Medical Microbiology Exam Preparation
Guide
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology explores the biology, ecology, and pathogenic mechanisms of microorganisms that impact human health, focusing on bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course covers the principles of microbial structure and genetics, host-pathogen interactions, mechanisms of disease causation, epidemiology, diagnosis, and the prevention and treatment of infectious diseases. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques for microorganism identification, antimicrobial therapy, and the development of resistance, equipping students with the knowledge to understand, diagnose, and manage infectious diseases in a clinical context.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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22 Chapters
1953 Verified Questions
1953 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms were classified into kingdoms as they were defined. Which list reflects the order of discovery of the kingdoms as we know them today?
A)Monera,protista,fungi,plants and animals
B)Plants and animals,protista,monera,fungi
C)Fungi,monera,plants and animals,protista
D)Protista,fungi,monera,plants and animals,
E)Monera,plants and animals,protista,fungi
Answer: B
Q2) Which is not true about enzymes?
A)They are found in all cells.
B)They are catalysts.
C)Their shape determines their function.
D)They can be denaturated by heat and other agents.
E)They have high-energy bonds between phosphates.
Answer: E
Q3) A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background?
A)Bright field
B)Dark field
C)Phase contrast
D)Fluorescence
E)Electron
Answer: A
Q2) A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified,and their precise concentrations known and reproducible,would be termed ________.
A)a complex media
B)a reducing media
C)an enriched media
D)a chemically defined media
E)None of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a(an)________.
A)streptobacillus
B)staphylobacillus
C)streptococcus
D)staphylococcus
E)sarcina
Answer: A
Q2) The organism Mycoplasma pneumoniae that causes "walking pneumonia" lacks a cell wall. In which of the following taxonomic divisions is it classified?
A)Tenericutes
B)Mendosicutes
C)Gracilicutes
D)Firmicutes
Answer: A
Q3) The gram-positive cell wall is considered stronger than that of gram-negative cells since its hydrophobic outer membrane contains an endotoxin.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following lines of evidence suggest that mitochondria evolved from the endosymbiosis of a pre-eukaryotic cell with a prokaryote?
A)They contain circular molecules of DNA
B)They contain 70S ribosomes
C)They divide independently from the cell
D)All of these suggest that mitochondria evolved from prokaryotes.
Q3) Which of the following is not classified as a helminth?
A)Tapeworm
B)Fluke
C)Flatworm
D)Roundworm
E)All of the choices are helminths.
Q4) All fungi have hyphae.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Multiplication
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Sample Questions
Q1) A negative-sense RNA virus ________.
A)is ready for immediate translation
B)must synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome
C)must synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome
D)is a special form of tRNA used by viruses
E)always codes for RNA polymerase
Q2) Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect?
A)Inclusions in the nucleus
B)Multinucleated giant cells
C)Inclusions in the cytoplasm
D)Cells change shape
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Viral tissue specificities are called ________.
A)ranges
B)virions
C)receptacles
D)tropisms
E)uncoating
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7
Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a parent cell divides through 8 generations,how many cells will result?
A)8
B)64
C)128
D)256
E)100,000,000
Q2) The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called ________.
A)facilitated diffusion
B)diffusion
C)active transport
D)osmosis
E)endocytosis
Q3) Facilitated diffusion is limited by ________.
A)substrate concentration
B)carrier proteins in the membrane
C)size of the pores in the membrane
D)osmotic pressure
E)the size of the cell
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fatty acids can be converted to acetyl-CoA for entering the Krebs cycle by the process of ________.
A)amination
B)deamination
C)phosphorylation
D)beta oxidation
E)gluconeogenesis
Q2) An example of amphibolism is when ________.
A)pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA to enter the Krebs cycle,and is also used as a precursor for amino acid production
B)acetyl CoA enters the Krebs cycle,and is also used for fatty acid production
C)intermediates of glucose oxidation are further oxidized during glycolysis,and are also harnessed for the production of complex carbohydrates
D)All of the above are examples of amphibolism
Q3) Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration?
A)Involves glycolysis
B)Generates some ATP
C)Utilizes an electron transport system
D)Uses the same final electron acceptor as aerobic respiration
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?
A)It has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon.
B)An anticodon is complementary to a codon.
C)It contains a binding site for an amino acid.
D)The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC.
E)The initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan.
Q2) The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live,competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is ________.
A)transduction
B)conjugation
C)transformation
D)transmission
E)mitosis
Q3) The lactose repressor protein ________.
A)is transcribed with the structural lac genes
B)is activated by binding lactose
C)is inactivated by binding lactose
D)requires lactose for its transcription
E)None of the choices are correct.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is the target of antimicrobial agents except ________.
A)cell walls
B)cell membranes
C)ribosomes
D)cellular proteins
E)cytoplasm
Q2) Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are ________.
A)prions
B)vegetative bacteria and fungi
C)endospores
D)protozoan cysts
E)mycobacteria and staphylococci
Q4) Pasteurization will make milk sterile.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of any chemical in the treatment,relief,or prophylaxis of a disease is called
A)prophylaxis
B)chemotherapy
C)selective toxicity
D)nephrotoxicity
E)synergism
Q2) Which of the following is not a drug group used to treat fungal infections?
A)Quinolones
B)Macrolide polyenes
C)Echinocandins
D)Synthetic azoles
E)Allylamines
Q3) Which therapeutic index value would be the drug of choice?
A)20
B)10
C)1
D)0.1
E)Any value would be equally effective.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is
A)pathology
B)clinical microbiology
C)medicine
D)immunology
E)epidemiology
Q2) Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission?
A)Fomites
B)Water
C)Vectors
D)Aerosols
E)Droplets
Q3) Rabies is an example of this type of infection,which is indigenous to animals but naturally transmissible to humans ________.
A)mixed infection
B)focal infection
C)zoonotic infection
D)latent infection
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement below characterizes the complement system?
A)Complement comprises a team of blood proteins that are activated in a cascade,ultimately leading to pathogen cytolysis,inflammation and enhanced phagocytosis.
B)Complement pyrogens stimulate the hypothalamus to raise the body temperature,increasing metabolism and preventing the growth of temperature-sensitive pathogens.
C)Complement proteins bind to cell surfaces and induce changes in genetic expression,eliminating not only pathogens,but cancer cells also.
D)Complement proteins,produced by a host cell in response to viral attack,are secreted and enter neighboring cells,stimulating the production of antiviral proteins in anticipation of an invasion.
Q2) Hematopoiesis is the ________.
A)loss of blood due to hemorrhaging
B)production of only red blood cells
C)production of white blood cells,red blood cells,and platelets
D)plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding
E)migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?
A)Neutralization
B)Opsonization
C)Complement fixation
D)Agglutination
E)Anamnestic response
Q2) The third line of defense can be summarized in four stages; I-antigen binding to T helper cells,II-antigen binding to B cells,III-phagocytosis of antigen by B and T lymphocytes,IV-killing of antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed ________.
A)epitope
B)hapten
C)antigen binding site
D)variable region
E)None of the choices are correct.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the fetus at risk for upon delivery?
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type IV
Q2) In multiple sclerosis,autoantibodies attack ________.
A)myelin sheath cells of the nervous system
B)acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle
C)acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle
D)sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane
E)cells in thyroid follicles
Q3) Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause ________.
A)recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs
B)fever and anemia
C)systemic shock and kidney failure
D)massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Allergic rhinitis is also known as asthma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The indirect ELISA test is used to diagnose all of the following except ________.
A)strep throat
B)HIV
C)hepatitis A and C
D)Helicobacter
E) Rickettsia
Q2) A protein fingerprint of a patient's blood sample can be created by adding the sample to a metal plate and striking it with a laser.This causes the sample to become ionized and the ions from the sample are guided into a machine that separates them and identifies them according to their mass-to-charge ratio. This process describes
A)MALDI-TOF
B)"lab on a chip"
C)PFGE
D)PCR
E)FISH
Q3) It is necessary to do lab tests to diagnose all diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Measles is described as a ________ skin lesion.
A)purpura
B)bulla
C)papule
D)macule
E)maculopapular
Q2) In the lab,the specimen is Gram-stained and inoculated onto blood agar.Microscopic analysis of the slide reveals gram-positive cocci arranged in grapelike clusters,while the blood agar produces round,creamy colonies with clear areas of hemolysis.Which of the following would be the most likely causative organism?
A)Streptococcus pyogenes
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Human herpesvirus 3
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q3) Measles is also known as ________.
A)rubella
B)shingles
C)rubeola
D)fifth disease
E)varicella
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Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis?
A)Causative organisms are Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba
B)Infections of both the brain and meninges
C)Causative organisms are viruses
D)Modes of transmission are direct contact and swimming in warm fresh water
E)Treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is mostly ineffective
Q2) Some cases of CJD may be caused by a mutation of the PrP gene.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In paralytic polio,what structures are damaged?
A)Peripheral nerves
B)Diaphragm
C)Anterior horn cells
D)Sensory nerves
E)Brain stem
Q4) The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is ________.
A)inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV)developed by Jonas Salk
B)oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV)developed by Jonas Salk
C)inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV)developed by Albert Sabin
D)oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV)developed by Albert Sabin
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic
Systems
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Q1) The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48- to 72- hour episodes in a malaria patient are
A)bloody,mucus-filled stools,fever,diarrhea,and weight loss
B)fever,swollen lymph nodes,and joint pain
C)urinary frequency and pain,and vaginal discharge
D)chills,fever,and sweating
E)sore throat,low-grade fever,and swollen lymph nodes
Q2) The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems have limited or no normal biota.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent ________.
A)tularemia
B)plague
C)endocarditis
D)brucellosis
E)mononucleosis
Q4) Under normal healthy circumstances the lymphatic system filters any microorganisms present.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal biota of the upper respiratory tract include ________.
A)Aspergillis
B)Candida albicans
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Staphylococcus aureus
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Medical professionals actually observe MDR-TB patients take their medicine through a program called DOT.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hantavirus has all of the following characteristics except ________.
A)a reservoir is human carriers
B)it is a zoonotic infection
C)the symptoms are abrupt fever,lung edema,respiratory distress,and hypotension
D)it is transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta
E)the first U.S.outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest
Q4) Legionellosis is a zoonosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called ________.
A)hepatitis
B)jaundice
C)liver cancer
D)mononucleosis
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which is mismatched?
A)Hepatitis A virus - nonenveloped,single-stranded RNA enterovirus
B)Hepatitis B virus - enveloped DNA virus
C)Hepatitis C virus - RNA virus
D)Hepatitis D virus - defective RNA virus that coinfects with HAV
E)Hepatitis E virus - self-limiting RNA virus
Q3) Carriers of hepatitis B virus are not common.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are no infectious agents that can invade intact skin.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the defense mechanisms of the female reproductive tract?
A)Vaginal pH is continually around 5 throughout the lifespan of the female to prevent the growth of pathogenic organisms.
B)After puberty,glycogen is secreted into the vaginal mucus,which is fermented into acid by the normal biota thus lowering the pH.
C)Before puberty and after menopause,vaginal mucus remains around pH 7.
D)The microbiota of the female vaginal tract varies throughout her lifetime in response to vaginal pH; lower pH encourages the growth of organisms that prevent invasion by pathogens that could harm a developing fetus.
Q2) The chancre of syphilis ________.
A)occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries
B)is very painful
C)occurs during the tertiary stage
D)develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated,central crater
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 22: One Health: the Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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Q1) Which of the following has been chemically modified to make it biodegradable?
A)Glass
B)Aluminum foil
C)Styrofoam
D)Laundry detergent
Q2) In the secondary phase of water treatment,organic matter undergoes biodegradation by a diverse mix of bacteria,algae,and protozoa.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The use of "coliform" and "E.coli" when discussing potable water is interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The secondary phase of wastewater treatment is largely ________.
A)physical
B)biological
C)chemical
D)irradiation
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