Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology
Exam Answer Key
Medical Microbiology explores the complex world of microorganisms responsible for human disease, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course covers the identification, classification, and physiological characteristics of clinically significant microbes, and examines their mechanisms of pathogenicity, patterns of transmission, and interactions with the human immune system. Students will also study diagnostic laboratory techniques, principles of antimicrobial therapy, and strategies for infection prevention and control, equipping them with foundational knowledge essential for healthcare and biomedical research.
Recommended Textbook
Brock Biology of Microorganisms 15th Edition by Michael T. Madigan
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33 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbial biochemistry most specifically involves the discovery of microbial ________ and the ________ they perform.
A) organelles / diffusion
B) enzymes / organelles
C) reactions / enzymes
D) biomolecules / functions
Answer: D
Q2) Microbial ecology is the study of
A) microbial processes in the rhizosphere that benefit plant growth.
B) the diversity and activities of microorganisms.
C) the grouping and classifying of microorganisms.
D) microorganisms in their natural environments.
Answer: D
Q3) The structure that confers structural strength on the cell is known as the A) cytoplasmic membrane.
B) cell wall.
C) ribosome.
D) cytoplasm.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Microbial Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Predict what would happen to a motile bacterium undergoing chemotaxis if the Mot proteins suddenly ceased to function.
Answer: The function of Mot proteins should be described producing the rotation of the flagella.
This would probably allow flagella to form, but they would not be able to rotate. The bacterium would not be able to move, but the flagella would still look normal.
Q2) Compared to Eukaryotes, Bacteria and Archaea have ________ surface-to-volume ratios, causing ________ nutrient exchange.
A) lower / lower
B) lower / higher
C) higher / lower
D) higher / higher
Answer: D
Q3) In general, lipids in archaeal cytoplasmic membranes lack true fatty acids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
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Chapter 3: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells require iron supplemented in their growth medium as a trace metal, because it is consumed by quinones during electron transport for ATP production.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
Q2) The portion of an enzyme to which substrates bind is referred to as the A) substrate complex.
B) active site.
C) catalytic site.
D) junction of van der Waals forces.
Answer: B
Q3) For a carbon source, chemoorganotrophs generally use compounds such as A) acetate, succinate, and glucose.
B) bicarbonate and carbon dioxide.
C) nitrate and nitrite.
D) acetate, bicarbonate, and nitrate.
Answer: A
Q4) Explain the differences between symporters, and antiporters.
Answer: Answers should highlight differences in transport direction and energy input.
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Chapter 4: Molecular Information Flow and Protein Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) You isolate a piece of DNA from a microorganism you cultivated from your teeth. The piece of DNA is 94 kbp in size and is circular. You sequence it and discover that it contains genes for capsule formation, pili, and antibiotic resistance, as well as an origin of replication. What is this piece of DNA and how is it related to the other genetic elements found in prokaryotic cells?
Q2) The codon on the ________ matches with the anticodon on the ________ to direct the addition of the correct amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain.
A) mRNA / tRNA
B) tRNA / mRNA
C) DNA / mRNA
D) tRNA / rRNA
Q3) In the process of transcription, promoters are specific sequences of ________ that are recognized by ________.
A) DNA / DNA polymerase
B) RNA / DNA polymerase
C) DNA / sigma factors
D) RNA / ribosomes
Q4) Explain the role of sigma factors in RNA synthesis in Bacteria.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Its Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) An agar plate for counting colonies and maximizing statistical validity should ideally contain
A) 1 to 100 colonies.
B) 50 to 100 colonies.
C) 30 to 300 colonies.
D) 100 to 1000 colonies.
Q2) Knowledge of microbial growth patterns is useful in working with the control of microbial growth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is 100% ethanol less effective as an antimicrobial compared to a 70-95% concentration of ethanol?
Q4) The rate of exponential growth varies greatly according to bacterial species and bioavailable nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The death phase applies to individual cells rather than populations.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Would you expect a xerophilic organism to be halotolerant? Why or why not?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Microbial Regulatory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A regulon is composed of at least two operons regulated by the same protein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A common structure for proteins that bind DNA is helix-turn-helix.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of regulator(s) specifically binds to operator regions of DNA?
A) activators
B) activators and inducers
C) repressors
D) repressors and corepressors
Q4) Two common levels of regulation of protein activity are transcriptional control and posttranslational control. Discuss the differences between the two in terms of speed of response and energy efficiency.
Q5) The stringent response is a mechanism used by bacteria that provides increased ability to survive in environments lacking nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How is transcription in Archaea controlled?
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Chapter 7: Molecular Biology of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike penicillin, methicillin targets an alternative penicillin binding protein called MecA in nonresistant Staphylococcus aureus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare the process of new peptidoglycan formation in cocci versus rod-shaped cells.
Q3) A researcher unexpectedly identified mutant bacteria deficient in the FtsZ protein. Their growth appeared filamentous, and displayed incomplete cell division. Explain the role of the FtsZ protein and how a deficiency would account for this altered growth.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a function of DnaA in Caulobacter?
A) initiation of DNA replication
B) initiation of swarming
C) transcriptional regulation
D) All of these answer choices are functions of DnaA.
Q5) Penicillins work by
A) activating autolytic enzymes.
B) blocking the transpeptidation reaction that forms peptidoglycan cross-links.
C) stimulating autolysins to form holes in the plasma membrane.
D) All of these answer choices are true.
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Chapter 8: Viruses and Their Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The packaging mechanism of T4 DNA involves cutting of DNA from A) linear genetic elements.
B) circular genetic elements.
C) DNA concatemers.
D) its host cells.
Q2) The growth of viruses in a culture is described as a one-step growth curve, because A) virion numbers show no increase during intracellular replication and can only be counted after the virions burst from the host cell.
B) there is only one step in the viral life cycle which leads to only one replicative cycle in a culture.
C) assembly and release actually occur in one step.
D) the eclipse phase prevents the plating and enumeration of virions although new virions are produced at a steady rate during the eclipse phase.
Q3) The genome of retroviruses contains genes to make all of the following EXCEPT A) structural proteins. B) repressor proteins. C) integrase.
D) proteases.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Systems Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interpret the genomic content of mitochondria in relation to their evolution. How is mitochondrial evolution more complicated than expected?
Q2) Few genes in all organisms have common evolutionary roots. A)True
B)False
Q3) Linking an ORF with a specific function is an example of gene A) annotation.
B) assembly.
C) codon bias.
D) expression.
Q4) The science that applies powerful computational tools to DNA and protein sequences for the purpose of analyzing, storing, and accessing the sequences for comparative purposes is known as A) metagenomics.
B) proteomics.
C) bioinformatics.
D) genomics.
Q5) Explain how codon bias and GC content can be used to detect horizontal gene transfer within a genome.
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Chapter 10: Viral Genomics, Diversity, and Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Due to the genetic diversity of viruses and their lack of ribosomal RNA, nucleotide-based phylogeny studies are not applicable to virology.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Proteins made by a ribosome reading through the stop codon of a transcript without their own discrete ribosome binding sites
A) are thought to be a primitive mechanism to avoid host defenses.
B) appear most abundant in archaeal viruses and relatively uncommon in bacteriophages.
C) suggest a relatively low level of protein product is essential for the virus due to the rare frequency of these events.
D) create opportunities for viruses to make different capsid proteins.
Q3) Reoviruses contain ________ genomes, and their replication occurs within the host s ________.
A) ssDNA / nucleus
B) dsDNA / nucleus
C) ssRNA / cytoplasm
D) dsRNA / cytoplasm
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Chapter 11: Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical mutagens, UV radiation, and ionizing radiation all increase mutation rates, but they have different mechanisms. Which type of mutagen would be best suited for creating large deletions and rearrangements within a genome?
A) chemical mutagens
B) UV radiation
C) ionizing radiation
D) Chemical, UV, and ionizing radiation would create large deletions and rearrangements if used in a very high dose.
Q2) Transposition is a(n)
A) homologous recombination event.
B) analogous recombination event.
C) site-specific recombination event.
D) general recombination event.
Q3) High-efficiency, natural transformation
A) is common in Bacteria and Archaea.
B) requires specialized DNA uptake, DNA binding, and integration proteins.
C) is only common in Archaea.
D) usually involves plasmids.
Q4) Compare and contrast generalized transduction with specialized transduction.
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Chapter 12: Biotechnology and Synthetic Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is TRUE?
A) YACs are more likely than BACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement.
B) BACs are more likely than YACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement.
C) YACs and BACs undergo recombination and rearrangement at about the same rate.
D) It is impossible to state with any certainty whether YACs or BACs are more likely to undergo recombination and rearrangement, because environmental factors play a major role in the probability of one or the other occurring.
Q2) An operon fusion has a transcriptional signal from one gene fused with the translational start and coding sequence from another.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe a method developed by molecular biologists to easily observe the success of a genetic engineering procedure involving the ligating of a gene of interest into a plasmid.
Q4) Developing vaccines for humans relies heavily on manipulating and engineering vectors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the three main steps to clone a gene into an organism.
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Chapter 13: Microbial Evolution and Systematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molecular sequencing suggests that mitochondria arose from a group of prokaryotic organisms within the
A) Crenarchaeota.
B) cyanobacteria.
C) iron-oxidizing bacteria.
D) Alphaproteobacteria.
Q2) The earliest nucleic acid was probably a simple DNA molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which taxonomic tool would scientists use if they wanted to determine if an outbreak of food poisoning was caused by a particular strain of a pathogen?
A) fluorescence in situ hybridization
B) DNA-DNA hybridization
C) multilocus sequence typing
D) fatty acid methyl ester analysis
Q4) Oxygen was a driving factor in the formation of eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Can gene frequencies change in the absence of selection? Why or why not?
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Chapter 14: Metabolic Diversity of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) What will happen to a cyanobacterium that has its photosystem II (PSII) blocked?
A) Additional electron acceptors, such as NADP , will be required to oxidize oxygen and overcome the lost PSII process.
B) Anoxygenic photosynthesis only using photosystem I (PSI) could occur by using cyclic photophosphorylation and an alternative electron donor such as H S.
C) It will die from being unable to obtain energy for photosynthesis.
D) Photons will generate excessive reactive oxygen species and the cyanobacterium will die as a consequence.
Q2) What metabolism would be favored when there is a lack of electron acceptors?
A) fermentation
B) anoxygenic photosynthesis
C) anoxic ammonia oxidation
D) acetogenesis
Q3) Some sulfur-oxidizing bacteria can simultaneously reduce nitrate, which enables them to grow anaerobically.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Functional Diversity of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast two different ecological strategies that sulfide-oxidizing bacteria use to access sulfide and oxygen.
Q2) You are looking at a sample from the top green layer of a colorful bacterial mat. Using phase contrast and fluorescence microscopy, you see evenly spaced cells in the middle of a filament that are slightly smaller than the others. The smaller cells are not fluorescent, indicating they lack photosystem II, but the rest of the filament is fluorescent. What is the most likely function of the smaller cells in the filament?
A) survival in the dark
B) nitrogen fixation
C) sulfur storage
D) nitrate storage
Q3) Bioluminescence develops when
A) population density is high.
B) oxygen is depleted.
C) ambient light is low.
D) the host induces the bioluminescence genes.
Q4) Anoxygenic phototrophs may or may not be autotrophs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Diversity of Bacteria
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Q1) Chemolithotrophic ammonia-oxidization is a metabolic requirement for members of A) Nitrosomonas.
B) Nitropseudomonas.
C) Nitrosomonas and Nitrosospira.
D) Nitrosomonas, Nitrosospira, and Nitropseudomonas.
Q2) A moistened swab rubbed onto a person s forearm then onto a nutrient agar plate with 7.5% NaCl would most likely result in the isolation of ________ spp.
A) Clostridium
B) Halobacterium
C) Sarcina
D) Staphylococcus
Q3) Which organisms would most likely be isolated from aerobic growth conditions with acetate and a soil sample heated to 80°C for 10 minutes?
A) aerobic or facultative anaerobic acetogens
B) endospore-forming bacteria
C) hyperthermophilic heterotrophic bacteria
D) mycoplasmas
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18
Chapter 17: Diversity of Archaea
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Q1) Ignicoccus has several unique structural features that have lead scientists to propose that it may be the modern descendent of the ancestral cell type that gave rise to the origin of eukaryotic cells. What are the unique features of Ignicoccus and why do they support this hypothesis?
Q2) The factor that most affects the thermostability of a protein is its A) highly hydrophobic core regions.
B) folding pattern.
C) ionic surface interactions.
D) number of hydrogen bonds.
Q3) Nitrifying Thaumarchaeota can outcompete nitrifying bacteria in acidic environments because Thaumarchaeota
A) are well-adapted to high salinity and extreme UV irradiation.
B) are well-adapted to temperature extremes.
C) are well-adapted to very low NH concentrations.
D) have very resistant specialized cells that survive long periods of dehydration and nutrient starvation.
Q4) With few exceptions, hyperthermophilic crenarchaeotes are obligate aerobes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Diversity of Microbial Eukarya
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Q1) Primary endosymbioses gave rise to ________ and secondary endosymbioses gave rise to ________.
A) chloroplasts in algae / chloroplasts in plants
B) mitochondria in eukaryotes / chloroplasts in eukaryotes
C) chloroplasts and mitochondria in plants and red and green algae / chloroplasts in other eukaryotes
D) chloroplasts and mitochondria in green and red algae / chloroplasts and mitochondria in diatoms
Q2) What would a fucoxanthin carotenoid stain be most useful in identifying?
A) brown or golden algae
B) flagellated algae
C) photosynthetic diatoms
D) slime molds from other molds
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a unifying characteristic of diplomonads and parabasalids?
A) having flagella
B) lacking chloroplasts
C) lacking mitochondria
D) being multicellular
Q4) How does the genus Pfiesteria cause problems in both humans and fish?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Taking the Measure of Microbial Systems
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Q1) How can NanoSIMS be used to determine which Roseobacters most strongly use DMSP as a sulfur source within a coastal marine environment? Explain the NanoSIMS methodology in your answer.
Q2) The biggest limitation of traditional light microscopy and electron microscopy is that they are unable to reveal
A) absolute cell concentration.
B) cellular components of small microbes because of the limits of magnification.
C) functional diversity of microorganisms in the habitat under study.
D) physical microbial interactions as found in nature.
Q3) Describe what an ITS region is in the context of prokaryotes, and explain the significance of the ITS region for microbial ecology.
Q4) Which of the following techniques can link prokaryotic phylogeny and metabolic function?
A) DAPI staining
B) stable isotope probing only
C) environmental genomics only
D) environmental genomics and stable isotope probing
Q5) Propose a set of procedures or steps to sequence an individual cell s genome present in lake water.
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Chapter 20: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) The generation time of Escherichia coli in the human intestine is ________ in laboratory culture.
A) at about the same rate as B) faster than C) more optimal than D) slower than
Q2) Explain why biofilms are a concern in medicine.
Q3) Cyclic dimeric guanosine monophosphate (c-di-GMP) serves as a messenger molecule in bacterial cells to coordinate a shift from ________ to ________ growth.
A) sessile / planktonic
B) planktonic / sessile
C) monomorphic / polymorphic
D) stationary / exponential
Q4) Chemoheterotrophic bacteria are primary producers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All stratified lakes contain a thermocline.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Nutrient Cycles
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Q1) Bacterial oxidation of Fe² is commonly studied in chemolithotrophs that thrive under which specific environmental condition?
A) cold temperature
B) high sunlight
C) low (acidic) pH
D) nutrient-replete
Q2) Describe how syntrophy helps explain why certain enrichments yield consortia and never an individual species.
Q3) More carbon is present in dead organic material on Earth than in living organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The burning of fossil fuels produces significant amounts of A) sulfate.
B) sulfite.
C) sulfonate.
D) sulfur dioxide.
Q5) Silicoflagellates use silicon compounds in substrate-level phosphorylation. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Microbiology of the Built Environment
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Q1) Chlorine is consumed when it reacts with organic materials.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Microbial plastics are composed of
A) polysaccharides.
B) Polyhydroxyalkanoates (PAHs).
C) polyaromatic hydrocarbons.
D) xenobiotics.
Q3) Natural underground pyritic deposits that are not disturbed by mining activities do not form acidic drainage waters. Why not? Explain the critical steps in the formation of acid mine drainage in your answer.
Q4) It is possible to completely eliminate pathogens from water if sufficient amounts of chlorine are used.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Secondary treatment may be aerobic or anoxic.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is souring of crude oil and how does the petroleum industry control it?
Q7) Describe floc formation in the activated sludge process.
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Chapter 23: Microbial Symbioses
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Q1) Horizontal gene transfer between insects and their symbionts
A) happens frequently because of coevolution.
B) causes genome reduction in the symbiont and genome expansion in the host.
C) causes genome reduction in both the host and the symbiont.
D) has been observed, but is considered a rare event.
Q2) What is coral bleaching and how might corals be able to adapt to avoid the destruction of coral reefs?
Q3) Which of the following is a common feature of primary insect symbionts?
A) accelerated mutation rates only
B) extreme genome reduction only
C) high A+T content only
D) accelerated mutation rates, extreme genome reduction, and high A+T content
Q4) Fungi and protists serve an important role in the anaerobic digestion of cellulose in ruminants.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Photorhabdus is a bacterial symbiont of insect nematodes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Microbial Symbioses with Humans
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Q1) Which of the following is the genus represented by the greatest diversity of phylotypes on the skin?
A) Bacteriodes
B) Firmicutes
C) Actinobacteria
D) Proteobacteria
Q2) Describe how oral antibiotics can result in the harmful alterations in the microbiota.
Q3) The vagina of an adult female is
A) highly acidic.
B) highly alkaline.
C) weakly acidic.
D) weakly alkaline.
Q4) A microbial community that does not change when exposed to stressors is called A) resilient.
B) resistant.
C) robust.
D) regimented.
Q5) Why are some microorganisms specialized to only certain parts of the body?
Describe an example that supports your answer.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Infection and Pathogenesis
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Q1) Why does Neisseria gonorrhea adhere only to mucosal epithelial cells in the genitourinary tract, eye, rectum, and throat?
Q2) Which of the following hemolysins is a phospholipase?
A) lecithinase
B) streptolysin-O
C) Staphylococcal -toxin
D) leukocidin
Q3) Describe the difference between the use of streptokinase and coagulase as a defense mechanism among pathogens.
Q4) Staphylococcus aureus produces ________, leading to fibrin clots that protect them from attack by host cells.
A) collagenase
B) coagulase
C) lipase
D) amylase
Q5) The Limulus amebocyte lysate assay is used to detect endotoxin in clinical samples such as serum or cerebrospinal fluid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Innate Immunity: Broadly Specific Host Defenses
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Q1) Some intracellular pathogens produce phagocyte-killing proteins called ________ that kill the phagocyte after ingestion of the pathogen.
A) antibodies
B) antigens
C) leukocidins
D) pus
Q2) Why do individuals with genetic defects that prevent neutrophil or macrophage development usually die at an early age? Be specific and detailed in your answer to demonstrate your knowledge on the role of these cells in the immune system.
Q3) Intracellular pathogens sometimes produce ________ that can kill phagocytes.
A) lipopolysaccharides
B) PAMPs
C) PRRs
D) leukocidins
Q4) The unique antigen-reactive proteins of T cells are
A) antibodies.
B) immunoglobins.
C) T cell receptors.
D) None of these are correct.
28
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Chapter 27: Adaptive Immunity: Highly Specific Host Defenses
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Q1) Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes produce exotoxins known as superantigens that bind to a site on the TCR that is outside the antigen-specific TCR binding site.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Haptens CANNOT bind to or induce an immune response but CAN bind to antibodies. A)True
B)False
Q3) Selection against self-reactive clones results in the development of tolerance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Men are 20 times more likely to develop systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) than women.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The inducing antigens that react with an antibody are called heterologous antigens. A)True
B)False
Q6) Why is the secondary immune response stronger in regard to antibodies?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Immunology
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Q1) Which of the following prevents supercoiling of bacterial DNA?
A) macrolides
B) quinolones
C) penicillins
D) cephalosporins
Q2) Protein A, commonly used in immunoblots, is derived from
A) Staphylococcus.
B) Escherichia.
C) Bacillus.
D) Clostridium.
Q3) Which of the following immunogens is most effective as a vaccine?
A) chemically inactivated bacteria
B) dead virus
C) live virus
D) toxoid
Q4) What is the drawback of live attenuated vaccines?
A) They require more secondary reimmunizations than other vaccines.
B) They are not effective in adults.
C) They do NOT provide a long-lasting secondary immune response.
D) They can cause disease in some immunocompromised individuals.
30
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Chapter 29: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which stage of an acute infectious disease occurs between the time the organism begins to grow in the host and the appearance of disease symptoms?
A) acute period
B) decline period
C) infection
D) incubation period
Q2) The onset of a given epidemic is indicated by a sharp rise in the number of cases reported daily over a brief interval. This indicates that the mode of transmission is
A) host to host.
B) a common source.
C) insect vector.
D) mechanical vector.
Q3) Ebola is caused by
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B) the Zika virus.
C) a filovirus.
D) a rhinovirus.
Q4) Explain the concept of coevolution in terms of host-pathogen interactions.
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Chapter 30: Person-to-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The unique antigenic determinants of the different serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae are found
A) on the cell-surface M proteins.
B) on the capsular polysaccharides.
C) in the bacterial cell wall.
D) in the inclusions in the periplasmic space.
Q2) The Spanish flu of 1918 was caused by an ________ influenza virus.
A) H2N1
B) H5N1
C) H1N1
D) H2N2
Q3) Erythromycin is applied to the eyes of newborns particularly to prevent
A) syphilis.
B) gonorrhea.
C) a chlamydial infection.
D) ocular herpes.
Q4) Reassortment of the genes of the influenza virus is facilitated by the fact that the genome is segmented.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Vectorborne and Soilborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following was an emerging mosquito-borne disease in the early 2000s and has now spread to every state in the United States?
A) malaria
B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C) typhus
D) West Nile fever
Q2) In different geographic locations, different tick and Borrelia spp. may be involved in the transmission and cause of Lyme disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What key features of Bacillus anthracis makes the anthrax disease impossible to eradicate?
Q4) The causative agent of dengue fever is
A) Rickettsia prowazekii.
B) a flavivirus.
C) Borrelia burgdorferi.
D) Clostridium perfringens.
Q5) Using a specific example, explain the term accidental host.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Waterborne and Foodborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Q1) Clostridium perfringens food poisoning leads to diarrhea, because the A) toxin causes the shedding of the intestinal lining.
B) permeability of the intestinal epithelium is altered by the toxin it produces.
C) disease causes such extreme thirst that the patient drinks more water than can be absorbed.
D) organism multiplies more rapidly than the immune system can handle.
Q2) The principle behind salt or sugar preservation is to
A) introduce a mechanical barrier to microbial invasion.
B) reduce water activity (aw).
C) introduce a microbicide in anticipation of contaminating bacteria or fungi.
D) accomplish all of the described functions depending on the food being preserved.
Q3) To be certain the botulinum toxin is inactivated, the source must be heated for at least 2 minutes at 80°C.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is Staphylococcus aureus often described as an international picnic pest?
Q5) Why are antibiotics of little value by themselves in the treatment of cholera?
Q6) Explain how the membrane filter (MF) procedure is used.
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Chapter 33: Eukaryotic Pathogens: Fungi, Protozoans, and
Helminths
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Q1) A patient arrives at the emergency room feeling extremely sick, with cycles of high fevers and chills and a severe headache. However, these symptoms are nonspecific and malaria may not be suspected if the patient is in a region where malaria is uncommon. If the medical professionals did not immediately consider malaria, which of the following test results would most strongly suggest the need for malaria testing (such as microscopic analysis of a blood smear)?
A) the patient has a high platelet count
B) the patient develops vomiting as well
C) a complete blood count (CBC) shows progressively worsening severe anemia
D) an x-ray suggests an enlarged liver and unusually small spleen
Q2) Giardia is especially difficult to kill because they have cell membranes that are resistant to common disinfecting chemicals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Elderly individuals are more likely to develop systemic mycoses because cell-mediated immunity generally decreases with age.
A)True
B)False
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