Medical Microbiology Exam Bank - 2610 Verified Questions
Medical Microbiology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology explores the role of microorganisms in human disease, covering the biology of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that cause infections. The course examines mechanisms of microbial pathogenesis, host immune responses, epidemiology of infectious diseases, and methods used for diagnosis, prevention, and treatment. Emphasis is placed on clinical relevance, antimicrobial resistance, and current challenges in infectious disease management, preparing students for further study or careers in healthcare, research, and public health.
Recommended Textbook Nesters Microbiology A Human Perspective 9th Edition by Denise G. Anderson
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2610 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Humans and the Microbial World
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78 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses may only be grown
A) in sterile growth media.
B) in living cells.
C) at body temperature.
D) in darkness.
E) in liquid broths.
Answer: B
Q2) The work of Tyndall and Cohn
A) supported the idea of spontaneous generation rather than the idea of biogenesis.
B) explained why some spontaneous generation investigators got different results from those of Pasteur.
C) showed that all microbes caused disease if they enter the human body.
D) allowed scientists to see microorganisms using a simple microscope.
E) showed that boiling fails to kill vegetative bacteria.
Answer: B
Q3) Viruses, viroids, and prions are obligate intracellular agents.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The uncharged component of the atom is the A) electron.
B) proton.
C) neutron.
D) proline.
E) neulon.
Answer: C
Q2) Which shows the incorrect complementary base pairing?
A) A:T
B) G:C
C) G:T
D) A:U
E) A:T, G:C, AND A:U
Answer: C
Q3) RNA is a long double-stranded helix containing ribose and uracil.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Penicillin affects the synthesis of phospholipids, thereby producing weak membranes and lysis of the bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Endospores are involved in bacterial reproduction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) When Petrus' grandmother's test results are sent to you, you discover that while her blood work is normal, her urine has Gram-negative bacilli in it. Based on this, you know that the cells are
A) stained blue and are cylindrical in shape.
B) stained purple and are cylindrical in shape.
C) stained pink and are spherical in shape.
D) stained pink and are cylindrical in shape.
E) stained green and are oval in shape.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Dynamics of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clostridium paradoxum grows optimally at 55°C, pH 9.3; it will not grow in the presence of O . Please select the True statement about this organism.
A) It is spherical in shape.
B) It is a psychrophile.
C) It is an obligate anaerobe.
D) It is an acidophile.
E) It is an aerotolerant anaerobe.
Q2) Which of the following is (are) obligate aerobes?
A) Clostridium botulinum
B) Escherichia coli
C) Micrococcus luteus
D) Helicobacter pylori
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) Agar replaced gelatin as the gelling (solidifying) agent for media because
A) agar provides nutrients for rapid bacterial growth.
B) fewer bacteria can break down agar compared with gelatin.
C) agar is solid at temperatures as high as 90°C.
D) agar provides a pH range from 4-11.
E) agar is much easier to obtain than gelatin.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally, membrane filters are not used to remove
A) bacteria from liquids.
B) enzymes from liquids.
C) microorganisms from gases.
D) spoilage agents from alcoholic beverages.
E) bacteria from nutrient broths.
Q2) A sterile item is free of
A) microbes, viruses, AND prions.
B) microbes, endospores, AND viruses.
C) endospores, viruses, AND prions.
D) microbes, endospores, AND prions.
E) prions only.
Q3) Upon treatment with heat or chemicals, bacteria will
A) all die immediately.
B) die at a constant proportion.
C) die at an exponential rate.
D) die at a geometric rate.
E) always become resistant.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycolysis
A) requires oxygen.
B) may occur under aerobic or anaerobic conditions.
C) produces 3 ATP molecules per molecule glucose.
D) produces 4 molecules of NAD per molecule glucose.
E) always occurs under aerobic conditions.
Q2) Why would a cell ferment rather than respire?
A) There's no oxygen present, and it cannot respire anaerobically.
B) It lacks the ability to respire (i.e. no electron transport chain).
C) There is no oxygen present and it cannot use anaerobic respiration OR it lacks the ability to respire (i.e., no electron transport chain).
D) More ATP is produced for the cell by fermentation than by aerobic respiration.
E) There is too much oxygen available and fermentation is a safer alternative.
Q3) H S and NH may be used by some prokaryotes as energy sources.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Calvin cycle produces six ATP for every six turns of the cycle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Blueprint of Life, from DNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The report that genes direct the synthesis of proteins was first made by
A) Lederberg.
B) Watson and Crick.
C) Beadle and Tatum.
D) Mendel.
E) Curie.
Q2) The lagging strand
A) is another name for any single-stranded DNA found in slowly dividing cells.
B) is formed during RNA replication because of the nature of the enzymes involved in it.
C) is formed during DNA replication because of the antiparallel nature of DNA.
D) is always the bottom strand of DNA or RNA during the replication process.
E) is always the upper strand of DNA or RNA during the replication process.
Q3) What is the number of tRNA molecules that may be associated with translation?
A) 20
B) Fewer than 20
C) 64
D) Fewer than 64
E) 2
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9
Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Ames test determines antibiotic sensitivity of a bacterium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Strong chemical mutagens may be used to treat cancer cells. Is this a good or bad idea?
A) Good-kill those cancer cells as quickly as possible to cure the patient!
B) Bad-these mutagens will also affect the non-cancerous cells, possibly leading to new cancerous states!
C) Good and bad-they're very good at killing cancer cells, but they could also be dangerous to non-cancerous cells.
D) Bad-the cancer cells are already mutated. We don't want to mutate them more and make them more cancerous!
E) Bad-the medications are toxic and will cause healthy normal microbiots to become cancerous.
Q3) F plasmids and oftentimes R plasmids are both able to code for production of a pilus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA molecules that contain pieces of DNA from two different sources are defined as A) biotechnology.
B) gene cloning.
C) recombinant DNA.
D) genetic engineering.
E) mutation.
Q2) Which of the following about DNA microarray technology is NOT True?
A) It may use many DNA fragments that function like probes.
B) It involves attaching nucleotides to a solid support such as a glass slide.
C) It relies on visual detection of the labeled probes after hybridization.
D) It uses nucleic acid hybridization.
E) It involves the use of fluorescently labeled singe-stranded cDNA.
Q3) The Ti plasmid is used as a vector to transfer DNA into A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) plant cells.
D) animal cells.
E) protozoa.
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Chapter 10: Identifying and Classifying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The name Lactococcus (Streptococcus) lactis
A) indicates that Streptococcus is the old genus name.
B) indicates that the subgenus is Streptococcus.
C) indicates that the family is Lactococcus.
D) indicates that Lactococcus is the old class name.
E) indicates that Lactis is the strain.
Q2) If the GC content of two organisms is 45% in both,
A) they are definitely related.
B) they are definitely not related.
C) they may or may not be related.
D) the AT content is 65%.
E) they are definitely related AND the AT content is 65%.
Q3) In 1970 Stanier proposed that classification be based on A) evolution.
B) Gram stain.
C) physiology.
D) DNA sequence.
E) flagella.
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Chapter 11: The Diversity of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Streptomyces
A) resemble fungi in their pattern of growth AND produce a number of antibiotics.
B) resemble fungi in their pattern of growth AND produce a characteristic blue-green pigment.
C) produce a number of antibiotics AND form endospores.
D) produce a characteristic blue-green pigment AND form endospores.
E) form endospores AND resemble fungi in their pattern of growth.
Q2) A particular characteristic of disease-causing Streptococcus is
A) catalase production.
B) beta-hemolysis.
C) lactic acid production.
D) growth at refrigerator temperatures.
E) endospore formation.
Q3) Which of the following is/are obligate intracellular parasites?
A) Chlamydia and Rickettsia
B) E. coli and Pseudomonas
C) Mycoplasma and E. coli
D) Treponema and Chlamydia
E) Rickettsia, Chlamydia and Pseudomonas
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungi are important in A) food production.
B) food spoilage.
C) production of antibiotics.
D) disease of plants.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Fungi are particularly good at infecting A) protozoans.
B) plants.
C) algae.
D) animals.
E) fish.
Q3) Protozoans are an important part of the food chain, ingesting large numbers of A) fish and crabs.
B) bacteria and algae.
C) shellfish and algae.
D) other protozoans.
E) bacteria and fungi.
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Chapter 13: Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following processes are enzymes not required?
A) Replication
B) Self-assembly
C) Translation
D) Maturation
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) Which statement about most phages that contain single-stranded DNA is NOT True?
A) They are extruded from the host cell.
B) They contain a negative-sense DNA strand.
C) Their DNA is transformed to dsDNA before replication and transcription occur.
D) All of the choices are correct.
E) None of the choices is correct.
Q3) What are two ways that phage can replicate without directly lysing their host cell?
A) Conjugation and lysogeny
B) Lysogeny and transduction
C) Extrusion and transformation
D) Extrusion and lysogeny
E) Extrusion and lysis
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Chapter 14: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) You tell your patient that when he got his tattoo, his first line of defense of his innate immunity was breached because his skin was damaged by the process. He asks you to explain what is included in the first line of defense and you tell him
A) skin
B) mucous membranes.
C) skin and mucous membranes.
D) white blood cells.
E) skin, mucous membranes, and lymphocytes.
Q2) Interleukins are
A) produced by leukocytes.
B) important in both innate and adaptive immunity.
C) involved in directly killing tumor cells.
D) protein molecules.
E) produced by leukocytes AND protein molecules.
Q3) Pattern recognition is involved in innate immunity.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibody molecules are very rigid in structure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The surface receptors on B and T cells both
A) play the same role in each type of cell.
B) bind to free antigen.
C) have two binding sites for antigen.
D) have variable and constant regions.
E) play the same role in each type of cell AND bind to free antigen.
Q3) You inform your patient that the human body has several mechanisms of defense: innate immunity, which is routine protection present at birth, and adaptive immunity, which is a more specific response that develops after birth. You tell your patient that her adaptive immune response uses two basic strategies for eliminating foreign material: humoral immunity, which involves ________ and cell-mediated immunity, which involves ________.
A) T lymphocytes; B lymphocytes
B) B lymphocytes; T lymphocytes
C) T lymphocytes; NK cells
D) B cells; neutrophils
E) neutrophils; macrophages
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Chapter 16: Host-Microbe Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease-causing microorganism or virus is referred to as a(n)
A) avirulent infection.
B) colony.
C) commensal.
D) pathogen.
E) virulent.
Q2) The series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as
A) Pasteur's postulates.
B) Lister's aseptics.
C) Linnaeus' taxonomics.
D) Koch's postulates.
E) Bergey's manual
Q3) An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be
A) preventing encounters with phagocytes.
B) avoid the killing effects of complement system proteins.
C) changing the pilus type.
D) surviving within a phagocyte.
E) protease production.
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18
Chapter 17: Immunological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What might be an advantage to using an individual's own stem cells instead of pancreatic cell allografts to treat type I diabetes?
A) Stem cells can disable the immune responses that led to the diabetes state in the first place.
B) This process should be far cheaper than the surgical intervention needed for the allograft.
C) You can't do this-stem cell research it is still theoretical, not approved by the FDA, and is currently illegal in the United States. As such, there is no advantage.
D) If you were able to use a person's own cells, it would be considered an autograft rather than an allograft. As such, there should be no HLA/MHC matching required, and no long-term anti-rejection drugs would be needed.
E) This process should be far cheaper than the surgical intervention needed for the allograft AND stem cells can disable the immune responses that led to the diabetes state in the first place.
Q2) A lack of T cells makes one more vulnerable to intracellular parasites.
A)True
B)False
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Applications of Immune Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inactivated vaccines typically require booster shots.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The practice of deliberately stimulating the immune system is called
A) acquired immunity.
B) vaccination.
C) hypersensitivity.
D) memory immunity.
E) autoimmunity.
Q3) Substances that are contained in vaccines to help induce a better immune response are called
A) primary substances.
B) secondary substances.
C) adjuncts.
D) secondary adjuncts.
E) adjuvants.
Q4) Attenuated agents often give rise to a long-lasting immunity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The guidelines designed for prevention of nosocomial disease during care of all patients is called
A) Standard Precautions.
B) Universal Disposables.
C) Disinfection Manifesto.
D) Asepsis Preference.
E) Hand Hygiene Precautions.
Q2) Select the sequence that indicates the steps that occur in the chain of infection.
1) Transmission.
2) Susceptible host.
3) Reservoir of infectious agent.
4) Portal of exit.
5) Portal of entry.
A) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
B) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
E) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses are very effectively treated with antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Please select the False statement regarding tissue distribution, metabolism, and excretion of medications.
A) Patients who have liver dysfunction often metabolize medications more slowly, so their doses must be adjusted to avoid toxic levels.
B) The half-life of a medication is the time it takes for the serum concentration of that chemical to decrease by 100%.
C) Medications that are unstable at low pH are typically given by intravenous or intramuscular injection.
D) A medication with a half-life of over 24 hours is taken only once a day or less.
E) A medication that has a very short half-life usually needs to be taken several times a day.
Q3) The key characteristic of a useful antimicrobial is selective toxicity.
A)True
B)False
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22
Chapter 21: Respiratory System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why did it take so long to understand that L. pneumophila is the cause of a respiratory tract infection?
A) It stains poorly and is difficult to detect.
B) It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture.
C) It is extremely rare in nature and is seldom present in a population.
D) It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture AND it stains poorly and is difficult to detect.
E) It is extremely small and can only be detected using electron microscopy AND it is extremely rare in nature and is seldom present in a population.
Q2) The eyes are protected from infection by
A) the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the use of contact lenses.
B) the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme.
C) the chemical action of lysozyme AND the use of contact lenses.
D) the use of contact lenses AND the dryness of the eye surface.
E) the dryness of the eye surface AND the chemical action of lysozyme.
Q3) Streptococci are grouped by their cell wall carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
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23
Chapter 22: Skin Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vector for RMSF is a(n)
A) mosquito.
B) flea.
C) tick.
D) fly.
E) deer.
Q2) Rubella is a member of which virus family?
A) Paramyxoviridae
B) Herpesviridae
C) Togaviridae
D) Papovaviridae
E) Retroviridae
Q3) A protein associated with a more virulent form of Staphylococcus is
A) leukocidin.
B) coagulase.
C) mannose.
D) streptokinase.
E) catalase.
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Chapter 23: Wound Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early work with Clostridium tetani and Corynebacterium diphtheriae demonstrated
A) the importance of thoroughly cooking food.
B) the potential threat from spore-forming bacteria.
C) the usefulness of anti-viral medications.
D) that disease can be caused by bacterial toxins.
E) that all bacteria form spores.
Q2) A wound created by the drag of a knife across skin can be classified as a(n) A) incision.
B) puncture.
C) laceration.
D) contusion.
E) abrasion.
Q3) A localized collection of pus in a wound is termed a(n) A) leukocyte.
B) dead tissue.
C) granulation mound.
D) abscess.
E) scab.
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25
Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sucrose is one of the major contributors to the development of dental caries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most common chronic blood-borne infection in the U.S. is
A) hepatitis D.
B) hepatitis C.
C) hepatitis B.
D) hepatitis A.
E) none of these.
Q3) Which of the following type of hepatitis is/are associated with liver cancer or cirrhosis?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis B AND hepatitis C
E) Hepatitis A AND hepatitis B
Q4) Helicobacter pylori appears connected to stomach cancer and ulcers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Blood and Lymphatic Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enlargement of lymph nodes or spleen is often associated with A) tularemia AND plague.
B) brucellosis AND tularemia.
C) plague.
D) gastritis AND plague.
E) tularemia, brucellosis, AND plague.
Q2) You find out that the seriously ill patient has an underlying condition. Which of the following likely predisposed her to the more severe infection?
A) Cirrhosis
B) Asthma
C) Glomerulonephritis
D) Osteoporosis
E) Cystitis
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a zoonosis?
A) Brucellosis
B) Infectious mononucleosis
C) Lyme disease
D) Tularemia
E) Plague
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Nervous System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about viral meningitis is True?
A) There are effective vaccines to protect against viral meningitis.
B) Paralysis is a common sign of viral meningitis.
C) The causative agents do not survive well in the environment.
D) Transmission of the causative agent is by the fecal-oral route.
E) Recovery is seldom complete-permanent disabilities usually occur.
Q2) The transmission of M. leprae is by
A) direct human-to-human contact AND the fecal-oral route.
B) the fecal-oral route AND contact with contaminated blood products.
C) contact with contaminated blood products.
D) contact with infected nasal secretions AND the fecal-oral route.
E) direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions.
Q3) The meningococcus attaches to the mucous membrane via ________.
A) flagella
B) pili
C) cilia
D) a capsule
E) axial filaments
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Chapter 27: Genitourinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are
A) sexual promiscuity AND intense antibacterial treatment.
B) intense antibacterial treatment AND disruption of normal microbiota.
C) disruption of normal microbiota AND advanced age.
D) the use of oral contraceptives, advanced age, AND disruption of normal microbiota.
E) intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal microbiota, AND the use of oral contraceptives.
Q2) Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of
A) bacterial vaginosis.
B) puerperal fever.
C) toxic shock syndrome.
D) gas gangrene.
E) bacterial vaginosis AND puerperal fever.
Q3) HIV may be present in
A) blood, semen, AND tears.
B) semen, vaginal secretions, AND tears.
C) tears, sweat, AND colostrum.
D) vaginal secretions, colostrum, AND sweat.
E) blood, semen, AND vaginal secretions.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Microbial Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement describes the relationship between ammonia oxidizers and nitrite oxidizers?
A) Ammonium oxidizers use ammonium as an energy source, oxidizing it to nitrite. The nitrite produced then serves as the energy source for nitrite oxidizers.
B) Ammonium oxidizers use ammonium as an energy source, oxidizing it to nitrate. The nitrate produced then serves as the energy source for nitrite oxidizers.
C) Ammonium oxidizers use urea as an energy source, oxidizing it to nitrite. The nitrite produced then serves as the carbon source for nitrite oxidizers.
D) Ammonium oxidizers use ammonium as an energy source, reducing it to nitrate. The nitrate produced then serves as the energy source for nitrite oxidizers.
E) None of these explains the relationship-ammonia and nitrite are produced by different nutrient cycles which also involve sulfur reduction.
Q2) Protozoa, algae, and fungus are typically found near the surface of soil.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 29: Environmental Microbiology: Treatment of Water, Wastes, and Polluted Habitats
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Sample Questions
Q1) The oxygen consuming property of a wastewater sample is designated by the term A) lagooning.
B) stabilization.
C) biological nitrogen demand.
D) biochemical oxygen demand.
E) lagooning ANF stabilization.
Q2) The activated sludge method can be stopped by the presence of toxic industrial wastes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Effective treatment of wastewater/sewage is reflected in a(n)
A) lower BOD.
B) higher BOD.
C) unchanging BOD.
D) increase in sulfur.
E) decrease in biomass.
Q4) The conversion of organic to inorganic matter is called co-metabolism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Food Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a cow's udder, milk
A) is sterile.
B) contains Lactococcus.
C) contains Lactobacillus.
D) is acidic.
E) contains Streptococcus.
Q2) The water activity in foods that have high levels of salt or sugar is A) low.
B) high.
C) dense.
D) osmotic.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) Slow cooking for a long time and then storage at room temperature would tend to favor the growth of
A) endospore-formers AND thermophiles.
B) endospore-formers AND mesophiles.
C) anaerobes AND endospore-formers.
D) mesophiles AND thermophiles.
E) thermophiles AND anaerobes.
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