Medical Microbiology
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology explores the biology of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, with a focus on their roles in human disease. The course examines the mechanisms of pathogenicity, host-pathogen interactions, modes of transmission, epidemiology, and principles of infection control. Students learn about diagnostic techniques, antimicrobial therapies, resistance mechanisms, and emerging infectious diseases, providing a foundation for understanding the impact of microbes on public health and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition by Connie R. Mahon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true about viruses EXCEPT:
A) Viruses consist of DNA or RNA but not both.
B) Viruses are acellular but are surrounded by a protein coat.
C) Viruses can infect bacteria, plants, and animals.
D) Viruses do not need host cells to survive.
Answer: D
Q2) A microbiology technologist performs a traditional bacterial stain on a colony from a wound culture that is suspected to contain bacteria from the genus Clostridium.The unstained areas in the bacterial cell observed by the technologist are called:
A) Cilia
B) Ribosomes
C) Spores
D) Mitochondria
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Host-Parasite Interaction
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Q1) The most common bacterial characteristic that allows for evasion of phagocytosis by the host is:
A) Exotoxin production
B) Extracellular enzyme production
C) Pili
D) Polysaccharide capsule
Answer: D
Q2) The smaller the number of microorganisms necessary to cause infection in a competent host,the more _____ the microorganism.
A) Opportunistic
B) Parasitic
C) Invasive
D) Virulent
Answer: D
Q3) The major constituents of the adaptive or specific immune response are:
A) Neutrophils
B) Macrophages
C) Monocytes
D) Lymphocytes
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Laboratory Role in Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) An outbreak occurs when:
A) Numbers of isolates or infection rates increase significantly above the baseline.
B) Numbers of isolates or infection rates decrease significantly below the baseline.
C) Many people in a community are infected with a particular organism.
D) The mortality rate from a particular organism increases above 2%.
Answer: A
Q2) The hospital infection control committee will expect reports from the laboratory that deal with all the following EXCEPT:
A) Antibiograms
B) Water contamination rates
C) Blood culture contamination rates
D) Pathogens recovered in certain hospital units
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Control of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoclaves use this method to sterilize inanimate objects.
A) Dry heat
B) Heat under steam pressure
C) Microwaves
D) Infrared light rays
Q2) This chemical is a saturated 5-carbon dialdehyde that has broad-spectrum activity,rapid killing action,and remains active in the presence of organic matter.
A) Formalin
B) Formaldehyde
C) Haloaldehyde
D) Glutaraldehyde
Q3) After using the phone,the laboratory tech sprayed the receiver with a chemical spray.This process will kill a defined scope of microorganisms.What is this process called?
A) Sterilization
B) Bacteriostatic
C) Disinfection
D) Bactericidal
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6
Chapter 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology
Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Usually,negative test results are more reliable in predicting:
A) The absence of disease
B) The presence of disease
C) The sensitivity of a test
D) The specificity of a test
Q2) A test can have both a positive and negative predictive value.All the following elements are needed to compute the positive and negative predictive value of a test EXCEPT:
A) Sensitivity of a test
B) Specificity of a test
C) Incidence of the disease being tested
D) Prevalence of the disease being tested
Q3) In any susceptibility system,variables that can affect the results include the following:1.Antibiotic potency2.Inoculum concentration3.Bactericidal level4.Ph5.Anion content
A) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
B) 1, 3, 4, and 5 are correct
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are correct
D) 1, 2, and 4 are correct
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Specimen Collection and Processing
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Q1) Why does a fecal sample for culture need to be collected in a leak-proof,nonsterile container?
A) Fecal samples can be runny and if the specimen leaks, this can present a biohazard.
B) Many types of bacteria call the intestinal tract home; the specimen cannot become contaminated.
C) Leak-proof containers are always sterile, so the container will be leak-proof as well as sterile.
D) Because DNA probes can determine resident florae from pathogenic bacteria.
Q2) Enriched media:
A) Support the grouping of microbes based on different characteristics demonstrated in the media
B) Allow the growth of fastidious microbes through the addition of certain growth enhancers
C) Support the growth of most nonfastidious microbes
D) Support the growth of one type or group of microbes, but not another
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Chapter 7: Microscopic Examination of Infected Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Commonly encountered polymicrobial infections are:
A) Perirectal abscesses
B) Indwelling catheter infections
C) Infant meningitis
D) Food poisoning
Q2) The most bothersome contaminating materials for the laboratory professional are those that:
A) Make it hard to see the pathogenic bacteria through all the mucus
B) Contain microorganisms that will grow in culture and confuse the culture evaluation
C) Make processing the specimen through digestion and straining extremely time consuming
D) Appear to resemble fungus on the direct smear
Q3) A specimen that is spread on a smear and appears to have a homogenous constitution is said to:
A) Be clumped at different areas on the slide
B) Contain pathogens only in one visual field
C) Have material spread evenly throughout the slide
D) Contain normal florae
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9
Chapter 8: Use of Colonial Morphology for the Presumptive
Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Swarming is:
A) Many bacterial colonies crowded together at one place on the agar plate
B) When colonies on a blood agar plate have a "halo" around the bacterial colony
C) When a bacterial colony on a blood agar plate grows over the top of the erythrocytes it hemolyzed
D) A hazy blanket of growth on the surface of the agar that extends way beyond the streak lines
Q2) The density of the bacterial colony can be described by all the following EXCEPT:
A) Transparent
B) Translucent
C) Opaque
D) Ground glass
Q3) The elevation of bacterial colonies is described by all the following EXCEPT:
A) Raised
B) Pointed
C) Convex
D) Umbilicate
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biochemical pathway that the methyl red test confirms is:
A) Glucose ® pyruvic acid ® mixed acid fermentation
B) Pyruvic acid ® glucose ® mixed acid fermentation
C) Glucose ® pyruvic acid ® acetoin ® diacetyl KOH
D) Butylene ® pyruvic acid ® diacetyl KOH
Q2) This identification system for Enterobacteriaceae has a series of 20 cupules attached to a plastic strip.Inside the cupules are lyophilized pH-based substrates.What is the name of this system?
A) ID Tri-Panel
B) API 20E
C) Microbact
D) Enterotube II
Q3) If an organism fermented glucose only and utilized peptones,what would the triple sugar iron (TSI)reaction be?
A) Acid/acid
B) Alkaline/acid
C) Alkaline/alkaline
D) Acid/alkaline
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Chapter 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is used as the indicator in a complement fixation (CF)test?
A) Latex particles
B) Horse red blood cells
C) Rabbit red blood cells
D) Sheep red blood cells
Q2) What tests are performed on newborns to detect congenital infections?
A) TORCH
B) TWAR
C) CMV
D) HIV
Q3) What is one of the most widely used applications of the direct antigen test?
A) HIV in saliva
B) Group A strep in throat swabs
C) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in urine
D) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) in hair follicles
Q4) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)differs from immunofluorescent tests by:
A) Using a different fluorescent label
B) Using a enzymes and a chromogenic substrate
C) Being valid for direct testing only
D) All of the above
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Southern blot test separates:
A) RNA
B) Proteins
C) Lipids
D) DNA
Q2) PCR requires all of the following components EXCEPT:
A) DNA helicase
B) DNA polymerase
C) Oligonucleotides (primers)
D) Deoxynucleotide triphosphates
Q3) This cation is required for the proper function of the Taq DNA polymerase.
A) Ca
B) Na
C) Cl
D) Mg
Q4) Nucleic acid hybridization is:
A) Coupling of complementary single-stranded nucleic acid molecules
B) Mixing different pieces of DNA together and making a hybrid molecule
C) Attaching an RNA to an mRNA unit
D) Making RNA from a DNA template
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Antibiotic Mechanisms of Action and Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does Staphylococcus aureus acquire resistance to methicillin?
A) An enzyme alteration
B) Mobile DNA element
C) Frameshift mutation
D) RNA porin
Q2) All of the following are recently approved classes of antibiotics that target protein synthesis EXCEPT:
A) Sixth generation cephalosporins
B) Oxazolidinones
C) Streptogramin
D) Glycylcycline
Q3) The mechanisms of action of antibiotics include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Blocking the Embden-Meyerhof pathway
B) Bacterial cell wall synthesis
C) DNA replication
D) RNA transcription
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agar dilution and disk diffusion tests for Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus spp.use:
A) Mueller-Hinton agar supplemented with X and V factors
B) Columbia base supplemented with 5% sheep blood
C) Trypticase soy agar base supplemented with 5% lysed horse blood
D) Mueller-Hinton agar supplemented with 5% sheep blood
Q2) If the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)or zone size is interpreted as intermediate using the latest Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)tables:
A) The clinical interpretation of the result is that the patient's infecting organism should respond to therapy with that antimicrobial agent using the dosage recommended normally for that type of infection and that species.
B) The patient's infecting organism is unlikely to be inhibited by the usually achievable concentrations of the antimicrobial agent based on the dosages normally used with that drug.
C) The patient's infecting organism is likely to require the maximum amount of antimicrobial or more than can be achieved and for which the clinical response is likely to be less than with a susceptible strain.
D) None of the above.
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Chapter 14: Staphylococci
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following is used to describe the colonial morphology of Staphylococcus epidermidis EXCEPT:
A) b-Hemolytic
B) g-Hemolytic
C) White
D) Small to medium
Q2) Infections by this organism are predominantly hospital acquired,and some predisposing factors include catheterization,medical implantation,and immunosuppressive therapy.
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) S. intermedius
C) S. epidermidis
D) S. saprophyticus
Q3) How is Staphylococcus saprophyticus presumptively identified?
A) Latex agglutination test for clumping factor
B) Rabbit plasma test for coagulase
C) Novobiocin susceptibility
D) All of the above
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16
Chapter 15: Streptococcus, enterococcus, and Other
Catalase-Negative Gram-Positive Cocci
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 80-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home where she has been sick with a cough and fever for two days.She is coughing up thick,rust-colored sputum.The physician prescribed penicillin,but she is not getting any better.What is her most probable diagnosis?
A) Viral pneumonia
B) Pneumococcal pneumonia with penicillin-resistant organism
C) Enterococcal pneumonia with vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE)
D) S. agalactiae infection
Q2) All of the following are additional virulence factors associated with group A streptococcus EXCEPT:
A) Enterotoxins
B) Hemolysins
C) Toxins
D) Enzymes
Q3) Physiologic classification of streptococci divide the species into all the following groups EXCEPT:
A) Pyogenic streptococci
B) Lactococci
C) b-Hemolytic streptococci
D) Enterococci
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli
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Sample Questions
Q1) What other gram-positive rod is similar to Bacillus anthracis?
A) B. subtilis
B) B. cereus
C) L. monocytogenes
D) E. rhusiopathiae
Q2) What is the colony morphology of A.haemolyticum on sheep blood agar (SBA)?
A) A narrow zone of b-hemolysis and a black opaque dot is seen when the colony is scraped away.
B) Gamma hemolysis, with pitting around the edges of the colony.
C) Alpha hemolysis, with a central black opaque dot in the colony.
D) A wide zone of beta hemolysis and a large, yellow, mucoid colony.
Q3) What bacteria's morphology is described as large,square-ended,gram-positive or gram-variable rods found singly or in chains?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Nocardia asteroides
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Bacillus anthracis
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Chapter 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) How should a specimen for Neisseria gonorrhoeae be transported to the laboratory?
A) Placed in the paper swab cover and transported to the laboratory at the end of the day
B) Placed in a bacterial transport and transported to the laboratory at the end of the day
C) Placed in a tube of broth and transported to the laboratory immediately
D) Placed in Amies with charcoal transport system and transported to the laboratory immediately
Q2) To which category does Neisseria spp.belong?
A) Facultatively anaerobic
B) Capnophilic
C) Anaerobic
D) Facultatively aerobic
Q3) What type of swab should be used for a Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture?
A) Cotton
B) Calcium alginate
C) Dacron
D) Flax
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Chapter 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) A mother brings her lethargic,feverish baby into the emergency department.The baby is diagnosed with meningitis and the doctor does a spinal tap.The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)Gram stain shows many tiny gram-negative rods.What is the most probably identification of this organism?
A) Haemophilus influenzae serotype b
B) H. parainfluenzae
C) H. aegyptius
D) H. aphrophilus
Q2) What is the name of the disease that is characterized by rapid onset,acute inflammation,and intense edema that may cause complete airway obstruction in 2- to 4-year-olds?
A) Cellulitis
B) Epiglottis
C) Meningitis
D) Conjunctivitis
Q3) All of the following are characteristics of Haemophilus spp.EXCEPT:
A) Gram-positive cocci
B) Small coccobacilli
C) Oxidase positive
D) Catalase positive
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) All of the following are symptoms of salmonellosis that may appear 8 to 36 hours after ingestion of contaminated food EXCEPT:
A) Nausea
B) Vomiting
C) Headache
D) Watery diarrhea
Q2) A microbiologist is reading a stool culture and notices a very moist and mucoid pink colony on MacConkey agar.What is the most likely organism?
A) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus vulgaris
D) Acinetobacter
Q3) The primary pathogens of the Enterobacteriaceae include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Salmonella enterica
B) Proteus mirabilis
C) Shigella spp.
D) Yersinia spp.
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Chapter 20: Vibrio,aeromonas,plesiomonas and
Campylobacter Species
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Q1) What is the name of the organism that causes the disease cholera?
A) Vibrio furnissii
B) V. cholerae
C) V. vulnificus
D) V. parahaemolyticus
Q2) What is the name of the organism that is strongly associated with gastric,peptic,and duodenal ulcers as well as GI carcinoma?
A) Campylobacter jejuni
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) C. curvus
D) H. rectus
Q3) What disease manifests in acute cases as a severe gastroenteritis,accompanied by vomiting followed by diarrheic stools that are described as rice water and occur 10 to 30 times a day?
A) Cholera
B) Typhoid
C) Dysentery
D) Food poisoning
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Chapter 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) What organism causes melioidosis?
A) Burkholderia mallei
B) B. cepacia
C) B. gladioli
D) B. pseudomallei
Q2) What two species of Pseudomonas have been linked to transfusion-associated septicemia?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa and P. stutzeri
B) P. fluorescens and P. aeruginosa
C) P. putida and P. fluorescens
D) P. putida and P. mendocina
Q3) What is the name of the genus of organisms that colonized 45% of all tracheotomy patients?
A) Acinetobacter spp.
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) P. mendocina
D) P. fluorescens
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance
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Q1) What evidence indicates the presence of anaerobes in cultures?
A) A foul odor upon opening an anaerobic jar or bag
B) Growth on the anaerobic plates, but not on the sheep blood agar (SBA) plates incubated in the CO incubator
C) Colonies on kanamycin-vancomycin laked blood agar (KVLBA) that fluoresce brick-red under ultraviolet light
D) All of the above
Q2) Aerotolerant anaerobes include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Clostridium
B) Bacteroides
C) Actinomyces
D) Bifidobacterium
Q3) What disk is used to presumptively identify Peptostreptococcus anaerobius?
A) Bile
B) Nitrate
C) Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
D) Indole
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Chapter 23: Spirochetes
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Q1) What is the drug of choice used to treat syphilis?
A) Tetracycline
B) Fluoroquinolones
C) Penicillin
D) Macrolides
Q2) What medium is used in the laboratory to grow leptospires?
A) MacConkey
B) Fletcher's
C) Sheep blood agar
D) None of the above
Q3) An animal attendant at the zoo became ill.Symptoms included fever,chills,headache,severe myalgia,and malaise.This person's urinalysis was abnormal with protein and blood present.A couple of weeks earlier,the attendant was handling the chimpanzees and one of the chimps urinated on him.What is the most likely cause of illness?
A) Borrelia
B) Leptospira
C) Treponema
D) Helicobacter
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Chlamydia and Rickettsia
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Q1) What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A) Rickettsia prowazekii
B) R. typhi
C) R. canada
D) R. rickettsii
Q2) What is the most commonly used test technique to detect Chlamydia trachomatis infection?
A) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
B) Nucleic acid probes
C) Cell culture
D) Cytologic methods
Q3) Guidelines for reporting the results of Chlamydia trachomatis testing on patients include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Testing specifically using profiles
B) Reporting which tests were and were not performed
C) Reporting unusual observations
D) Performing a routine culture in addition to all the tests for Chlamydia
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Chapter 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) At-risk groups for contracting walking pneumonia include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Prisoners
B) College students
C) Military personnel
D) Very young children
Q2) If a newborn has symptoms of meningitis but the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is negative for both Gram stain and a routine culture,what organisms should be suspected?
A) Neisseria gonorrhea and Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi
C) Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum
D) M. pneumoniae and C. trachomatis
Q3) Which of the following stains is used to enhance the visibility of mycoplasma-like colonies?
A) Gram stain
B) Acridine orange
C) Dienes stain
D) Wright stain
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Chapter 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Other
Nontuberculosis Mycobacteria
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Q1) What are nonchromogens?
A) Species that produce carotene pigment upon exposure to light
B) Species that produce pigment in the light or the dark
C) Species whose colonies are a buff color and exposure to light does not induce pigment formation
D) Species whose colonies fluoresce under ultraviolet light
Q2) What are photochromogens?
A) Species that produce carotene pigment upon exposure to light
B) Species that produce pigment in the light or the dark
C) Species whose colonies are a buff color and exposure to light does not induce pigment formation
D) Species whose colonies fluoresce under ultraviolet light
Q3) What is the definition of a multidrug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A) Organisms resistant to at least isoniazid and rifampicin
B) Organisms resistant to isoniazid, rifampicin, ethambutol, and streptomycin
C) Organisms resistant to streptomycin and rifampicin
D) Organisms resistant to ciprofloxacin and imipenem
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Medically Significant Fungi
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Q1) Chromoblastomycosis is caused by all the following organisms EXCEPT:
A) Fonsecaea compacta
B) Penicillium marneffei
C) Fonsecaea pedrosoi
D) Phialophora verrucosa
Q2) What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
A) Pneumocystis jiroveci
B) Phaeoannellomyces werneckii
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Q3) What is the causative agent of black piedra?
A) Microsporum canis
B) Trichosporon beigelii
C) Piedraia hortae
D) Sporothrix schenckii
Q4) All of the following organisms cause cutaneous mycoses EXCEPT:
A) Sporothrix schenckii
B) Trichophyton beigelii
C) Microsporum canis
D) Epidermophyton floccosum
Page 29
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Chapter 29: Clinical Virology
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Q1) What is a primary cell culture?
A) This is where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer, and very little cell division occurs.
B) It is a culture that can divide, but passage is limited to 50 generations.
C) It has variable numbers of chromosomes and indefinite passage.
D) This describes are the only cells the specimen will be plated on.
Q2) What is another name for HHV-4?
A) Varicella-zoster
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Herpes simplex
D) Epstein-Barr
Q3) What virus causes genital herpes?
A) Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
B) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
C) Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2)
D) Human herpesvirus (HHV-5)
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Chapter 30: Agents of Bioterror
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Q1) What category of bioterrorism agents would have the greatest impact?
A) Category A
B) Category B
C) Category C
D) Category D
Q2) What type of anthrax is most deadly and most likely to be seen in a bioterrorism attack?
A) Gastrointestinal
B) Inhalation
C) Cutaneous
D) Spinal
Q3) Organisms that have the following characteristics-aerobic growth,nonhemolytic colonies 2 to 5 mm in diameter,catalase positive,nonmotile,large gram-positive bacilli recovered from lesions,blood,cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)or lymph nodes-can be presumptively identified as:
A) Brucella mallei
B) Brucella anthracis
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Burkholderia cepacia
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Page 31
Chapter 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) In this level of the biofilm,the organisms downregulate somewhat their metabolic activity,but they can still use nutrients and exchange genes.
A) Outer
B) Intermediate
C) Inner
D) Substrata
Q2) The late colonizers in the dental biofilm include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Capnocytophaga
B) Streptococcus salivarius
C) Selenomonas flueggei
D) Prevotella
Q3) This layer of a biofilm is exposed to the highest concentration of nutrients and oxygen,containing the most active organisms.What layer is this?
A) Outer
B) Inner
C) Middle
D) Substrata
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Chapter 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
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Q1) What organism is the most common opportunistic pathogen that routinely infects patients with HIV/AIDS?
A) Pneumocystis carinii
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C) Serratia marcescens
D) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Q2) What should a microbiologist do if he or she finds a-hemolytic colonies on a properly collected sputum specimen on a patient suspected of having lobar pneumonia?
A) Ignore the colonies because they are normal florae.
B) Ignore the colonies because no known pathogens for pneumonia are a-hemolytic.
C) Do a full workup to identify the organism.
D) Suspect a bioterror agent, and send the isolate to a laboratory response network (LRN) reference laboratory.
Q3) Why is pharyngitis produced by group A streptococcus treated with antibiotics?
A) To prevent rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis
B) To prevent epiglottis
C) To prevent swelling of tonsils
D) To prevent swelling of soft tissues in the pharynx
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Page 33
Chapter 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections
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Q1) Lesions from which bacteria fluoresce coral red when examined under a Wood's lamp?
A) Corynebacterium minutissimum
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Clostridium tetani
D) C. difficile
Q2) What causes rubella?
A) Calicivirus
B) Herpesvirus
C) Paramyxovirus
D) Togaviridae
Q3) What is thrush?
A) Tinea unguium
B) Tinea corporis
C) Dermatophytosis
D) Oral candidiasis
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Chapter 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning
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Q1) How does the small intestine try to prevent infection?
A) Caustic secretions
B) Acidic secretions
C) Anatomic structure
D) Peristalsis
Q2) A microbiologist is reading a Gram stain and observes gram-negative,curved rods with a seagull-wing appearance.What organism could this be?
A) Campylobacter and Vibrio
B) Shigella and Vibrio
C) Campylobacter and Shigella
D) All of the above
Q3) What intestinal parasite is able to leave the intestines and cause metastatic diseases,especially liver abscesses?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Entamoeba histolytica
C) Cryptosporidium parvum
D) Microsporidia
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35
Chapter 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Infection with what organism results in a chronic meningoencephalitis more commonly known as sleeping sickness?
A) Gnathostoma spinigerum
B) Baylisascaris procyonis
C) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
D) Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
Q2) What fungus causes chronic meningitis in HIV patients?
A) Cryptococcus neoformans
B) Coccidioides immitis
C) Candida albicans
D) Histoplasma capsulatum
Q3) Common arborviruses that cause meningitis include all the following EXCEPT:
A) St. Louis encephalitis virus
B) La Cross virus
C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis
D) West Nile virus
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Chapter 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis
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Q1) What immunosuppressive agents increase a patient's risk of bacteremia?
A) Steroids and chemotherapy drugs
B) Steroids and cytotoxic drugs
C) Chemotherapy drugs and cytotoxic drugs
D) All of the above
Q2) SPS performs all the following functions in the blood culture bottles EXCEPT:
A) Anticoagulation
B) Prevention of phagocytosis
C) Act as a bacterial nutrient
D) Inactivate certain antibiotics
Q3) If a patient with a bacteremia is receiving antibiotics but not responding to treatment,how does the physician find out if another organism is present in the blood,causing the problem?
A) Redraw the blood cultures.
B) Redraw the blood cultures using an antibiotic removal device (ARD).
C) Switch the patient to another antibiotic that will resolve the clinical symptoms.
D) Perform hemodialysis to remove the organisms from the patient's blood.
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Chapter 37: Urinary Tract Infections
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Q1) All of the following types of specimens should not be treated as screens EXCEPT:
A) Urine specimens with significant pyuria and bacteriuria
B) Straight catheterization
C) Suprapubic aspiration
D) Cystoscopy
Q2) Urine cultures are performed for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
A) To test for chlamydia
B) To confirm a cure
C) To detect asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women
D) To evaluate for bacteremia
Q3) Because urine is an excellent supportive medium for bacteria growth,how must urine specimens be handled after collection?
A) Store at room temperature for up to 24 hours.
B) Process the refrigerated specimen within 24 hours.
C) Store in the refrigerator for 48 hours.
D) Immediately refrigerate.
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Chapter 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) What test is sufficient for a diagnosis of Neisseria gonorrhea in men?
A) Culture
B) Gram stain
C) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
D) Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Q2) What is the advantage of performing NAAT for cases of gonococcal urethritis?
A) There is no advantage.
B) You can also find syphilis.
C) You can also find Cryptosporidium.
D) You can also find Chlamydia.
Q3) What makes cervicitis difficult to diagnose?
A) Lack of well-recognized symptoms
B) Inability to culture causative agents
C) Most causes are non-infectious
D) Symptoms are obvious - not difficult to diagnose
Q4) Why are there so many cases of genital herpes in the Unites States?
A) Condoms cannot prevent spread.
B) No protection is available.
C) Lesions shed when asymptomatic.
D) Lesions shed when symptomatic.
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Chapter 39: Infections in Special Populations
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Q1) What is usually the leading cause of death in immunocompromised patients?
A) HIV
B) Hepatitis C
C) Infections
D) Congestive heart failure
Q2) All of the following immune defense mechanisms in burn patients are depressed
EXCEPT:
A) Humoral defense mechanisms
B) Complement activity
C) Cell-mediated defenses
D) IgG
Q3) What is the disease that 75% of the patients with hematologic malignancies contract?
A) Meningitis
B) Septicemia
C) Pneumonia
D) Osteomyelitis
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Chapter 40: Zoonotic Diseases
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Q1) Zoonotic infections that jump from animal to human,then cannot be transmitted directly to other humans,include all the following EXCEPT:
A) West Nile virus
B) Rabies
C) Influenza
D) Bubonic plague
Q2) If you are bitten by a dog,what organism is most likely to cause an infection at the site of the bite?
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Bacillus anthracis
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Pasteurella multocida
Q3) Even though this organism is part of the canine and feline normal oral florae,most infections occur in patients that have had a splenectomy,have cancer,or abuse drugs.What organism is this?
A) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
B) Capnocytophaga canimorsus
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Borrelia burgdorferi
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Page 41
Chapter 41: Ocular Infections
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Q1) The lacrimal apparatus is composed of all the following EXCEPT:
A) Lacrimal gland
B) Canaliculi
C) Tear sac
D) Optic nerve
Q2) A patient who makes her own saline solution for her contact lenses is examined at her physician's office because she has a blood red,infected right eye.The doctor performs bacterial,fungal,and viral cultures,all of which are negative.What is the most probable cause of this infection?
A) Acanthamoeba spp.
B) Entamoeba spp.
C) Trypanosoma spp.
D) Leishmania spp.
Q3) Which condition is a medical emergency in children?
A) Chronic sinusitis
B) Lacrimitis
C) Preseptal cellulitis
D) Orbital cellulitis
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