Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology
Exam Materials
Medical Microbiology explores the biology of microorganisms that cause disease in humans, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course covers fundamental principles of microbial structure, physiology, and genetics, along with mechanisms of pathogenicity, host immune responses, and methods of diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of infectious diseases. Emphasis is placed on clinically significant pathogens, epidemiology, antimicrobial resistance, infection control, and public health considerations, preparing students for further studies and professional roles in healthcare and biomedical fields.
Recommended Textbook
Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition by Connie R. Mahon
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41 Chapters
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1460 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the medical microbiology laboratory,a gram-negative bacterium's ability to ferment this sugar is the first step in its identification.
A) Sucrose
B) Mannitol
C) Trehalose
D) Lactose
Answer: D
Q2) Prokaryotic cells have which the following structures in their cytoplasm?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) Ribosome
C) Mitochondria
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: B
Q3) When bacteria are growing,they go through a log phase when:
A) They are preparing to divide.
B) Nutrients are becoming limited and the numbers of bacteria remain constant.
C) The number of nonviable bacterial cells exceeds the number of viable cells.
D) The bacteria numbers usually double with each generation time
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Host-Parasite Interaction
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Q1) Diabetics may sometimes be infected with their own resident florae.This type of infection is called:
A) An opportunistic infection
B) A carrier state
C) Symbiosis
D) A parasitic infection
Answer: A
Q2) During the childbearing years,the normal florae of the vagina maintain a low pH,thus encouraging colonization with all the following types of organisms EXCEPT:
A) Lactobacilli
B) Gram-negative rods
C) Anaerobic gram-negative bacilli
D) Gram-positive cocci
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Laboratory Role in Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nosocomial infections are:
A) Acquired in the community
B) Acquired at prisons
C) Acquired at schools
D) Acquired at hospitals
Answer: D
Q2) This is practiced throughout the hospital and mandates safety for all personnel when handling blood and body fluids.
A) Biosafety Level 2
B) Handwashing
C) Wearing of respirators
D) Standard precautions
Answer: D
Q3) The hospital infection control committee will expect reports from the laboratory that deal with all the following EXCEPT:
A) Antibiograms
B) Water contamination rates
C) Blood culture contamination rates
D) Pathogens recovered in certain hospital units
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Control of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) After using the phone,the laboratory tech sprayed the receiver with a chemical spray.This process will kill a defined scope of microorganisms.What is this process called?
A) Sterilization
B) Bacteriostatic
C) Disinfection
D) Bactericidal
Q2) A Biosafety Level 1 (BSL-1)level of containment is used for organisms that:
A) Cause 90% mortality of infected people
B) Are well classified and not known to cause disease in healthy people
C) Cause 90% morbidity of infected people
D) Can be transmitted through aerosols
Q3) When eliminating organisms from inanimate objects,higher numbers of organisms require longer exposure times because:
A) All disinfecting agents are not alike and some require shorter times.
B) The chemical composition of the disinfecting agent varies.
C) Disinfecting agents containing carbon tetrachloride require longer times to act.
D) It takes longer to eliminate 99% of microorganisms.
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Chapter 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preventive maintenance on an instrument includes all the following EXCEPT:
A) Disinfecting the surface of the instrument
B) Oiling and cleaning the instrument
C) Replacing filters
D) Recalibrating instruments
Q2) Confirmation is used after:
A) Careful consideration by the doctor to do the test
B) A test that has a low predictive value
C) A test that has a low specificity
D) Obtaining a positive screening result
Q3) In January 2004,The Joint Commission (TJC)implemented performance measurements for organizational systems that are critical to patient safety,quality of care,treatment,and services.This new initiative is called:
A) Performance improvement
B) Quality control
C) Quality assurance
D) Shared visions-new pathway
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Specimen Collection and Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proper identification of each specimen includes a label firmly attached to the container with all the following information EXCEPT:
A) Diagnosis
B) Name
C) Identification number
D) Date
Q2) A night tech is working in microbiology when a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)specimen comes in.Almost simultaneously,the tech is called to the emergency department to draw blood on seriously injured car accident victims.How would the tech store the CSF until time permits to work on the CSF specimen?
A) Put the specimen in the refrigerator where it is good for 4 hours at 4° C.
B) Leave the specimen on the shelf where it is good for 6 hours at room temperature.
C) Pour the specimen into a tube of broth.
D) Place the specimen in a 35° C incubator for 6 hours.
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Chapter 7: Microscopic Examination of Infected Materials
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Q1) When a laboratory professional examines a specimen smear,he or she should be looking for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Squamous epithelial cells
B) Mucus
C) Bacteria without the cells of inflammation
D) Debris
Q2) Polymicrobial presentations in smears require more interpretation and must take into account all the following EXCEPT:
A) Smear background
B) Morphology of the organisms
C) Anatomic location of the suspected infection
D) Method used to make the smear
Q3) Commonly encountered polymicrobial infections are:
A) Perirectal abscesses
B) Indwelling catheter infections
C) Infant meningitis
D) Food poisoning
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9
Chapter 8: Use of Colonial Morphology for the Presumptive
Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Colonies of Bacillus anthracis are described as:
A) Curschmann's spiral
B) Mickey Mouse ears
C) Medusa's heads
D) Flower like
Q2) This organism is described as shiny,like a half-pearl,on blood-containing media.
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
Q3) A technician is reading stool culture plates.She sees an organism that has a dry,pink colony with a surrounding "halo" of pink on MacConkey (MAC).What is a good presumptive identification of this organism?
A) Enteric pathogen
B) Escherichia/Citrobacter-like organism
C) Klebsiella/Enterobacter-like organism
D) Haemophilus influenzae
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) This system is widely used in microbiology laboratories today.
A) MicroScan
B) Mueller-Hinton
C) Enterotube
D) API 20E
Q2) What test determines whether an organism can utilize sodium citrate as a sole carbon source?
A) Ornithine decarboxylase
B) Citrate
C) Indole
D) Ehrlich's reagent
Q3) This reagent is used to demonstrate a positive phenylalanine deaminase test.
A) 10% ferric chloride
B) Methyl red
C) a-Naphthol
D) 40% sodium hydroxide
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Chapter 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A false-negative test may be caused by all the following immune system-mediated reasons EXCEPT:
A) Allergic reaction
B) No immune response
C) Immunodeficiency disease
D) Immunosuppressive
Q2) What can cause a false-positive IgM serologic test?
A) The presence of IgG antibodies
B) The presence of rheumatoid factors
C) The presence of Rh factor
D) The presence of cytomegalovirus (CMV) antibodies
Q3) Which organism is DFA used to detect,despite the test having a low sensitivity (25% to 75%)?
A) Neisseria
B) Streptococcus
C) Legionella
D) Klebsiella
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12
Chapter 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle of solid support hybridization (often called blotting)is:
A) The target sequence is part of the liquid support, and the probe, which is attached to solid support, hybridizes to the target.
B) All the target nucleic acids are gathered in one spot on the electrophoresis gel. Then all the probes are flooded in the same area and produce a blot of duplexes.
C) The target sequence is part of the solid support, and the probe, which is in solution, hybridizes to the target.
D) The probe is electrophoresed in agar, then transferred to filter paper. The antibody-based probe is then applied to the filter paper, and blots appear where there is binding.
Q2) One drawback to polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is:
A) The process is easily contaminated.
B) The process takes a very long time to make the replications of DNA.
C) The results of the PCR test are very technique dependent, so that different technicians can get different results.
D) Patient care may be compromised if false-positive PCR results are generated.
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Chapter 12: Antibiotic Mechanisms of Action and Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acquired mechanisms of resistance are those that:
A) Are passed on from one bacteria to the next using pili
B) Are the result of a frameshift mutation in chromosomal DNA
C) Result from acquisition of DNA by acquisition of extrachromosomal DNA
D) Passed on from generation to generation.
Q2) Integrons are:
A) Circular structures present in bacteria that contain genes encoding proteins and RNA and have the capacity to self-replicate and portion into daughter cells during cellular division
B) DNA elements that encode transposition and excision function and can transpose from one place on the chromosome to another.
C) Genetic elements capable of integrating resistance genes (cassettes) by an integron-encoded, site-specific recombinase
D) DNA elements found in bacteria that carry genes only for the enzymes needed to promote their own transposition
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14
Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of MIC microdilution trays,a skipped well occurs when:
A) When a well on the tray is skipped with inoculum and it does not grow
B) When the inoculator is turned around and the sterility well is accidentally inoculated and the growth well is accidentally skipped
C) When there is growth at higher concentrations and no growth at one or more of the lower concentration wells
D) None of the above
Q2) Oxacillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is called:
A) Methicillin-resistant S. aureus
B) Oxacillin-resistant S. aureus
C) Penicillin-resistant S. aureus
D) Penicillinase-resistant S. aureus
Q3) Note that for some antimicrobial agents,different minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)interpretive criteria exist for:
A) Organisms or organism groups
B) Anatomical sites
C) Age groups
D) Immune status
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Chapter 14: Staphylococci
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Sample Questions
Q1) This disease is an extensive exfoliative dermatitis caused by staphylococcal exfoliative toxin.
A) Bullous impetigo
B) Folliculitis
C) Ritter's disease
D) Toxic shock syndrome
Q2) All of the following enzymes are produced by staphylococci EXCEPT:
A) Lipase
B) Hyaluronidase
C) Amylase
D) Protease
Q3) A young man goes to his physician complaining of large,raised,suppurative abscesses on his neck.The man denies having a fever or the chills.What is the name of the lesions on his neck,and what organism causes this type of lesions?
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis and boils
B) S. aureus and furuncles
C) S. saprophyticus and carbuncles
D) S. sciuri and folliculitis
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Chapter 15: Streptococcus, enterococcus, and Other
Catalase-Negative Gram-Positive Cocci
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Q1) What test is used as a presumptive identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A) Optochin
B) Bacitracin
C) PYR
D) Hippurate hydrolysis
Q2) What test presumptively differentiates b-hemolytic group A streptococci and nonhemolytic group D enterococci from other streptococcal species?
A) Bacitracin
B) Hippurate hydrolysis
C) PYR
D) Optochin
Q3) What is the name of the test used to presumptively identify group B streptococci?
A) CAMP
B) Lancefield
C) Bacitracin
D) Optochin
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17
Chapter 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the foremen at a pig farm notices purple sores on one of his workers.The worker has not been feeling well for the past two weeks,so the foreman sends him to the doctor.The doctor takes scrapings from the sores and sends them to the laboratory for a culture and sensitivity.The Gram stain shows 3+ thin,gram-positive rods that have filaments.The culture plates were examined the next day and revealed nonhemolytic,pinpoint,transparent colonies.What is the most likely pathogen?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D) Rhodococcus
Q2) What is the name of the Nocardia sp.that causes a chronic confluent bronchopneumonia?
A) Nocardia nova
B) N. brasiliensis
C) N. asteroides
D) N. transvalensis
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Chapter 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What media should be used to isolate Neisseria meningitidis?
A) Differential and nonselective
B) Specific and nonspecific
C) Selective and nonselective
D) Enriched and nonenriched
Q2) A microbiologist receives cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)in the laboratory and does a Gram stain on it.Much to her surprise,she sees intracellular and extracellular gram-negative diplococci.What is the most likely organism?
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) N. meningitidis
C) N. lactamica
D) N. sicca
Q3) A microbiologist is reading CTA sugars from a vaginal culture that grew an oxidase-positive,gram-negative cocci.Only the glucose tube is yellow.What is the organism?
A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) N. sicca
C) N. gonorrhoeae
D) N. lactamica
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) What is the specimen of choice for Bordetella species?
A) Throat cultures
B) Sputum specimens
C) Bronchial aspirations
D) Nasopharyngeal swabs
Q2) What medium will sustain the growth of most Haemophilus spp.?
A) Chocolate agar
B) SBA
C) PEA
D) Thayer-Martin
Q3) A microbiologist is reading a sputum culture and notices that there is no growth on the sheep blood and MacConkey agars,but there is growth on the chocolate plate.The colonies on the plate are translucent,moist,smooth,and convex,with a mousy odor.What is the most likely identification of the organism?
A) Haemophilus parainfluenzae
B) H. influenzae
C) H. aegyptius
D) H. ducreyi
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agars is not selective for Enterobacteriaceae?
A) Buffered charcoal yeast extract
B) MacConkey
C) Hektoen enteric
D) Xylose-lysine deoxycholate
Q2) The primary pathogens of the Enterobacteriaceae include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Salmonella enterica
B) Proteus mirabilis
C) Shigella spp.
D) Yersinia spp.
Q3) What organism in the genus Providencia is incriminated in nosocomial outbreaks in burn units and has been isolated from urine cultures?
A) Providencia stuartii
B) P. heimbachae
C) P. rustigianii
D) P. alcalifaciens
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Chapter
Campylobacter Species
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Q1) Campy-BAP contains:
A) Brucella agar base, 10% sheep red blood cells, vancomycin, trimethoprim, polymyxin B, amphotericin B, and cephalothin
B) Columbia agar base, 5% sheep red blood cells, erythromycin, spectinomycin, Diflucan, and ampicillin
C) Brucella agar base, 5% sheep red blood cells, Zithromax, sulfamethoxazole, nystatin, amphotericin B, and imipenem
D) Columbia agar base, glycerol, L-cysteine, hemin, streptomycin, amphotericin B, and gentamicin
Q2) What do aeromonad colonies look like on cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)agar?
A) Purple colonies
B) Clear colonies
C) Green colonies
D) Pink colonies
Q3) What is the name of the organism that causes the disease cholera?
A) Vibrio furnissii
B) V. cholerae
C) V. vulnificus
D) V. parahaemolyticus
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Q1) What substances do nonfermenters fail to ferment?
A) Lipids
B) Carbohydrates
C) Proteins
D) Alkaloids
Q2) What is unique about the Sphingobacterium spp.?
A) Sphingomyelin in the cell wall
B) Cholesterol in the cell wall
C) Sphingophospholipids in the cell wall
D) Collagen in the cell wall
Q3) Elizabethkingae (Chryseobacterium)meningosepticum causes all the following diseases EXCEPT:
A) Pneumonia
B) Gastroenteritis
C) Endocarditis
D) Meningitis
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Chapter 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance
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Q1) The four major groups of anaerobic gram-negative bacilli include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Bacteroides fragilis
B) Porphyromonas
C) Prevotella
D) Mobiluncus
Q2) Aerotolerant anaerobes include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Clostridium
B) Bacteroides
C) Actinomyces
D) Bifidobacterium
Q3) What disease does Clostridium tetani cause?
A) Botulism
B) Tetanus
C) Food poisoning
D) Myonecrosis
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Spirochetes
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Q1) Early-onset congenital syphilis is characterized by all the following symptoms EXCEPT:
A) Osteochondritis
B) Anemia
C) Hepatosplenomegaly
D) Encephalitis
Q2) Where is the unusual rash seen in secondary syphilis?
A) Chest and back
B) Back and soles
C) Buttocks and palms
D) Palms and soles
Q3) All of the following symptoms are characteristic of Weil's disease EXCEPT:
A) Pneumonia
B) Renal failure
C) Hepatic failure
D) Intravascular disease
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25
Chapter 24: Chlamydia and Rickettsia
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Q1) All of the following are urogenital infections in men,produced by Chlamydia trachomatis,EXCEPT:
A) Epididymitis
B) Orchitis
C) Prostatitis
D) Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)
Q2) Why are antibody detection methods for Chlamydia trachomatis infection severely limited in the knowledge they provide the physician?
A) Because C. trachomatis is an intracellular parasite, the body does not produce antibodies against it.
B) Only IgE antibodies are produced against C. trachomatis.
C) Many people have antibodies from previous infections, and local infections do not cause great increases in antibody levels.
D) All of the above.
Q3) What organisms are considered obligate intracellular parasites?
A) Chlamydia
B) Mycoplasma
C) Ureaplasma
D) Haemophilus
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Which of the following stains is used to enhance the visibility of mycoplasma-like colonies?
A) Gram stain
B) Acridine orange
C) Dienes stain
D) Wright stain
Q2) Mycoplasmas are a different type of bacteria because they do not have a _____.
A) Cell wall
B) Cell membrane
C) Nuclear membrane
D) Messenger transporter
Q3) Cultures for Mycoplasma pneumoniae should be incubated for _____.
A) 2 to 3 days
B) 5 to 7 days
C) 10 to 14 days
D) 21 days or more
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Chapter 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Other
Nontuberculosis Mycobacteria
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Q1) What is the most sensitive and rapid primary isolation liquid media for Mycobacterium spp.?
A) Thioglycollate
B) Cooked meat
C) 5% NaCl broth
D) Middlebrook 7H12
Q2) All of these stains are used to visualize mycobacteria on a smear EXCEPT:
A) Ziehl-Neelsen
B) Kinyoun
C) Auramine
D) Acridine orange
Q3) Decontaminating agents used in the decontamination-digestion process include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Sodium hydroxide
B) N-acetyl-1-cysteine
C) Benzalkonium chloride
D) Hydrochloric acid
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Medically Significant Fungi
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Q1) A patient with very pale patches on his arms and legs is examined at his doctor's office.His doctor orders a fungal culture.The fungus shows a spaghetti-and-meatball appearance on the direct smear.What organism is it?
A) Microsporum canis
B) Malassezia furfur
C) Trichophyton rubrum
D) Epidermophyton floccosum
Q2) What is the causative agent of black piedra?
A) Microsporum canis
B) Trichosporon beigelii
C) Piedraia hortae
D) Sporothrix schenckii
Q3) Chromoblastomycosis is caused by all the following organisms EXCEPT:
A) Fonsecaea compacta
B) Penicillium marneffei
C) Fonsecaea pedrosoi
D) Phialophora verrucosa
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Chapter 29: Clinical Virology
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Q1) What virus causes AIDS?
A) Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
B) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
C) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
D) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Q2) What is the genome of a virus composed of?
A) Single-stranded DNA
B) RNA
C) Double-stranded DNA
D) Any of the above
Q3) What is another name for HHV-4?
A) Varicella-zoster
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Herpes simplex
D) Epstein-Barr
Q4) What type of genome do herpesviruses have?
A) SsDNA
B) RNA
C) DsDNA
D) Both dsDNA and RNA
Page 30
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Chapter 30: Agents of Bioterror
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Q1) Which of these are designated as sentinel hospitals in the Laboratory Response Network (LRN)?
A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B) Reference laboratories
C) State public health laboratories
D) Community hospitals with microbiology laboratories
Q2) What is the role of the sentinel laboratory?
A) To rule out or refer suspicious isolates
B) To identify suspicious isolates
C) To act as a reference laboratory for physician office laboratories
D) None of the above
Q3) What is the specimen of choice for cutaneous anthrax?
A) Blood
B) Spinal fluid
C) Vesicular fluid from lesions
D) Sputum
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Chapter 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease
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Q1) The late colonizers in the dental biofilm include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Capnocytophaga
B) Streptococcus salivarius
C) Selenomonas flueggei
D) Prevotella
Q2) How do microorganisms that live in close proximity exchange DNA?
A) Frame-shift mutations and plasmid uptake
B) Transformation and conjugation
C) Conjugation and frame-shift mutations
D) All of the above
Q3) What is stage II of biofilm development?
A) Irreversible binding phase
B) Multiplication phase
C) Attachment phase
D) Layering phase
Q4) What is a sessile-type biofilm?
A) A biofilm made up of free-floating microorganisms
B) A multiple-species biofilm
C) A biofilm that is attached and made up of multiple species
D) A biofilm that is present in an aquatic environment
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Chapter 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38375
Sample Questions
Q1) What organism causes epiglottis?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Moraxella catarrhalis
D) Bordetella pertussis
Q2) What organism is the most common opportunistic pathogen that routinely infects patients with HIV/AIDS?
A) Pneumocystis carinii
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C) Serratia marcescens
D) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Q3) A patient's normal florae can be altered by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Recent hospitalization
C) Chronic illness
D) Visited a nursing home
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Chapter 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Besides antimicrobial therapy,how are most carbuncles treated?
A) Teabags to draw the poison out
B) Moist heat, then cold compresses
C) Surgical drainage
D) Squeezing to express the pus and necrotic tissues
Q2) What is swimmer's itch?
A) When cercariae larvae penetrate human skin, causing dermatitis
B) When arthropods deposit larvae in human skin, causing dermatitis
C) When food or water causes a dermatitis
D) When Pseudomonas spp. causes a dermatitis
Q3) What is thrush?
A) Tinea unguium
B) Tinea corporis
C) Dermatophytosis
D) Oral candidiasis
Q4) What causes scarlet fever?
A) S. aureus
B) Endotoxin
C) Proteases
D) Erythrogenic toxin
34
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Chapter 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important cause of iatrogenic diarrhea in adults?
A) Yersinia enterocolitica
B) Cryptosporidium jejunum
C) Vibrio vulnificus
D) Clostridium difficile
Q2) All of the following organisms have been implicated in a food-borne outbreak
EXCEPT:
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Salmonella spp.
C) Clostridium botulinum
D) Vibrio cholerae
Q3) What types of stools are characteristic of cholera?
A) Black-blood stools
B) Coffee-ground stools
C) Black tar stools
D) Rice-water stools
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Chapter 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)sample collected from a child yields the following results: turbid and cloudy,very high total protein levels,and very low glucose levels.What would the probable diagnosis be?
A) Bacterial meningitis
B) Aseptic meningitis
C) Encephalitis
D) Brain abscess
Q2) All of the following are important arboviruses EXCEPT:
A) Alphaviruses (Venezuelan equine encephalitis viruses, eastern equine encephalitis, and western equine encephalitis)
B) St. Louis encephalitis virus
C) La Crosse virus
D) Lassa fever virus
Q3) What fungus causes chronic meningitis in HIV patients?
A) Cryptococcus neoformans
B) Coccidioides immitis
C) Candida albicans
D) Histoplasma capsulatum
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36
Chapter 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteremia with this organism may lead to endocarditis,osteomyelitis,septic arthritis,hepatic abscess,or pyomyositis.
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Escherichia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q2) What is the principle of a continuous monitoring blood culture system?
A) The amount of ¹ CO produced is measured as a growth index and compared with a threshold.
B) The amount of increased lipopolysaccharide is measured and compared against the null value.
C) The pH of the media is continuously measured to check for bacterial metabolic by-products.
D) An optical monitor records the number of bacteria and records the growth.
Q3) How long are conventional blood cultures held?
A) 4 days
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 21 days
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Page 37
Chapter 37: Urinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the urinary tract is most susceptible to infection?
A) Urethral mucosa
B) Bladder
C) Ureters
D) Nephrons
Q2) The symptoms of pyelonephritis include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Flank pain
B) Costovertebral angle tenderness
C) Fevers
D) Septicemia
Q3) What additive can maintain urine sample integrity for up to 48 hours at room temperature?
A) Sodium citrate
B) Calcium citrate
C) Sodium borate
D) Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid (EDTA)
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Chapter 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the infective particle of Chlamydia?
A) Elementary body
B) Initial body
C) Negri body
D) Entire Chlamydia organism
Q2) Although Neisseria gonorrhea usually grows in the cervix and male urethra,all the following sites can support growth EXCEPT:
A) Mouth
B) Ears
C) Eyes
D) Anus
Q3) What is an advantage to using PACE 2 for detection of Neisseria gonorrhea?
A) There is no advantage.
B) You can also find syphilis.
C) You can also find Cryptosporidium.
D) You can also find Chlamydia.
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Chapter 39: Infections in Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what disease do we see a decrease in the number of neutrophils,inadequate neutrophil function,including the inability to migrate to sites of inflammation,impaired phagocytosis,and reduced killing of ingested organisms that lead to a predisposition to infection?
A) Anemia
B) Hypogammaglobulinemia
C) Hodgkin's disease
D) Hypergammaglobulinemia
Q2) What is the granulocyte count below which the risk of infection increases steadily?
A) 5000 cells/mm3
B) 1000 cells/mm3
C) 500 cells/mm3
D) 200 cells/mm3
Q3) What immune mechanism is decreased in patients with malignancy?
A) Cell-mediated immune response
B) Antibody production
C) Nonspecific response
D) Mucous membranes
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Chapter 40: Zoonotic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you are bitten by a dog,what organism is most likely to cause an infection at the site of the bite?
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Bacillus anthracis
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Pasteurella multocida
Q2) What is the classic symptom of the bubonic plague?
A) Painful buboes
B) Febrile illness
C) Rash on the trunk and limbs
D) Septic shock
Q3) Zoonotic infections that jump from animal to human,then cannot be transmitted directly to other humans,include all the following EXCEPT:
A) West Nile virus
B) Rabies
C) Influenza
D) Bubonic plague
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Chapter 41: Ocular Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microorganisms can gain entry into orbital tissue in all the following ways EXCEPT:
A) Surgery
B) Eyelid infections
C) Dental caries
D) Carrying organisms in the nasopharynx
Q2) A patient who makes her own saline solution for her contact lenses is examined at her physician's office because she has a blood red,infected right eye.The doctor performs bacterial,fungal,and viral cultures,all of which are negative.What is the most probable cause of this infection?
A) Acanthamoeba spp.
B) Entamoeba spp.
C) Trypanosoma spp.
D) Leishmania spp.
Q3) Because the ocular structures occupy only about one fifth of the orbital cavity,what fills it up?
A) Muscle and skin
B) Fat and skin
C) Fat and muscle
D) Nerves and muscles
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