Medical Microbiology
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology explores the biology of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that are of medical importance and their role in human disease. The course examines the mechanisms by which these pathogens cause infection, the bodys immune response, and the principles of epidemiology relevant to infectious diseases. Students will also learn about laboratory techniques for isolation and identification of causative agents, antimicrobial therapy, vaccine development, and current issues in microbial resistance. Emphasis is placed on the diagnosis, prevention, and control of infectious diseases as well as the impact of microbiological research on public health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience Preliminary Edition by John W. Foster
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
27 Chapters
1527 Verified Questions
1527 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2333 Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46359
Sample Questions
Q1) In 1884,the Gram stain was devised to distinguish bacteria from ________ cells. Answer: human
Q2) Which of the following is always classified as a eukaryote?
A) papillomavirus
B) methanogen
C) Escherichia coli
D) yeast
Answer: D
Q3) A microbe that is 50 nm in size would most likely be A) fungi.
B) E.coli.
C) virus.
D) algae.
Answer: C
Q4) Give an example of a situation where Koch's postulates may not work properly.
Answer: A variety of answers are acceptable so long as they deal with one of the following: a disease-causing agent present in a host that does not cause symptoms,a disease-causing agent in which the levels of the agent are very low or difficult to detect in the host,a disease-causing agent that cannot be grown in pure culture,or a disease-causing agent for which there is no known nonhuman model.
Page 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46360
Sample Questions
Q1) CASE HISTORY
Brandon,a 30-year-old stockbroker living in Chicago,visited his physician's office.When the nurse asked Brandon why he was there,he blushed and said he wanted to talk only to the physician about his problem.Once the doctor entered the room,Brandon explained he had a small round lesion on his penis.When asked about his sexual partners,Brandon initially said he was dating only one woman,but when pressed,he admitted he had been intimate with two women over the past month and one man.Upon examination,the lesion appeared to cause no pain but exuded a clear fluid.The physician quickly sent a sample of the fluid to the clinical laboratory.There the sample was found to contain highly motile,corkscrew-shaped bacteria.The diagnosis was syphilis,caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.Left untreated,the disease could eventually cause horrible disfiguration and death.Confident that he knew the cause,the physician gave Brandon a shot of long-acting penicillin. What signs and/or symptoms of disease (distinguish between the two in your answer)did Brandon's doctor note as a part of this diagnosis?
Answer: Signs include lesion and fluid exudate.Symptoms include painlessness of lesion.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46361
Sample Questions
Q1) Which microscope uses variations in refractive indexes to display specimens?
A) bright-field
B) fluorescence
C) phase-contrast
D) transmission electron
Answer: C
Q2) Which microscope is used to observe specific fluorescent-labeled structures?
A) a compound light microscope
B) a phase-contrast microscope
C) a fluorescence microscope
D) an electron microscope
Answer: C
Q3) In an acid-fast stain,carbolfuchsin specifically stains ________ of Mycobaterium tuberculosis.
Answer: mycolic acid
Q4) What is the purpose of the mordant in the Gram-stain procedure?
Answer: The iodine solution used in the Gram stain contains iodine ions.These ions bind to the crystal violet trapped inside the bacterial cells.This is held more tightly within the cell wall and resists decolorization by the alcohol solution.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46362
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of glycerol?
A) It is hydrophobic.
B) It is a component of proteins.
C) It contains three amino groups.
D) It contains three hydroxyl groups.
Q2) Regular,repeating patterns over short regions of a protein are known as the protein's ________ structure.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
Q3) A cell's genome consists of 20% thymine.What is the percentage of cytosine?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q4) Redox reactions involve the movement of ________ from one molecule or atom to another.
Q5) What is osmosis and why is it important for cells to maintain osmotic balance?
Q6) ________ is the general name for a six-carbon sugar.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46363
Sample Questions
Q1) Murein lipoprotein is a part of the ________ of the ________.
A) outer leaflet,outer membrane.
B) inner leaflet,outer membrane.
C) outer leaflet,inner membrane.
D) inner leaflet,inner membrane.
Q2) Bacterial cells that expand their cell walls during septation (not before)and septate in parallel planes will form
A) chains of rods (bacilli).
B) tetrads of rods (bacilli).
C) chains of spheres (cocci).
D) tetrads of spheres (cocci).
Q3) The majority of the bacterial cell cytoplasm (by total weight)is
A) DNA.
B) RNA.
C) protein.
D) water.
Q4) The region within the inner and outer membranes of Gram-negative bacteria is known as the ________.
Q5) What evidence would suggest that a newly discovered eukaryotic organelle was formed via endosymbiosis?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46364
Sample Questions
Q1) If an error occurred during the sporulation process and small acid-soluble proteins were not included in the spore,what would be the effect?
A) The spore would only exist for 100 years.
B) The spore will be more likely to germinate.
C) The spore will be less resistant to heat.
D) The spore will be less resistant to ultraviolet light.
Q2) Explain how many microorganisms are able to grow at pH levels outside the functional pH range of their enzymes.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT happening during the lag phase of growth?
A) Cells are at their largest.
B) Genes for growth in the specific environment are turned on.
C) Cell components are being synthesized.
D) Cells are detecting their environment.
Q4) Production of urease by Helicobacter pylori allows it to do which of the following?
A) sense when it has entered the intracellular environment of its host
B) survive in basic conditions
C) increase production of ion pumps
D) neutralize stomach pH to survive in acidic conditions
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 8
Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46365
Sample Questions
Q1) Lithotrophs donate electrons from inorganic reduced molecules directly to an ETS to generate a proton motive force.Why might these lithotrophs still possess the tricarboxylic acid cycle?
Q2) Compare and contrast ATP production in chloroplasts and mitochondria.How are they similar and how do they differ?
Q3) If in the ETS electrons are passed from a to b and finally accepted by c,the
A)a is a stronger electron acceptor than b.
B)a is a stronger electron acceptor than c.
C)a is a stronger electron donor than b.
D)c is a stronger electron donor than b.
Q4) Why does sugar production from CO require NADPH in addition to ATP? In other words,why is ATP not sufficient?
Q5) Which of the pathways below are in the correct order for the flow of electrons from glucose to oxygen in aerobic respiration?
A) glycolysis,ETS,TCA
B) glycolysis,fermentation,TCA
C) TCA,glycolysis,ETS
D) glycolysis,TCA,ETS
Q6) Biosynthetic reactions are also known as ________ reactions.
Page 9
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46366
Sample Questions
Q1) RFLP analysis requires which tools?
A) restriction enzymes and gel electrophoresis
B) restriction enzymes and PCR
C) gel electrophoresis and PCR
D) gel electrophoresis and DNA sequencing
Q2) During gel electrophoresis the ________ DNA fragments migrate more quickly and move further down the gel toward the ________ pole.
A) larger;negative
B) larger;positive
C) smaller;negative
D) smaller;positive
Q3) After translation
A) all proteins are folded and secreted.
B) some proteins are folded but all are secreted.
C) all proteins are folded and some are also secreted.
D) some proteins are folded and another subset are secreted.
Q4) Two common levels of regulation of protein activity are transcriptional control and posttranslational control.Please discuss the differences between the two in terms of speed of response and energy efficiency.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46367
Sample Questions
Q1) A protein called integrase is encoded by ________ and allows for site-specific recombination in C.diphtheria.
A) E.coli
B) S.pneumoniae
C) C.diphtheria
D) beta phage
Q2) Serratia marcescens is taxonomically considered a
A) homolog.
B) identification.
C) nomenclature.
D) classification.
Q3) What are two reasons why the definition of a species is problematic for bacteria?
Q4) Wolbachia appears to be developing into a(n)________ of its host.
A) mitochondria
B) chloroplast
C) organelle
D) endosymbiont
Q5) A ________ relationship develops between endosymbionts and their hosts.
Q6) Describe how gene duplication leads to paralogs.
11
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46368
Sample Questions
Q1) Many Proteobacteria are referred to as ________ because they oxidize minerals for energy.
Q2) Which of the following pathogens would most likely thrive in a growth media with an extremely low pH?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Moraxella catarrhalis
D) Helicobacter pylori
Q3) Which of the following statements correctly describes a lichen?
A) a mutualistic relationship in which spirochetes provide a scaffold for fungal growth
B) a mutualistic relationship in which cyanobacteria provide nitrogen to fungi
C) a parasitic relationship in which proteobacteria ferment sugars produced by fungi
D) a commensal relationship between Firmicutes and fungi that provides no benefits for either organism
Q4) Explain how changes in a bacterial genome could cause a nonpathogenic bacterium to develop into a pathogen.
Q5) Cyanobacteria are the only bacteria that produce ________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 12
Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46369
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is perianal itching significant in the life cycle of pinworms?
A) When a host scratches the anus,pinworm larvae enter the bloodstream.
B) Eggs are trapped under fingernails and transferred to new hosts.
C) Scratching allows mature worms to break through the surface of the skin.
D) Transmission of pinworms ends when the host scratches the anus.
Q2) On an evolutionary timeline,which of the following organisms appeared first?
A) cyanobacteria
B) proto-algae
C) algae
D) plants
Q3) Cyanobacteria engulfed by an ancient proto-alga lead to the development of ________ in both algae and plants.
A) mitochondria
B) a nucleus
C) ribosomes
D) chloroplasts
Q4) Branching tufts of filamentous fungal hyphae form structures known as ________.
Q5) Describe the shared evolutionary event that led to chloroplasts in both algae and plants.
Q6) Describe two positive impacts fungi have on our environment. Page 13
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 14
Chapter 12: Viruses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46370
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characteristics of the rabies virus is most important for its classification?
A) complex capsid morphology
B) single-stranded,negative sense RNA genome
C) presence of an envelope
D) narrow host range
Q2) If 100% of the DNA contents of a transducing bacteriophage were DNA from the host chromosome,what would happen when the bacteriophage infected a new bacterial cell?
A) More bacteriophage would be synthesized,resulting in death of the new bacterial cell.
B) No more bacteriophage would be synthesized,as there is no bacteriophage genome available to direct synthesis.
C) The new bacterial cell would die.
D) The bacteriophage would be converted from a lysogenic phage to a lytic bacteriophage.
Q3) ________ is an example of a virus with a large double-stranded DNA viral genome.
Q4) Lentiviruses like HIV can be used positively for ________.
Q5) Human papillomavirus contains a ________ genome.
Q6) Explain why the HIV virion structure contains a tRNA from the host.
Page 15
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46371
Sample Questions
Q1) How is griseofulvin selectively toxic?
A) it inhibits DNA synthesis of fungal DNA only
B) it disrupts the mitotic spindle of fungi but not humans
C) it blocks synthesis of a fungal cell wall
D) it inhibits synthesis of fungal-specific ergosterol
Q2) The presence of ________,such as blood,can require longer exposure times to a chemical in order to achieve true disinfection.
Q3) Drug A has a toxic dose of 17 g/kg of body weight and a therapeutic dose of 8 g/kg of body weight.Drug B has a toxic dose of 6 g/kg of body weight and a therapeutic dose of 4 g/kg of body weight.Which of the following statements is true?
A) Drug B is the safer drug.
B) Drug A is the safer drug.
C) Drug B has a higher therapeutic index.
D) Drug A has a lower therapeutic index.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a category of antifungal agents?
A) polyenes
B) azoles
C) allylamines
D) cephalosporins
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46372
Sample Questions
Q1) When do anaerobes begin to colonize the human oral cavity?
A) when teeth emerge
B) in the womb
C) during birth
D) during the first feeding
Q2) ________ is/are used to study host-microbiota relationships in the laboratory.
A) Tight junctions
B) Metagenomics
C) Gnotobiotic animals
D) Quorum sensing
Q3) Which of the following is an optimal pH for the growth of Helicobacter pylori,a common inhabitant of the human stomach?
A) pH 1
B) pH 3
C) pH 5
D) pH 7
Q4) Colonization of the stomach requires the ability to withstand ________ conditions.
Q5) Give an example of how our cells communicate with the microbiome.
Page 17
Q6) ________ are organisms that cause disease in an immunocompromised host only.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46373
Sample Questions
Q1) A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT
A) the total number of white blood cells.
B) the numbers of each type of white blood cells.
C) the number of red blood cells.
D) the presence of cancer.
Q2) An immune response that is always on and nonspecific is called ________ immunity.
A) innate
B) adaptive
C) humoral
D) cell-mediated
Q3) The complement cascade produces all of the following outcomes EXCEPT
A) creating pores in bacterial membranes.
B) increasing phagocytosis.
C) attracting white blood cells.
D) decreasing inflammation.
Q4) Explain how each of the following avoids being killed by phagocyte:
a.Shigella dysenteriae
b.Salmonella typhimurium
c.Listeria monocytogenes
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46374
Sample Questions
Q1) T cells that secrete IL-4,IL-5,and IL-6 and that play a major role in helping B cells are known as ________ cells.
A) \( T_{\text {reg }} \)
B) \( \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{H}} 2 \)
C) \( \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{H}} 1 \)
D) \( \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{H}} 0 \)
Q2) Describe the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC).
Q3) How would you expect an injection of killed or attenuated Salmonella typhi,the causative agent of typhoid fever,to protect an individual?
A) The injection would cause the individual to have a mild case of typhoid fever,but would protect against future cases of typhoid fever.
B) The injection would provide antigens recognizable by the immune system and memory cells would form to prevent typhoid fever in the future.
C) The injection would provide cross-protection to prevent several diseases caused by different bacteria.
D) The injection would provide the individual with premade antibodies capable of binding to and inactivating Salmonella typhi.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46375
Sample Questions
Q1) The following are all true about herd immunity EXCEPT that it A) only works for diseases that are contagious. B) occurs when a large portion of a population is immunized. C) is possible for non-contagious infections like tetanus.
D) protects unimmunized individuals.
Q2) The process that detects and eliminates cancer cells as they arise is called a(n)________.
Q3) Injecting an antigen such as a weakened or killed pathogen is called ________ immunization,while ________ immunization is a type of immunotherapy.
Q4) Which of the following does NOT use fluorescent-labeled antibodies?
A) agglutination
B) western blot
C) immunofluorescence microscopy
D) flow cytometry
Q5) All of the following are examples of passive immunization EXCEPT
A) injection of immune globulin.
B) breast-feeding.
C) antitoxins.
D) vaccinia virus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46376
Sample Questions
Q1) CASE HISTORY
Shakia was in her fourth month of pregnancy and excited to become a mother.A 33-year-old African American from Indianapolis,Shakia had been in good health until about a week ago,when she started to experience abdominal pain,fever,muscle aches,and diarrhea.She visited her obstetrician to make sure it was nothing serious.When the obstetrician asked whether she had eaten anything unusual in the past few weeks,Shakia recalled eating some soft Mexican cheese about three weeks earlier during a visit to Oregon with her husband.The physician sent a sample of Shakia's blood and stool to the local diagnostic laboratory and prescribed the antibiotic ampicillin as treatment.The lab reported finding a Gram-positive,non-spore-forming bacillus called Listeria monocytogenes in both the fecal and blood samples.Shakia had mild gastroenteritis and septicemia.The septicemia placed her unborn child at serious risk of infection because this bacterium can cross the placental barrier.If not treated quickly,an infected fetus has a 70% chance of dying from meningitis and multiple organ system failure.The doctor hoped she treated Shakia in time. Is Listeria monocytogenes an extracellular,facultative intracellular,or obligate intracellular pathogen? Describe the features of infection that support your conclusion.
Q2) Draw and label an AB toxin.List two diseases that are caused by AB toxins.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46377
Sample Questions
Q1) List the disease symptoms and virulence factors associated with Pseudomonas infections.Why can Pseudomonas be difficult to control in a hospital environment?
Q2) Which of the following is the cause of a fungal infection on the scalp?
A) tinea capitis
B) tinea corporis
C) tinea pedis
D) tenia cruris
Q3) Which of the following statements about fungi is true?
A) Fungi include yeasts and bacteria.
B) Fungi are eukaryotic microbes.
C) Dermatophytes do not grow on skin.
D) Fungi can be named after the location of the infection.
Q4) All of the following cause conjunctivitis EXCEPT
A) Chlamydia trachomatis.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D) Haemophilus influenza.
Q5) A sight-threatening inflammation of the cornea is referred to as ________.
Q6) Opthalmia neonatorum is a serious eye disease of infants caused by ________.
Q7) Necrotizing fasciitis is often caused by ________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46378
Sample Questions
Q1) Moraxella catarrhalis may cause bacterial ________.
Q2) A day-care worker reports that two young children have been coughing all day.She first noticed that both children had runny noses a few days ago,but is not sure if they had fevers.She states that they both sound like barking seals.Most likely these children have
A) the common cold.
B) croup.
C) influenza.
D) respiratory syncytial disease.
Q3) A secondary bacterial infection is most likely in a patient who A) smokes cigarettes.
B) breathes humidified air.
C) breathes dry air.
D) has thin mucus secretions.
Q4) The eyes are connected to the upper respiratory tract by the A) pharynx.
B) Eustachian tube.
C) lacrimal ducts.
D) sinuses.
Q5) Coccidioidomycosis is endemic in the ________ United States.
Page 24
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46379
Sample Questions
Q1) Which periodontal pathogen has been found within atherosclerotic plaques?
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
D) Porphyromonas gingivalis
Q2) Why does dissemination of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)often lead to hepatomegaly and splenomegaly?
A) EBV produces abnormal blood cells that are removed by the liver and spleen.
B) Latent EBV within the liver and spleen causes enlargement of these organs.
C) The cells infected by EBV are only found in the liver and spleen.
D) EBV-infected B cells travel throughout the body and then reside within the liver and spleen.
Q3) Atherosclerosis is associated with infection of
A) endothelial cells.
B) mast cells.
C) macrophages.
D) lymphocytes.
Q4) The definitive host in the life cycle of lymphatic filariasis is a ________.
Q5) Inflammation of the inner layer of the heart is referred to as ________.
Q6) The large vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called ________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46380
Sample Questions
Q1) During digestion,pepsin is secreted by ________.
Q2) CPE is an enterotoxin produced by ________.
Q3) What would be the expected result on the body if the pathogenicity island of Clostridium difficile were removed?
A) an increase in production of TNF-a
B) a decrease in production of TNF-a
C) an increased ability to detect the toxin in a fecal sample
D) an increased ability to identify the organism by PCR
Q4) Which of the following organisms is NOT transmitted by direct fecal-oral contact?
A) Entamoeba
B) Giardia
C) Cyclospora
D) Cryptosporidium
Q5) When does dental caries become painful?
A) when the biofilm forms on the tooth
B) when the enamel breaks down
C) when the decay penetrates the nerve
D) Dental caries is never painful.
Q6) Describe the life cycle of the tapeworm.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46381
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the treatment for severe pyelonephritis?
A) antivirals
B) IV antibiotics
C) oral antibiotics
D) There is no treatment.
Q2) All of the following are ways that an infection can be established in the urinary tract EXCEPT an infection
A) acquired in the kidney.
B) in the vaginal canal.
C) from the urethra.
D) from the bladder.
Q3) There are two types of urinary tract infections: bladder infections,or ________,and kidney infections,or ________.
Q4) All of the following are ways that HIV can be transmitted from person to person EXCEPT
A) mother to fetus.
B) sexual contact.
C) kissing.
D) blood transfusion.
27
Q5) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46382
Sample Questions
Q1) The part of the nervous system that collects data from the environment is the A) meninges.
B) central nervous system.
C) cerebrospinal fluid.
D) peripheral nervous system.
Q2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) tetanus - releases potent neurotoxin
B) botulism - stimulates transmission of nerve impulse
C) poliomyelitis - multiplication of virus occurs in throat and small intestine
D) rabies - destroys cells of the CNS
Q3) One of the complications of poliomyelitis is damage to the ________ nerve,which interferes with breathing.
Q4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
Q5) What is the correct order of the meninges from most outer to inner structures?
A) pia mater,dura mater,arachnoid
B) pia mater,arachnoid,dura mater
C) dura mater,arachnoid,pia mater
D) dura mater,pia mater,arachnoid
Q6) A small proteinaceous infectious particle is known as a ________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Q7) Fungal infections of the central nervous system are also known as ________.
Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46383
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following samples would be expected to be free of microorganisms unless an infection is present?
A) blood
B) fecal stool sample
C) nasopharyngeal swab
D) urethral swab
Q2) What is the function of goat anti-rabbit IgG antibodies in a typical point-of-care immunochromatographic assay?
A) In the absence of antibodies in a clinical specimen,they bind to red colloidal gold particles.
B) They are conjugated with red colloidal gold particles and are used to bind to antigen in a clinical specimen.
C) In the presence of antigen in a clinical specimen,they prevent complexes from forming with rabbit antibodies.
D) In the absence of antigen in a clinical specimen,they bind rabbit antibodies attached to red colloidal gold particles.
Q3) A point-of-care (POC)assay that fails to identify 50% of individuals with a disease has low ________.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46384
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following lists correctly identifies nosocomial infections from most common to least common?
A) urinary tract,pneumonia,septicemia
B) pneumonia,urinary tract,surgical wounds
C) septicemia,surgical wounds,diarrhea
D) diarrhea,urinary tract,pneumonia
Q2) Which of the following statements is a description of the prevalence of chlamydia?
A) There are 57 active cases of chlamydia on a university campus.
B) There were 57 new cases of chlamydia on a university campus last week.
C) There were 123 new cases of chlamydia on a university campus last year.
D) Young women on a university campus are twice as likely as young men to develop chlamydia.
Q3) Explain why it is important to recognize "patient zero" during an epidemic of a disease such as severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
Q4) An epidemiologist collects information about the person,place,and time of infection by the varicella zoster virus.After collecting this information,she forms a hypothesis about the possible risk factors involved and uses an observational study to test her hypothesis.This type of epidemiology is _____.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 30
Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46385
Sample Questions
Q1) Spoilage of food can alter the odor or taste of the food.Which of the following statements correctly matches a pathway to the spoilage that results?
A) Acidic fermentation leads to a bitter flavor.
B) Alkaline products from microbial metabolism leads to a sour flavor.
C) Oxidation of fats leads to rancidity.
D) Decomposition of proteins and amino acids leads to a salty flavor.
Q2) What are the three factors that control the ways in which food spoils?
Q3) During alcoholic fermentation of grains,hops plays a role in providing
A) sugar for ethanol production.
B) enzymes to break down starch.
C) antibacterial properties to extend the shelf life of beer.
D) the flavor of wines.
Q4) List two ways in which food fermentation benefits humans and provide one example for each.
Q5) An end result of mixed-acid fermentation products being converted into a gas in cattle is production of the greenhouse gas ________.
Q6) Describe any differences between the primary producers in the ocean versus the primary producers on land.
Q7) Describe how bacteria such as Lactobacillus species are used to produce yogurt.
Page 31
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.