Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology
Exam Questions
Medical Microbiology explores the biology of microorganisms that impact human health, focusing on the structure, physiology, genetics, and pathogenic mechanisms of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. This course covers the transmission, diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of infectious diseases, along with host immune responses and laboratory techniques used in clinical microbiology. Students will gain an understanding of current issues in antimicrobial resistance, epidemiology, and public health, preparing them to recognize the role of microbes in medicine and develop foundational skills for careers in healthcare and biomedical research.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Molecular Virology 2nd Edition by Nicholas H. Acheson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are given a solution of virus and asked to determine the titer.You carry out a plaque assay with 0.5mls of a 10 dilution of the virus solution and obtain an average of 150 plaques.What is the titer of the solution?
A) 1.5 x 10 pfu/ml
B) 3 x 10 pfu/ml
C) 1.5 x 10 pfu/ml
D) 3 x 10 pfu/ml
E) 1.5 x 10 pfu/ml
Answer: D
Q2) During a single growth cycle experiment, the titer of extracellular and intracellular virus drops in the first hour.What explains this observation?
A) The virus is inactivated by antibodies in the medium.
B) The virus is inactivated by cellular enzymes.
C) The virus enters the cell and is uncoated.
D) The virus binds to the cells in the dish and can't be released.
E) The cell's antiviral defenses prevent replication of the virus
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Virus Structure and Assembly
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Sample Questions
Q1) A very common structure for bacteriophage particles is which of the following?
A) an icosahedral head and an envelope
B) a naked icosahedral head
C) a naked helical tail
D) an icosahedral head with a helical tail
E) a cubic head with a helical tail
Answer: D
Q2) Viral envelopes often have very different lipid compositions than the cellular membranes that they originate from.
Answer: Quasi-equivalence describes the situation in icosahedrons with triangulation numbers higher than 1 and that use a single protein to assembly their capsid.In these capsids, the protein must interact in a 5-fold symmetry at the 12 vertices and in a 6-fold symmetry in the hexagonal faces.Therefore its interactions are not always identical but depend on the protein's location within the capsid.
Q3) Some viruses particles have a rigid capsid surrounding an internal membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Virus Classification: The World of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a ribozyme?
A) A molecule of RNA that is independently capable of replicating without cellular enzymes.
B) A molecule of RNA that codes for an enzyme.
C) Another name for a small infectious molecule of RNA
D) A virus that uses a small piece of RNA as its genome.
E) A molecule of RNA that can carry out an enzymatic process.
Answer: E
Q2) What is approximately the largest size of a double-stranded DNA genome of a virus that infect vertebrates?
A) 25 kbp.
B) 50 kbp
C) 100 kbp
D) 300 kbp
E) 500 kbp
Answer: D
Q3) Viroids do not require a helper virus in order to replicate and cause disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Virus Entry
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Q1) As part of an experiment, you take a solution of purified influenza virus particles and lower the pH of the solution to 5.5.You then add the virus to a culture of the appropriate host cell.What do you think would happen?
A) The HA protein would become inactivated and the virus would not be able to enter the host cell.
B) The viral genome would be degraded and the virus would not be able to start the infection.
C) The HA protein would be able to bind more tightly to the host cell receptors.
D) The cell would not be able to take up the virus particles into clatherin coated pits.
E) The virus particles would not be able to be transported into the nucleus.
Q2) Which of the following is an accurate description of cavelolae?
A) Small, flask-shaped invaginations of the plasma membrane enriched in cholesterol.
B) Vesicles surrounded by a cage of clatherin proteins.
C) Regions of the plasma membrane rich in cell signaling molecules.
D) A cytoskeletal network that is involved in transport of vesicles to the nucleus.
E) A cellular motor protein that is involved in intracellular transport.
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6
Chapter 5: Single-Stranded RNA Bacteriophages
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Q1) During the replication cycle of the ssRNA phage MS2, the lysis gene can not be translated in the absence of translation of the coat protein gene.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Translational readthrough occasionally occurs in the coat protein gene of the ssRNA phage Qb.Which of the following describes this process?
A) The stop codon (UGA) is read as a tryptophan codon (UGG).
B) The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase reads into the next gene.
C) The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase inserts an extra base in this gene.
D) The ribosome shifts back one base and reads a different reading frame.
E) The ribosome shifts forward one base and reads a different reading frame.
Q3) The RNA phages do not use a tail assembly to inject their genome through the cell wall of the host cell.How do they get their genome into the host cell?
Q4) Why must the ssRNA phage, like MS2 and Qb, prevent the viral genome from simultaneously being translated by a ribosome and replicated by the replicase enzyme? Describe the mechanism that these viruses use to prevent this from happening.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Microviruses
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Q1) Which of the following was used to distinguish different bacteriophages before the development of the electron microscope in the 1930's?
A) Western blot
B) DNA sequence
C) DNA restriction analysis
D) X-ray crystallography
E) Plaque morphology
Q2) When is the external scaffolding protein D removed from the procapsid?
A) After lysis of the host cell
B) During packaging of the viral DNA into the procapsid.
C) When the internal scaffolding protein B is removed from the procapsid.
D) Before the viral DNA is package into the procapsid
E) During entry into the next host cell
Q3) What distinguishes the small bacteriophage fX174 from many other bacteriophages?
A) The virion has a very large head.
B) The virion has a very long tail.
C) It has a single-strand DNA genome.
D) It has a single-strand RNA genome.
E) It has a double-strand RNA genome.
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Chapter 7: Bacteriophage
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Q1) One of the first proteins produced during the infection cycle of bacteriophage T7 inhibits the cellular enzymes EcoB and EcoK.Why is this important for the phage?
A) This prevents transcription of the cellular genes.
B) This allows transcription of the viral genes.
C) This prevents the viral proteins from being degraded.
D) This prevents the viral genome from being degraded.
E) This shuts down host cell genome replication.
Q2) The entry of the genome of the bacteriophage T7 is dependent on which of the following processes?
A) Division of the infected host cell.
B) Replication of the viral genome by host DNA polymerase.
C) Translation of the viral genome by the host ribosomes.
D) Transcription of viral genes by the viral RNA polymerase.
E) Transcription of viral genes by the host RNA polymerase.
Q3) The promoters of the Class II and Class III genes in the bacteriophage T7 have the same -10 and -35 sequences as the promoters for host cell genes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Bacteriophage Lambda
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Sample Questions
Q1) Retroregulation limits expression of the Int protein during lytic growth.The mechanism of retroregulation involves which of the following?
A) Binding of an antisense RNA that inhibits translation of the int mRNA.
B) Degradation of the Int protein by cellular proteases.
C) Inhibition of transcription from Pint.
D) Specific degradation of the int mRNA by Exonuclease III.
E) Termination of transcription upstream of the int coding region.
Q2) When bacterial cells that have an integrated prophage in their genomes are treated with UV light, it leads to cleavage of the cI repressor.Which of the following host cell proteins activates the autoprotease activity of the cI repressor?
A) DNA excision repair enzyme
B) LexA
C) RecA
D) GroES
E) Exonuclease III
Q3) The cIII protein from phage inhibits cellular proteases that would degrade the cII protein.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Viruses of Archaea
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Q1) Infection of the archaeal cell Acidianus with the virus ATV at the suboptimal temperature of 75 C leads to a productive lytic infection rather than lysogeny.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What information was used to identify the three domains of life?
A) Sequence of the 16S ribosomal RNA
B) Sequence of the mitochondrial genome
C) Sequence of the cytochrome c gene
D) Chemical structure of the cell wall
E) Chemical structure of phospholipids
Q3) Which of the following characteristics is common to many of the viruses that infect archaeal cells and distinguishes them from the phages that infect bacteria.
A) They release mature virions without lysing the host cell.
B) Their viral genomes are very high in AT basepairs.
C) Their viral genomes are linear.
D) Their viral genomes are composed of double-stranded RNA.
E) Their virions are composed of icosahedral capsids.
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Chapter 10: Cucumber Mosaic Virus
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Q1) Plant viruses, like cucumber mosaic virus, often package separate RNA genome segments into separate virions.What are the evolutionary advantages and disadvantages of this strategy? What ensures that the plants are infected with all of the necessary genome segments to begin an infection?
Q2) Which of the following statements about satellite RNAs found in cucumber mosaic virus infections is FALSE?
A) They require a cucumber mosaic virus for replication.
B) They are packaged into cucumber mosaic virus capsids.
C) They are small linear RNA molecules.
D) They encode several functional proteins.
E) They can increase the symptoms produced by cucumber mosaic virus.
Q3) In lieu of an immune response, plants use RNA silencing to defend against virus infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The 5'-terminal 200nts on the cucumber mosaic virus genome function as a promoter for the synthesis of the minus-strand RNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Picornaviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does cleavage of the host cell protein eIF-4G give the virus a competitive advantage?
A) It releases translation factors that the virus needs.
B) It inhibits a cellular nuclease that would degrade the viral genome.
C) It prevents translation of host cell mRNAs but not viral genomes.
D) It inhibits host cell defense mechanisms.
E) It releases nucleotides to be used in viral genome replication.
Q2) The VPg protein from picornaviruses has which of the following function?
A) It acts as a primer for RNA synthesis.
B) It is the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C) It is the protease the cleaves the viral polyprotein.
D) It induces the formation of cellular membranes.
E) It packages the viral genome into capsids.
Q3) The 5' end of the poliovirus genomic RNA contains all of the following EXCEPT
A) A 5' cap
B) An unusually long noncoding region
C) A pyrimidine-rich tract
D) A high degree of RNA secondary structure
E) Multiple AUG start codons
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Flaviviruses
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Q1) The nonstructural proteins of flaviviruses are produced on the rough ER and have membrane spanning domains.Which of the following explains why the nonstructural proteins are localized to cellular membranes?
A) Fatty acids are a required cofactor for RNA synthesis.
B) Viral RNA replication can only occur in the lumen of the ER.
C) Membranes serve to localize the viral replication complex.
D) The viral replication proteins must be glycosylated before they are active.
E) The nonstructural proteins require proteolytic processing by lysosomal enzymes.
Q2) Which of the following describes the reason why the precursor to the capsid protein from flaviviruses has a membrane spanning domain?
A) So that it is localized on the membranes where viral RNA replication takes place.
B) So that it islocalized on the membranes where the virions obtain their envelope.
C) So that it is close to where the other structural proteins are localized.
D) So that it will be translated by ribosomes associated with the ER.
E) All of the above are correct.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Togaviruses
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Q1) There are two proposed mechanisms for how togaviruses assemble their virions.Describe the two mechanisms and any available evidence that supports them.
Q2) Which of the following describes the mechanism used to regulate the various functions of the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase from togaviruses?
A) Proteolytic cleaveage.
B) Post-translational phosphorylation.
C) Post-translational glycosylation.
D) Interaction with viral cofactors.
E) Interaction with viral structural proteins.
Q3) Alphaviruses, which are members of the togavirus family, have been developed as useful vectors for the expression of proteins in various human and insect cells.Describe two situations where alphaviruses could be used as vectors in biology or medicine.
Q4) One of the advantages of the alphavirus vector that uses a double subgenomic RNA for expressing foreign proteins is that it does NOT need a helper virus to produce virions.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Coronaviruses
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Q1) Describe the two alternative hypotheses for how a bat coronavirus evolved to infect humans and cause the SARS epidemic in 2003.Which one does the evidence appear to support?
Q2) Unlike the other positive-strand RNA viruses that have simpler genomes, coronaviruses produce a nested set of sub-genomic mRNAs, each of which is translated into a single protein.Explain why the virus needs to produce so many subgenomic mRNAs.
Q3) Which of the following coronavirus proteins is responsible for virus entry and is the primary determinant of host range?
A) Spike (S) protein
B) Envelope (E) protein
C) Membrane (M) protein
D) Hemagglutinin-Esterase (HE) protein
E) Nucleocapsid (N) protein
Q4) Even though some coronavirus virions have a hemagglutinin-esterase protein, they still cannot bind to sialic acid.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Paramyxo-Viruses and Rhabdoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes a major difference between the positive-strand RNA viruses and negative-strand RNA viruses?
A) Only positive-strand viruses must package their polymerase in their virion.
B) Only negative-strand viruses must package their polymerase in their virion.
C) Only positive-strand viruses must encode a polymerase in their genome.
D) Only negative-strand viruses must encode a polymerase in their genome.
E) Both kinds of RNA viruses both encode and package a polymerase.
Q2) Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE?
A) The virion has a bullet shape.
B) It is usually transmitted through the bites of bats or domestic dogs.
C) The vaccine can be administered after infection has occurred.
D) Infection with the virus has a 50% mortality rate in untreated individuals.
E) Infection of humans causes an encephalitis.
Q3) In the paramyxoviruses, cleavage of the F0 protein into two subunits F1 and F2 is important for which of the following?
A) Formation of the envelope.
B) Glycosylation of the protein.
C) Creation of the transmembrane domain.
D) Exposing the fusion peptide.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Filovirouses
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Q1) All of the following factors can affect the efficiency of transcription of the mRNAs in the Ebola virus EXCEPT .
A) Strength of the polymerase binding site.
B) Location of the gene in the genome.
C) RNA secondary structure at 3' end of gene.
D) RNA secondary structure in the intergenic region.
E) Presence of overlapping genes.
Q2) There is a concern that filoviruses could be used as agents of germ warfare.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following viruses has NOT been associated with lethal human disease?
A) Marburg
B) Ebola Sudan
C) Ebola Zaire
D) Ebola Reston
E) None of the above.
Q4) The total number of recorded filovirus infections has not yet exceed 3000 cases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Bunyaviruses
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Q1) Bunyavirus mRNAs can be translated while they are still being transcribed by the viral RNA polymerase.Why has this been shown to be important for this group of viruses?
A) Transcription prevents premature termination of translation.
B) Translation prevents premature termination of transcription.
C) It allows the virus to use attenuation as a regulatory mechanism.
D) The virus can translate the structural protein on the rough ER ribosomes.
E) It prevents cellular ribosomes from translating cellular mRNAs.
Q2) Bunyavirus mRNAs are translated while they are still being transcribed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following describes an interesting feature of the envelope glycoproteins from bunyaviruses?
A) They are exported out to the plasma membrane of the cell.
B) They are retained in the Golgi membrane.
C) They are not glycosylated.
D) They are cleaved into three segments.
E) 80% of the proteins made are secreted out of the cell.
Q4) Explain how genetic drift and shift can lead to the emergence of new strains of bunyavirus that are pathogenic in humans.
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Chapter 18: Influenza Viruses
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Q1) Most seasonal outbreaks of human influenza are caused by the influenza C virus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Treatment of influenza infected cells with actinomycin D and a-amanitin, which inhibit the activity of the cellular RNA polymerase II, shut down the synthesis of viral mRNAs.Which of the following describes the mechanism of this inhibition?
A) The viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is also inhibited by these compounds.
B) The virus needs a supply of nuclear pre-mRNAs to snatch caps from.
C) These inhibitors reduce the supply of nucleotides for transcription.
D) The cellular RNA polymerase synthesizes the viral mRNAs.
E) This leads to the degradation of the viral RNA genome segments.
Q3) Cleavage of the HA protein of influenza by cellular proteases is important for which of the following?
A) Activation of the fusion peptide.
B) Creation of the sialic acid binding site.
C) Release of the envelope proteins from the Golgi.
D) Attachment of the envelope to the capsid.
E) Insertion of the HA protein into the membrane.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Reoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following is the first step in the expression of reovirus proteins during the infection?
A) Translation of the incoming RNA segment into protein.
B) Copying of the positive strand of each genome into a negative strand.
C) Copying of the negative strand of each segment into an mRNA.
D) Capping of the positive strand of each genome segment.
E) Translation of the positive strand of each genome segment.
Q2) Which of the following accounts for the majority of the viral mRNA synthesized in a reovirus infected cell?
A) mRNA made from single-stranded negative RNA segments.
B) mRNA made from incoming double-stranded RNA segments.
C) mRNA made from newly synthesized double-stranded RNA segments.
D) mRNA made from RNA segments found in the cell nucleus.
E) mRNA made from virions found in the lysosome.
Q3) What is the source of the nucleotide triphosphates used to make reovirus mRNAs?
A) They are produced by enzymes inside the core virion.
B) They diffuse into the core virion from the cytoplasm.
C) RNA synthesis occurs in the cytoplasm, where the nucleotides are located.
D) The viral RNA polymerase transports them into the core virion.
E) They are brought inside the virion from the previous host cell.
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Chapter 20: Parvoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of the parvovirus AAV genome integrating into the human genome?
A) The viral genome is passed on to daughter cells.
B) The viral genome disrupts the gene for an antiviral protein.
C) The viral genome can be more easily transcribed by the cellular RNA polymerase.
D) The viral genome can never be excised to begin a productive infection.
E) The viral genome becomes stabilized by histones in the chromatin.
Q2) Eukaryotic cellular chromosomes use the same mechanism as the parvoviruses to maintain the ends of their linear DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the NS1 protein from minute virus of mice, an autonomous parvovirus?
A) Stimulates transcription from its own p4 promoter.
B) Stimulates transcription from the p38 promoter.
C) Unwinds DNA hairpins during genome replication.
D) Nicks viral DNA during genome replication.
E) Regulates splicing of the viral mRNAs.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Polyomaviruses
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Q1) Most individuals who were born in the US between 1941 and 1961 have been accidentally injected with SV40 contaminated poliovirus vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) While SV40 can not cause tumors in monkeys or humans, it can transform rodent cells.Explain the molecular mechanisms that cause this to happen.
Q3) Binding of the large T antigen of SV40 to the cellular protein pRb causes which of the following to occur?
A) Degradation of the cellular protein p53
B) Activation of the apoptosis pathway.
C) Replication of viral DNA
D) Dissociation of the transcription factor E2F.
E) Blocks progression through the cell cycle.
Q4) The polyomavirus SV40 has been used as an in vitro model for studying the biochemistry of DNA replication in mammalian cells.Explain why SV40 is a good model for studying this process.
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23
Chapter 22: Papillomaviruses
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Q1) Mutations in the p53 gene are seen in over 50% of human tumors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cervical cancer cells, which have been transformed by the papillomavirus, are still capable of producing large amounts of virus particles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following describes the form that the papillomavirus genome is found in most cervical cancer cells?
A) The entire viral genome is integrated into the genome of the host cell.
B) A fragment of the genome is integrated into the genome of the host cell.
C) The intact viral genome remains an episomal plasmid.
D) A fragment of the viral genome remains as an episomal plasmid.
E) Multiple copies of the genome are arranged in concatamers.
Q4) The Pap test, named after George Papanicolaou, screens for the presence of cancer cells in the cervix.
A)True
B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Adenoviruses
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Q1) Binding of histone deacetylases to the promoters of genes leads to activation of transcription from that promoter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following was NOT studied or discovered in adenoviruses?
A) mRNA splicing
B) Transcription initiation by RNA polymerase II
C) Regulation of protein translation.
D) Proteins involved in regulating transcription.
E) Use of viruses as gene therapy vectors.
Q3) During the cell cycle in an uninfected cell, the cellular protein Rb represses S phase genes by doing which of the following?
A) Localizes histone deacetylase to E2F inducible genes.
B) Binds to the adenovirus E1A protein and releases E2F.
C) Prevents binding of the cellular RNA polymerase II to E2F inducible genes.
D) Binds and phosphorylates the cyclin dependent kinase.
E) Prevents the binding of E2F to the promoters of S phase genes.
Q4) Adenovirus has a linear double-stranded DNA genome.Describe how adenovirus DNA is replicated so that the "end problem" is solved.
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Chapter 24: Herpesviruses
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Q1) The a genes of herpes simplex are expressed at which time point during the viral replication cycle?
A) Immediate-early
B) Early
C) Delayed-early
D) Late
E) Delayed-early and late
Q2) Epstein-Barr virus particles produced in B lymphocyes will infect other B lymphocytes with a higher efficiency than they will infect epithelial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ICP27 protein from herpes simplex inhibits cellular gene expression by inhibiting mRNA splicing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both herpes simplex virus and Epstein-Barr virus have multiple mechanisms to suppress both cellular antiviral pathways as well as allow latently infected cells to hide from the adaptive immune system.Describe two of these mechanisms used by either virus.
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Chapter 25: Baculoviruses
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Q1) Describe some of the characteristics of baculoviruses that make them able to be used as safe pesticides to kill insects that are agricultural pests.
Q2) How do the hosts of baculoviruses typically become infected with the virus?
A) They are injected with virus by a parasitic wasp
B) They hatch from an infected egg.
C) They breathe in aerosoled virus particles.
D) They feed on virus contaminated plants.
E) They mate with an infected host.
Q3) Assays that were used to study baculovirus DNA replication had to distinguish the plasmid DNA that was originally transfected into the cells from the DNA that was replicated in the eukaryotic cells.Which of the following describes how this was accomplished?
A) Digestion of DNA with a methylation dependent restriction enzyme.
B) Using a southern blot to distinguish the different types of DNA.
C) Using electron microscopy to distinguish the different types of DNA.
D) Using standard agarose gel electrophoresis to measure different sizes of DNA.
E) Measuring the sizes of the large DNA with a pulsed-field gel electrophoresis.
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Chapter 26: Poxviruses
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Q1) We no longer vaccinate people for smallpox because there are no stocks of smallpox anywhere on the planet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Smallpox was named in 15 century France to distinguish it from "large pox" or syphilis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because poxviruses replicate exclusively in the cytoplasm of the host cell, they must encode which of the following enzymes?
A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
B) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
C) mRNA processing enzymes.
D) Enzymes to produce deoxoynucleotides.
E) All of the above are encoded.
Q4) Vaccinia virus has been developed to express foreign proteins from bacteriophage T7 promoters.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Viruses of Algae and Mimivirus
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Q1) One of the reasons why the phcyodnaviruses are so diverse is that their hosts are ancient and equally as diverse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Like most other eukaryotic viruses, the entire virion of the chlorovirus PBCV-1, a phycodnavirus, enters the host cell and releases the viral genome into the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The coccolithoviruses encode enzymes that produce the sphingolipid ceramide.What is the proposed function of this lipid in infected cells?
A) It enhances the production of cellular membranes, which the virus requires for replication.
B) It modifies cellular membranes, which enhances binding and entry of virions.
C) It activates apoptosis, causing host cells to lyse and release virus particles.
D) It inhibits apoptosis, allowing host cells to stay alive longer.
E) It induces signaling pathways in the host cell that increase viral replication.
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Chapter 28: Retroviruses
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the integration of the retrovirus provirus into the host genome is FALSE?
A) The viral integrase makes a staggered cut in the host cell DNA at the site of integration.
B) During integration, two bases are lost from each end of the viral provirus.
C) Integration results in a 4-6bp direct repeat of the host cell DNA on either side of the provirus.
D) Retroviruses produce an enzyme that can remove the provirus from the cellular genome.
E) Cellular host DNA repair enzymes are involved in the integration process.
Q2) All of the following features are associated with the incoming RNA genomes of retroviruses EXCEPT:
A) 5' cap structures
B) 3' poly(A) tails
C) Repeated (R) sequence at each end of the genome.
D) A single open reading frame.
E) Unique sequences at each end of the genome.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Human Immunodeficiency
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Q1) During the clinical latency period of an HIV infection, the virus is not replicating and no virus particles are produced.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for HIV?
A) Sexual contact.
B) Breast milk.
C) Aerosoled particles.
D) Blood transfusions.
E) Contaminated needles.
Q3) Which of the following cell types facilitates the initial infection with HIV and helps to transmit the virus across mucosal membranes?
A) Dendritic cells
B) CD4-positive T lymphocytes
C) CD8-positive T lymphocytes
D) B lymphocytes
E) Monocytes
Q4) Describe three unique aspects of HIV's biology that make it an extremely difficult virus for the human immune system to eliminate.
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Chapter 30: Hepadnaviruses
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Q1) The X protein from hepatitis B virus is thought to activate gene transcription because it is found in the nucleus of infected cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following describe similarities between the reverse transcription process in retroviruses and hepadnaviruses EXCEPT:
A) They both use a virally encoded reverse transcriptase enzyme.
B) They both use a protein primer to begin DNA synthesis.
C) They both produce a double-stranded DNA product.
D) They both require the presence of repeat sequences in the viral RNA.
E) They both use a ribonuclease H enzyme activity during reverse transcription.
Q3) The copy of the hepatitis B virus genome that is inside of the virion has unusual structures as the 5' and 3' ends.Which of the following describes the genome ends?
A) The 5' end has a cap structure and the 3' end has a poly(A) tail.
B) The 5' end has a triphosphate and the 3' end has a hydroxyl group.
C) The 5' end has a fragment of RNA and the 3' end has a protein attached.
D) The 5' end has a protein attached and the 3' end has a fragment of RNA.
E) There are no ends, the genome is a covalently closed circle.
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32
Chapter 31: Viroids and Hepatitis Delta Virus
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Q1) Which of the following describes the major difference between hepatitis delta virus (HDV)and the plant viroids and satellite RNAs?
A) Only the HDV genome contains a ribozyme activity.
B) Only HDV requires a helper virus.
C) Only the HDV genome encodes a protein.
D) Only HDV replicates using a rolling circle mechanism.
E) Only HDV requires RNA polymerase II during its replication cycle.
Q2) There is some controversy about whether the replication of the hepatitis delta virus (HDV)genome is performed by the cellular RNA polymerase I or RNA polymerase II.Describe the evidence that supports each model.
Q3) Coinfection with both hepatitis B and delta virus together makes the resulting liver disease less severe.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how the ribozyme activity found in the plant virioids and hepatitis delta virus can be used as therapeutic agents to treat infections with other viruses.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Prions
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Q1) All of the following demonstrate that prions do not appear to contain a nucleic acid EXCEPT:
A) Infectivity is resistant to phenol.
B) Infectivity is resistant to UV radiation.
C) Infectivity is resistant to nucleases.
D) Infectivity is resistant to high concentrations of zinc ions.
E) Infectivity is resistant to ammonium hydroxide.
Q2) Which of the following observations about the PrP protein could explain how this protein causes damage to the neurons of the brain?
A) The PrP protein causes glycosylation of membrane proteins to become disregulated.
B) The PrP protein causes copper to be sequestered in neurons.
C) The PrP protein is more resistant to protease digestion than the cellular form.
D) The PrP protein alters the signaling pathways in neurons.
E) The PrP protein aggregates to form fibrils.
Q3) The PrP protein is more resistant to proteases than the PrP protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the observations that link new variant CJD with BSE.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Intrinsic Cellular Defenses Against Virus
Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is an accurate description of autophagy?
A) Engulfment of one cell by another cell.
B) Engulfment of an extracellular virus particle.
C) Degradation of cellular components in a phagosome.
D) Degradation of cellular DNA by nucleases.
E) Degradation of cellular proteins by proteases.
Q2) When interferon binds to its receptor it stimulates an intracellular signaling pathway.Which of the following proteins is part of this signaling pathway?
A) NF-\( \kappa \)B and HMG1 proteins
B) Caspase proteins
C) Jak and Stat proteins
D) IRF-3 and IRF-7 proteins
E) Death inducing signaling complex
Q3) Which of the following is the best-known substrate of the interferon induced PKR?
A) Jak kinase
B) Ribonuclease L
C) Translation factor eIF2
D) IRF-3
E) Large ribosomal subunit
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses to Virus Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an activity associated with interferon g?
A) Induces the expression of MHC class II proteins.
B) Enhances the processing of viral proteins into peptides.
C) Induces the differentiation of natural killer cells.
D) Stimulates development of Th1 cells.
E) Stimulates activation of macrophages.
Q2) Which of the following statements about MHC class I molecules is FALSE?
A) They are located on the surface of all cells in the body.
B) They are used to identify the cells as belonging to the host (self-identification).
C) They are recognized by natural killer cells.
D) They present cytoplasmic peptides to cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
E) They are recognized by B lymphocytes.
Q3) Which of the following is the receptor that differentiates a cytotoxic T lymphocyte from a helper T lymphocyte?
A) CD8 receptor
B) CD4 receptor
C) MHC class I
D) T cell receptor
E) B cell receptor
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Antiviral Vaccines
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Q1) Vaccines will never be able to treat patients chronically infected with hepatitis B virus because they can not break immunological tolerance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For a vaccine to be effective, it is more important that it stimulate a humoral immune response to a virus rather than a cellular immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the primary reason that live attenuated vaccines so difficult to develop?
A) Viruses do not mutate very quickly.
B) Viruses replicate very quickly.
C) The mutations that determine attenuation can not be predicted.
D) Not all pathogenic viruses can be grown in culture.
E) It is difficult to maintain the stability of attenuated viruses.
Q4) Describe the benefits of using subunit vaccines rather than live or inactivated virus vaccines.What are some of the new techniques being investigated to produce recombinant vaccines that would improve the effectiveness of these types of vaccines?
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Chapter 36: Antiviral Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes from herpes simplex virus is required to activate the antiviral drug acyclovir?
A) Ribonucleotide reductase.
B) Thymidine kinase.
C) DNA polymerase.
D) Nucleoside diphosphate kinase.
E) Guanine kinase.
Q2) Drugs that can treat viral infections were discovered about the same time as antibiotics, which are used to treat bacterial infections.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following viral enzymes encoded by cytomegalovirus is responsible for phosphorylating and activating the antiviral drug ganciclovir?
A) Guanine kinase
B) Cellular nucleotide kinase.
C) UL97, a serine-threonine protein kinase
D) Thymidine kinase
E) Thymidylate kinase
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Chapter 37: Eukaryotic Virus Vectors
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Q1) Adeno-associated virus can infect dividing as well as nondividing cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe two advantages that the third generation adenoviral vectors have over the original first-generation vectors.Explain the methods used to produce a recombinant adenovirus using these third generation vectors.
Q3) Which of the following is the primary reason why it is difficult to produce packaging cell lines for both retrovirus and adenovirus vectors?
A) The proteins are degraded by the proteasome in the cell.
B) It is difficult to express high levels of the proteins.
C) Many of the required viral proteins are toxic to the cell.
D) The immune system recognizes the proteins and kills the cell.
E) The proteins stimulate the RNAi defenses in the cell.
Q4) Virus vectors that contain large transgenes do not require a helper virus to be propagated.
A)True
B)False
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