts by A)ligation.
B)transformation.
C)transduction.
D)plasmolysis.
Q3) If DNA were a positively charged rather than negatively charged,what change to the gel electrophoresis procedure must be made?
A)DNA must be loaded at the positive pole rather than at the negative pole.
B)Migration time of restriction fragments must be increased.
C)Type of buffer used must be basic rather than neutral.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The production of large quantities of a particular DNA sequence is known as gene
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Chapter 18: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) Genes from different organisms with similar sequences or open reading frames (ORFs)are called _____.
Q2) In an experiment,you have created a microbial strain in which you have deleted a single gene; to evaluate the transcriptome and the proteome,you
A)run microarray analysis.
B)perform DNA sequencing.
C)run two-dimensional gels.
D)run microarray analysis and two-dimensional gels.
Q3) Analysis of the nucleotide sequence of the genome of microorganisms has revealed important information about their metabolic potential.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The technique of _____ _____ is used to copy the genome of a single microbial cell so there is sufficient DNA for sequencing. or
Q5) The method of nucleotide sequence determination that utilizes dideoxynucleotides was developed by _________.
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Chapter 19: Microbial Taxonomy and the Evolution of Diversity
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Q1) The type strain is the most representative strain of a particular species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Place the five steps in building a phylogenetic tree in the proper order,from first construction step to last. The nucleotide or amino acid sequence must be aligned. Application of a selected method,using computer analysis. The alignment must be examined for a phylogenetic signal. Manual examination of the tree.
Choose which tree-building method to use (common ones are phenetic or cladistic).
Q3) Which of the following is useful in biological systematics?
A)Physiology
B)Epidemiology
C)Ecology
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The G + C content of a DNA sample can be estimated from its T<sub>M</sub> of a DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Archaea
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Q1) Some methanogenic Archaea are capable of fixing nitrogen. A)True
B)False
Q2) The DNA of some archaeons is stabilized by association with archaeal histone proteins forming particles resembling eukaryotic nucleosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most Archaea capable of metabolizing glucose do so using a modified _________ -________ pathway. or
Q4) A large number of the genes shared by bacteria and Archaea produce proteins that are involved in _______ _______.
Q5) The photosynthetic membrane of Halobacterium salinarium contains ______.
A)bacteriorhodopsin
B)chlorophyll a and b
C)bacteriochlorophyll
D)archaeochlorophyll
Q6) Thermophylic members of the phylum ______ can grow in geothermally heated water or soils that contain elemental sulfur.
22
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Chapter 21: The Deinococci, Mollicutes, and Nonproteobacterial
Gram-Negative
Bacteria
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Q1) Analysis of the nucleotide sequence of the genome of Chlamydia trachomatis suggests that it may be able to synthesize some of its own ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following bacteria is both photosynthetic and Gram-positive?
A)Purple bacteria
B)Green bacteria
C)Heliobacteria
D)Cyanobacteria
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Member of the genus Cytophaga contribute significantly to the process of wastewater treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some Mycoplasmas,such as M.mobile,can move at a steady pace across a solid surface by using _______ _______.
Q5) A trichome is a bacterial cell with three different photosynthetic pigments.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Proteobacteria
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Q1) Burkholderia cepacia and Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be a particular problem with ______.
A)pneumonia patients
B)decay of iron pipes under anaerobic conditions
C)myasthenia gravis patients
D)cystic fibrosis patients
Q2) Species of Shewanella,Geobacter,and some cyanobacteria have evolved a strategy to enable their use of insoluble compounds as electron acceptors: the production of electrically conductive _______ that transfer electrons from the terminal point in the ETC to a metal surface. or or
Q3) A strategy used by dissimilatory metal-reducing bacteria that enable their use of insoluble compounds as electron acceptors is to transfer electrons to the metal via external,intermediary compounds such as .
Q4) In the genus Caulobacter,asymmetric transverse fission produces a flagellated that adheres to surfaces.
Q5) Nautiliaceae are chemolithoautotrophs from deep-sea _________ vent ecosystems
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Chapter 23: Firmicutes: The Low G-C Gram-Positive
Bacteria
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Q1) Some species of Streptococcus,when grown on blood agar,produce an incomplete hemolysis with the formation of a greenish zone around the colony; this is referred to as
A)alpha-hemolysis
B)beta-hemolysis
C)gamma-hemolysis
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Some species of Streptococcus,when grown on blood agar,produce a complete hemolysis with the formation of a clear zone around the colony; this is referred to as
A)alpha-hemolysis
B)beta-hemolysis
C)gamma-hemolysis
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Recent studies have shown that some Clostridia species have peptidoglycan between an inner and outer membrane,and were therefore properly reclassed as Gram-negative because of their unrelatedness.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bacteria in the genus ________ are sulfate and sulfite reducers.
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Chapter 24: Actinobacteria: the High G-C Gram-Positive Bacteria
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Q1) Bifidobacterium bifidum is a major pathogen in breast-fed babies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nitrogen fixation by Frankia bacteria is efficient enough to allow alder trees to grow in the absence of combined nitrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The maduromycetes differ from other high G + C Gram-positives in that they contain the sugar madurose in cell extracts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Actinomycete spores are usually formed on __________ mycelia.
Q5) Members of the genus Actinomyces are either facultative or strict anaerobes that require ________ for optimal growth. or
Q6) A(n)_____________ mycelium is a branching network of fibers on and/or beneath the surface of the agar growth medium.
Q7) Actinoplanetes have extensive __________ mycelia.
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Chapter 25: Protists
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Q1) Pigment is contained in an eyespot or __________ that helps certain organisms orient to light.
Q2) A protist with two flagella where one is wrapped around a transverse groove and the other is draped in a longitudinal groove would be a member of which group?
A)Ciliophora
B)Dinoflagellate
C)Trypanosome
D)Oomycetes
Q3) Axopodia of Rhizaria are used for feeding rather than for motility.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Diatoms
A)are photosynthetic with frustules composed of two halves.
B)can reproduce asexually.
C)are motile by virtue of having flagella.
D)are photosynthetic with frustules composed of two halves and can reproduce asexually.
Q5) Acellular slime molds form a large multinucleate mass called a(n)______________ .
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Chapter 26: Fungi Eumycota
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Q1) The toxin that allows Rhizopus to cause the rice disease known as seedling blight is actually produced by _________________ growing within the fungus.
A)Burkholderia
B)Clostridium
C)Staphylococcus
D)Burkholderia and Staphylococcus,but not Clostridium
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Fungi are found primarily in which of the following environments?
A)Marine
B)Freshwater
C)Terrestrial
D)Arboreal
Q3) Most fungi secure their nutrients from dead organic matter and are therefore called
Q4) The primary ecological function of fungi is that of __________.
A)producer
B)consumer
C)pathogen
D)decomposer
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Chapter 27: Viruses
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Q1) In viral infections involving double-stranded DNA viruses,all of the viral genes are usually expressed prior to the replication of viral nucleic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following represent(s)the way(s)in which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes?
A)Budding through the plasma membrane.
B)Budding through internal cellular membranes.
C)Viral enzymes are responsible for production of the envelope.
D)Depending on the virus,budding may be either through the plasma membrane or internal cellular membranes.
Q3) Unlike most enveloped viruses,herpes viruses involve the host __________ membrane in the formation of their envelope.
A)plasma
B)nuclear
C)mitochondrial
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) __________ is an unusual base found in the DNA of T4 phages.
Q5) ________ mRNA is synthesized before replication of the viral nucleic acid.
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Chapter 28: Biogeochemical Cycling and Global Climate Change
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Q1) Which organisms would most likely be present on the bottom or closest to the actual surface of a complex microbial biofilm?
A)Anaerobic sulfate-reducing bacteria
B)Cyanobacteria
C)Facultative chemoorganotrophs
D)Eukaryotic protists
Q2) Because of the high requirement for reducing power in nitrogen fixation,the nitrogenase enzyme that carries out the reaction is very sensitive to the presence of ______.
A)light
B)carbon dioxide
C)oxygen
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) In the anammox process ______.
A)anaerobic oxidation of ammonia is coupled to the reduction of nitrite
B)nitrogen gas is evolved
C)all reactions must take place in the absence of O<sub>2</sub>
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Bacterioplankton (floating bacteria)use _______ as a sulfur source for protein synthesis.
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Chapter 29: Methods in Microbial Ecology
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The level of specific mRNA,and therefore the expression of a given gene in a particular ecosystem,can be evaluated in the environment using in situ reverse transcriptase (ISRT)-FISH.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is generally agreed that SSU (small subunit ribosomal RNA)analysis is a technique that is well suited to identifying species present in a given community.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The technique known as content,DNA sequence,and chemical gradient.Hence,similar fragments can be separated and identified.
Q4) In _______ _______,cells are tagged with a fluorescent dye and injected into a flowing,progressively narrowing stream of fluid,forcing one cell at a time through a laser beam that scatters its fluorescence to a detector. or or
Q5) _______ _______ arrays are used to assess the diversity of a microbial population.
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Chapter 30: Microorganisms in Marine and Freshwater
Ecosystems
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50 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The depth to which light penetrates with sufficient intensity to support the activities of photoautotrophic organisms in the ocean is called the ______ zone.
Q2) The largest fraction of saltwater is that which is frozen at the Earth's polar regions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following keep the lakes of the East Antarctic Ice Sheet in a liquid state?
A)Pressure
B)Geothermal heating
C)The insulation of the overlying ice
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) SAR11 bacteria are now thought to constitute about _____% of all microbial life on earth.
A)5
B)10
C)25
D)40
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Chapter 31: Microorganisms in Terrestrial Ecosystems
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57 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lignin degradation by basidiomycetes is an aerobic process that is catalyzed by phenoloxidases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mycorrhizal fungi can either be intracellular or extracellular.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The plant leaf surface is called the rhizosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Filamentous fungi found in soils are able to form bridges across aggregates and facilitate nutrient transfer processes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Enzymes,once released from plant and animal cells,can remain present and function independent of the organisms that synthesized them.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Microbial Interactions
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73 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ arises when different microbes within a population or community try to acquire the same resource.
A)Amensalism
B)Competition
C)Disruption
D)Syntropism
Q2) In mutualism
A)the mutualist is dependent on the host.
B)a reciprocal benefit accrues to both partners.
C)the partners will not survive separately in many cases.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Biofilm formation by Pseudomonas bacteria on the surface of a natural loofa sponge kept in the shower is an example of which type of relationship?
A)Commensalism
B)Mutualism
C)Parasitism
D)Predation
Q4) The specialized structure in a tube worm in which endosymbiotic,chemolithotrophic bacteria live is called a(n)__________.
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Chapter 33: Innate Host Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A class of pathogen recognition receptors that function exclusively as signaling receptors are known as the ______________ receptors.
Q2) Substances that are recognized as foreign and provoke immune responses are called _________.
A)antibodies.
B)antigens.
C)infective agents.
D)inducers.
Q3) Tears protect the eyes by
A)flushing and lysozyme.
B)inflammation.
C)vasodilation.
D)stimulating opsonization.
E)flushing and lysozyme and vasodilation.
Q4) Which of the following mediators would not be categorized as a cytokine?
A)A protein that regulates innate resistance mechanisms
B)A protein that regulates adaptive immunity
C)A protein that stimulates hematopoiesis
D)A protein that is released by a bacterial cell following phagocytosis
Q5) In birds,the __________ of Fabricius is where B cells undergo maturation.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Adaptive Immunity
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98 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a possible consequence of self reactive B cells and/or T cells in the body?
A)Anergy
B)Allergic reactions
C)Cytokine storms
D)Autoimmune diseases
Q2) Which of the statements about haptens is correct?
A)Haptens are usually large proteins.
B)Haptens are usually small organic molecules.
C)Haptens are typically lipid molecules.
D)Haptens are generally large polysaccharides.
Q3) Which of the following is (are)involved with an antigen binding to an antibody?
A)Folding of both the V(H)and V(L)regions
B)Amino acids and the antigen's epitope determinant
C)Noncovalent bonds
D)All of these are correct.
Q4) CD4 molecules are found on T ____________ cells,whereas CD8 molecules are characteristic of T___________ cells.
Q5) __________ anaphylaxis is referred to as an atopic reaction.
Q6) In an antibody molecule,the __________ region mediates binding to host cells.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Pathogenicity and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Colonization specifically refers to the multiplication of a pathogen on or within a host,and includes the resulting tissue invasion and damage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An inanimate object that may be contaminated with a pathogen is called a
A)vector
B)fomite
C)zoonoses
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Fever response can be triggered by an endogenous pyrogen called interleukin-1.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a symbiont either harms or lives at the expense of another organism,the relationship is called _________.
A)symbiosis
B)parasitism
C)commensalism
D)pathogenicity
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Chapter 36: Clinical Microbiology and Immunology
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Q1) The immunological reaction that occurs when there is an optimal ratio of antigen and antibody,producing a lattice at the zone of equivalence is known _________.
A)immunoblotting
B)immunoelectrophoresis
C)immunodiffusion
D)immunoprecipitation
Q2) Recommended guidelines for laboratory microbiological precautions should reflect the laboratory's ________ _________.
Q3) Which of the following uses red blood cells?
A)Hemagglutination inhibition
B)MIC
C)ELISA
D)RIA
Q4) ________ can also be used to differentiate strains of microorganisms that differ in the antigenic composition of a structure or product.
Q5) The use of rRNA gene sequences to identify bacterial strains is referred to as
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Chapter 37: Epidemiology and Public Health Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of epidemic usually results from a single contaminated source such as food?
A)Propagated
B)Common-source
C)Herd
D)Sporadic
Q2) A concerned citizen who suspects that a bioterrorism incident has occurred or will occur should contact 911.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The immediate location from which a disease-causing organism is transmitted to a host either directly or through an intermediate is called the __________.
Q4) The Public Health Security and Bioterrorism Preparedness and Response Act identifies select agents and identifies a Tier 1 subset of particularly hazardous microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The location where a disease-causing organism is normally found is called the
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Chapter 38: Human Diseases Caused by Viruses and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) West Nile virus has been detected in _________ states of the United.States.
A)25
B)50
C)47
D)10
Q2) The formation of intranuclear inclusion bodies is associated with cytomegalovirus infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Who should be vaccinated against rabies?
A)Nurses
B)Farmers
C)Veterinarians
D)Physicians
Q4) Cold sores or fever blisters are caused by the ________ ________ virus.
Q5) Which of the following is known to activate the genital herpes virus?
A)Sunlight
B)Stress
C)Sex hormones
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 39: Human Diseases Caused by Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a skin rash?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Latent
Q2) Which of the following does (do)not always require the presence of living bacteria?
A)Intoxications
B)Food poisoning
C)Bacterial diarrhea
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The pathogen most frequently involved in causing clostridial myonecrosis is
A)Clostridium septicum.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Clostridium tetani.
D)Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q4) Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most prevalent Gram-negative bacterium isolated from pneumonia patients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Human Diseases Caused by Fungi and Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following produces a highly resistant spore containing a polar tubule?
A)Pneumocystis
B)Microsporidia
C)Trypanosoma cruzi
D)Cyclosporans
Q2) Tinea pedis is
A)a beard infection.
B)an infection of scalp hair.
C)known as "jock itch."
D)known as "athlete's foot."
Q3) As the population ages and the number of immunocompromised individuals increase,the number of serious fungal and protist infections is decreasing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not caused by a protozoan?
A)Cryptosporidiosis
B)Cryptococcosis
C)Both cryptosporidiosis and cryptococcosis
D)African sleeping sickness
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Chapter 41: Microbiology of Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pasteurization of milk
A)is no longer used for food processing in the United States.
B)usually eliminates all disease-causing organisms.
C)is a method for sterilization of food items.
D)reduces microbial growth by decreasing availability of water.
Q2) The largest meat recall in U.S.history was prompted by the discovery of contamination by
A)Listeria monocytogenes.
B)Clostridium botulinum.
C)Escherichia coli.
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Q3) Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus contribute to the flavor of yogurt by producing diacetyl during the fermentation of lactose. A)True
B)False
Q4) A major fungal genus that produces aflatoxin is A)Rhizopus.
B)Aspergillus.
C)Claviceps.
D)Penicillium.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Biotechnology and Industrial Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first penicillin-producing fungus that could be grown in stirred fermenters was
A)Penicillium notatum
B)Aspergillus niger
C)Penicillium chrysogenum
D)Pisolithus tinctorius
Q2) Frequently a critical component in the medium,often the carbon source,is added _____________ so that the microorganisms will not have excess substrate available at any given time.
A)sporadically
B)continuously
C)gradually
D)None of these choices are correct.
Q3) Use of microbial enzymes for bioconversion reactions is preferred because alternative chemical synthesis requires harsh manufacturing conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Stirred fermenters can range in size from 3 liters to ____________ liters or larger,depending on production requirements.
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Chapter 43: Applied Environmental Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbial fuel cells are an emerging technology whereby _________ are donated to an anode during heterotrophic bacterial respiration. or
Q2) In the testing of water for coliforms,the presumptive test involves detection of A)gas production in a lactose broth medium. B)sheen production on a selective medium.
C)a gram-negative nonspore-forming rod.
D)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Potable water is unfit for consumption or recreation because of the high levels of microbial contaminants present.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Canada geese have become a major source of Giardia and Cryptosporidium contamination of soil and fresh water.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a leach field floods it becomes anoxic and effective treatment ceases.
A)True
B)False
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