Medical Microbiology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology explores the study of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that cause diseases in humans. This course covers the fundamental concepts of microbial structure, physiology, genetics, and the mechanisms of pathogenicity. Students will learn about the methods used for detection, identification, and control of pathogens, as well as the principles of sterilization and disinfection. Emphasis is placed on host-pathogen interactions, epidemiology of infectious diseases, clinical manifestations, laboratory diagnosis, antimicrobial therapy, and preventive strategies, preparing students for advanced medical and healthcare studies.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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26 Chapters
1101 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The general term for the ability of an organism to overcome host defenses and cause disease is associated with the _____ of a pathogen.
A)Peptidoglycan
B)Latency
C)Virulence
D)Innate immune response
E)Natural habitat
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following explains the dramatic decrease in death rates attributed to infectious disease during the twentieth century?
A)Advances in public health
B)Chlorination of drinking water
C)Use of antibiotics
D)Effective vaccine programs
E)All of the choices
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Q1) Water surrounds cations and anions and keeps them dissociated in solution by forming
A)Nonpolar covalent bonds
B)Tertiary structure
C)Peptide bonds
D)Active sites
E)Spheres of hydration
Answer: E
Q2) When a molecule only contains sets of 2 shared electrons,it must contain which bonds?
A)Hydrogen
B)Inorganic
C)Ionic
D)Covalent
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Heterotrophs - CO2
B)Chemo heterotrophs - organic compounds
C)Chemoautotrophs - inorganic molecules
D)Photoautotrophs - sunlight and CO2
E)Infectious organisms - organic compounds
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding eukaryotic electron transport is true?
A)Electron transport occurs in the cytoplasm
B)A consequence of electron transport is the formation of a concentration gradient of protons
C)Generates a concentration gradient of electrons
D)NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub> are reduced during electron transport
Answer: B
Q3) In the figure which step would produce a polysaccharide?
Answer: A
Q4) In the figure which step indicates the molecules produced by hydrolysis?
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) Organisms that can cause disease only if they exploit a host's decreased resistance to infection and disease are referred to as
A)Auto-inducers
B)Opportunists
C)Primary pathogens
D)Mutualistic pathogens
E)Quorum sensors
Q2) Which of the following is the first vesicle for molecules taken up by cells?
A)Plasma membrane
B)Endosome
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q3) What is the function of a flagellum?
A)Resistance to antibodies
B)Motility
C)Resistance to antibiotics
D)Resistance of disinfectants
E)Endospore formation
Q4) Describe three types of endocytosis in eukaryotic cells.
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) Identify three types of exotoxin and indicate their effect in the host.Provide two specific examples of each type of exotoxin and the name of the organisms that produce it.
Q2) The portion of the lipopolysaccharide that is toxic to the host is the A) subunit
B)The snare protein
C)Lipid A
D) subunit
Q3) Urinary tract infections are more prevalent in women than in men because
A)Women use tampons
B)Women prefer bathing to showering
C)Of the closer proximity of the anus to the urethra
D)The resident bacteria of women are different from those of men
Q4) An infection in an abrasion affecting only the epidermis of the skin is unlikely to spread systemically to other sites because
A)The micro environment of the epidermis is unfavorable for microbial growth
B)The dermis beneath secretes antimicrobial substances that contain the infection
C)There is availability of blood in this layer of the skin
D)There is no availability of blood in this layer of the skin
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Epidemiological studies that sometimes identify the index case are known as _____ studies.
A)Common-source
B)Retrospective
C)Prospective
D)Analytical
E)Descriptive
Q2) The likelihood that a particular host will succumb to an infectious microorganism depends on many factors.Identify and describe at least five different circumstances that contribute to disease susceptibility in a host.
Q3) Which of the following zoonotic diseases is not transmitted by a tick bite?
A)Bubonic plague
B)Relapsing fever
C)Tularemia
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever
E)Lyme disease
Q4) Explain the difference between descriptive and analytical epidemiological studies.
Q5) Explain how global warming could affect the spread of infectious diseases.
Q6) What are potential sources of nosocomial infections? List at least six.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) Which of the following defines an acute disease?
A)Pathogens use blood or lymph to access all organs
B)Symptoms reappear long after initial infection
C)Symptoms immediately follow a primary infection
D)Rapid symptom development and rapid subsequent improvement
E)Symptoms are between those of acute and chronic disease
Q2) Explain why normally harmless bacteria that comprise our microbial flora have the potential to be pathogenic.Provide examples.
Q3) The presence of bacteria in the blood is referred to as
A)Toxemia
B)Septicemia
C)Primary infection
D)Focal infection
E)Bacteremia
Q4) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Secondary infection: symptoms arise years after an initial infection
B)Septicemia: multiplication of organisms in the blood
C)Acute infection: rapid onset of symptoms
D)Local infection: restricted to small area
E)Focal infection: original location of spreading infection
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) Which of the following epidemics was caused by an H1N1 virus
A)Asian influenza
B)Hong Kong influenza
C)Spanish influenza
D)Swine influenza of 2009
E)Spanish influenza and Swine influenza of 2009
Q2) Which of the following describes the process of reassortment?
A)Synthesis of a nearly perfect copy of a molecule
B)Portions of chromosomes from different pathogens link
C)Single base in genetic material converts to another
D)Two chromosomes from different pathogens form a pair
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)SARS: South America
B)Ebola: Africa
C)HIV: Africa
D)Nipah: Malaysia
E)Avian influenza: China
Q4) What are the three molecular processes that contribute to viral diversity? Describe each process and explain why these mechanisms are of concern.
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates a macrophage?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates a Gram-negative cell portion?
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane?
A)Secretion
B)Protection from osmotic pressure
C)Energy production
D)DNA replication
E)Transport
Q3) Which host cell components provide bacteria with intracellular and intercellular movement within and between host cells?
A)Axial filaments
B)Integral proteins
C)Permease
D)ABC transport systems
E)Cytoskeletal structures
Q4) Which of the following is true of both fimbriae and pili?
A)They are involved with adherence
B)They are the same length
C)Both are needed for bacterial conjugation
D)They are made only by Gram-positive bacteria
E)Their retraction aids in motility
11
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) While ailment is attributed to Helicobacter pylori? Explain how H.pylori is able to withstand conditions found in the stomach.
Q2) You have isolated a bacterium from the hot springs of Rotorua in New Zealand,one of the world's largest geothermal locations.It grows optimally between 45 and 60°C.This is an example of a(n)
A)Extreme thermophile
B)Mesophile
C)Thermophile
D)Psychrophile
E)Psychrotroph
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Answer true or false to the following statement: The lag phase is when bacteria are most sensitive to antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: A GasPak jar is often used to culture Clostridium perfringens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: No errors are made during DNA replication
A)True
B)False
Q2) Uracil is a component of
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Both DNA and RNA
D)Neither DNA or RNA
Q3) DNA polarity is determined by
A)Hydrogen binding
B)Primer:template junctions
C)The ratio of guanine to adenine nucleotides
D)The linkage of one nucleotide to another
Q4) An alteration in the position of genetic elements within a genome is called
A)Transduction
B)Conjugation
C)Transposition
D)Transformation
E)Nucleotide excision
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) Endosomes that assist in the uncoating of non-enveloped viruses function via
A)Hydrolytic enzymes
B)An acidic environment
C)Host proteases
D)Virally encoded lipases
E)Fusion pores
Q2) Explain the difference between helical and icosahedral symmetry.Provide an example of each.
Q3) The _____ is the protein that is located between the capsid and the nucleocapsid of some enveloped viruses.
A)Glycoprotein spike
B)Icosahedron
C)Helix
D)Tegument
E)Nucleic acid-binding protein
Q4) Reverse transcriptase is a(n)
A)RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B)RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
C)DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D)DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Q1) Many viruses are able to be reactivated many years after initial entrance into a host.An example of this is the varicella-zoster virus and shingles.This is an example of a(n)
A)Acute infection
B)Persistent infection
C)Latent infection
D)Slow infection
Q2) The varicella-zoster virus establishes latency in the _____,and if reactivated causes the development of _____.
A)Conjunctiva; seed warts
B)Respiratory tract; pneumonia
C)Central nervous system; Negri bodies
D)Sensory ganglia; shingles
Q3) Active viremia describes
A)Replication of viruses and the initial site of entry
B)Replication of viruses in secondary organs
C)Replication of viruses in the blood
D)Replication of viruses in the next host after viral transmission
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Q1) Which of the following symptoms would indicate infection with Trichinella spiralis?
A)Pain, vaginal discharge, and dysuria
B)A chancre and swollen lymph nodes
C)Tissue cysts in skeletal muscle
D)Nausea, abdominal pain, and diarrhea
E)Fever accompanied by worms vomited up or passed in the stool
Q2) All of the following are examples of deep mycoses except A)Histoplasmosis
B)Coccidiomycosis
C)Pityriasis
D)Aspergillosis
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Trichomoniasis is treated with a 95% success rate with oral metronidazole
B)Trichomonas forms cysts that can survive outside the host
C)Trichomonas is invasive
D)Trichomonas uses cell surface molecules for attachment to host epithelium
E)Trichomoniasis is transmitted through the fecal-oral route
Q4) Describe the lifecycle of Plasmodium falciparum beginning with the ingestion of human blood by the Anopheles mosquito.
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Q1) Which of the following include chemo-attractive factors?
A)Hematopoietins
B)Chemokines
C)Both hematopoietins and chemokines
D)None of the choices
Q2) What is the purpose of the mucociliary escalator? Explain the mechanism by which it functions.
Q3) The interaction between natural killer (NK)cells and macrophages amplifies the innate immune response.Rearrange the following into the order of events during this amplification.Which is the third event?
A)Macrophage production of cytokines TNF and IL-12 increases
B)Increased production of IL-2 by NK cells
C)NK cells produce gamma interferon (IFN-?)
D)Proliferation of NK cells
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: The adaptive immune response is nonspecific and lacks memory.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) The concentration of antibody in the serum generated in response to an infectious pathogen is called the
A)Plasma profile
B)Antigenic load
C)Titer
D)Secretory piece
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Lymphocytes: T, B, and NK cells
B)Dendritic cells: antigen processing and presentation
C)Activated B cells: plasma cells
D)Tolerance: foreign antigens
E)Cytotoxic T cells: kill virally infected cells
Q3) Which is not true of dendritic cells?
A)They contain antigen specific receptors
B)MHC expression is high on dendritic cells in lymphoid tissues
C)MHC expression is low on tissue dendritic cells
D)They are found throughout the body
E)They present antigens
Q4) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of HIV?
A)Enveloped
B)Retrovirus
C)Single-stranded DNA
D)Sexually transmitted
E)Encodes reverse transcriptase
Q2) B-cell immunodeficiencies cause all of the following except
A)Failure to protect mucosal surfaces with neutralizing antibody
B)Increased susceptibility to viral infections
C)Inability to opsonize encapsulated bacteria
D)Loss of toxin neutralization function
E)Severe combined immunodeficiency
Q3) During anaphylactic shock,prompt attention is required,and the injection of _____ provides immediate relief from the life-threatening symptoms presented.
A)Anti-histamine
B)Leukotriene
C)Epinephrine (adrenaline)
D)Prostaglandin
E)Cytokine
Q4) Describe the three phases of HIV infection.
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Identify and describe five factors that affect the death of microbes by antimicrobial agents.
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Aseptic: pathogen-free environment
B)Pasteurization: heat to kill pathogens
C)Bacteriocidal: kills all bacteria
D)Sterilization: destruction of all forms of microbes
E)Antisepsis: inanimate objects
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: The flash method of pasteurization is preferable because it is more effective against Staphylococcus and Streptococcus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Oxidative reagents are very effective against infections of deep tissues,because they release hydroxyl radicals which kill anaerobic organisms.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following is not a drug used for fungal infections?
A)Azoles
B)Foscarnet
C)Pentamidine
D)Amphotericin B
E)Flucytosine
Q2) Which of the following antibiotics is mismatched with its mode of action?
A)Vancomycin: inhibition of cell wall synthesis in Gram-negative bacteria
B)Aminoglycosides: binding to 30S ribosomal subunit and blocking of protein synthesis
C)Isoniazid: inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
D)Polymyxin B: disruption of plasma membrane
E)Polypeptide antibiotics: inhibition of peptidoglycan polymerization
Q3) Why is it advantageous for bacteria such as Streptomyces species to synthesize antibiotics? Explain three ways in which antibiotic-producing microorganisms protect themselves from the effects of these compounds.
Q4) The treatment of malaria has changed since quinine was first used in the 1600s.What has changed and why?
Q5) Discuss selective toxicity as it relates to antimicrobials.
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair in reference to antibiotic compounds composed of peptide fragments and where they are derived from?
A)Drosocin: insects
B)Nisin: Gram-positive bacteria
C)Apidaecin: insects
D)Defensins: Gram-negative bacteria
E)lantibiotics: Gram-positive bacteria
Q2) Resistance to Methicillin developed rapidly because
A)It was overprescribed
B)It was used inappropriately
C)Bacteria can synthesize this compound
D)It was never used in hospital settings
E)It was not destroyed by ?-lactamase
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: The hospital is a place where resistance can develop rapidly because there is a high concentration of bacteria and small amounts of antibiotics are constantly used.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Strep throat: pyrogenic toxin
B)Scarlet fever: pseudomembrane in throat
C)Mycoplasma: walking pneumonia
D)Corynebacterium: "snapping" during cell division
E)Diphtheria: protein synthesis-inhibiting toxin
Q2) Compare the parainfluenza and influenza viruses.Which is a single-stranded RNA virus?
A)Parainfluenza virus
B)Influenza virus
C)Both parainfluenza and influenza viruses
D)Neither parainfluenza and influenza
Q3) Compare the parainfluenza and influenza viruses.Which virus replicates in the cytoplasm?
A)Parainfluenza virus
B)Influenza virus
C)Both parainfluenza and influenza viruses
D)Neither parainfluenza and influenza
Q4) Identify and describe the three stages of a pertussis infection.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) All of the following are characteristic of a rotavirus infection except
A)Mild diarrhea
B)"Blunting" of the colonic mucosa by the virus
C)Dehydration
D)Leukocyte infiltration into microvilli
E)Abrupt onset with vomiting
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Enterohemorrhagic
E. coli are so named because they involve the production of heat-labile toxin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A vaccine is available for which of following hepatitis viruses?
A)Hepatitis B
B)Hepatitis C
C)Hepatitis E
D)Hepatitis G
Q4) Explain how hepatitis B produces a partly double-stranded DNA genome.
Q5) Explain why hepatitis D is referred to as a satellite virus.Describe the conditions under which hepatitis D is replicated.
Q6) Describe the life cycle of a hookworm.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Treponema pallidum causes which of the following infections?
A)Syphilis
B)Genital warts
C)Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
D)Vaginal candidiasis
E)Lymphogranuloma venereum
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic associated with the diagnosis of cystitis?
A)White blood cell casts in urine
B)Detection of high fever
C)Provision of a clean voided midstream urine sample
D)Gram-stain urine specimen
E)Bacteria in urine
Q3) Identify and differentiate between the four types of urinary tract infection (UTI)affecting men.How are UTIs treated?
Q4) Answer true or false to whether the following occurs before the multiplication of reticulate bodies during Chlamydia replication: Elementary bodies are released from the cell.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Identify two ways in which polio virus can gain entry into the central nervous system (CNS).Describe three types of infection that may result from the polio virus.
Q2) The _____ restricts the translocation of material between the blood and the central nervous system.
A)Cerebrospinal fluid
B)Skull bone
C)Arachnoid mater
D)Blood-brain barrier
E)Cerebrum
Q3) Which of the following is a condition observed in severe cases of tetanus in which the body arches with the individual's head and heels moving toward each other?
A)Cranial nerve palsy
B)Muscular paralysis
C)Acute encephalitis
D)Opisthotonos
E)Spongiform encephalopathy
Q4) Describe the three forms of botulism.
Q5) How do the effects on the nervous system differ between botulism and tetanus?
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Yellow fever is a potential threat to the southeastern United States because the vector for this virus has migrated to this area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacteremia is associated with which of the following conditions?
A)Meningitis
B)Skin infections
C)Respiratory tract infections
D)Urinary tract infections
E)All of the choices
Q3) Yellow fever may present with all of the following except
A)Fever
B)Parasitemia
C)Hepatic necrosis
D)Bradycardia
E)Myocardial destruction
Q4) Describe the life cycle of Trypanosoma cruzi.
Q5) Explain the difference between bubonic plague and pneumonic plague.
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Human-to-human transfer of tinea requires close contact because dermatophytes are very infective and have very high virulence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: HPV infection is a lifelong infection even after wart removal because the virus is still associated with the tissue adjacent to where a wart was removed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following identifies skin lesions that are not palpable?
A)Erythema
B)Pustules
C)Macules
D)Vesicles
E)Papules
Q4) Explain the similarities and differences between cold sores and warts.
Q5) Describe five mechanisms by which the skin provides an important first line of defense to the host.
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