Medical Microbiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Microbiology explores the complex interactions between microorganisms and the human host, emphasizing the role of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites in human disease. The course covers the mechanisms of microbial pathogenicity, host immune responses, epidemiology of infectious diseases, laboratory diagnostic techniques, and principles of antimicrobial therapy. Students will develop an understanding of the clinical significance of various pathogens and their impact on healthcare, with an emphasis on infection prevention, control strategies, and emerging microbial threats. This foundational knowledge is essential for interpreting laboratory results and making informed decisions in clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 3rd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) The study of and cause of disease in humans, animals, and plants is called:
A) microbiology
B) phylogeny
C) genomics
D) epidemiology
E) forensics
Answer: D
Q2) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek worked as a cloth draper, inspecting the quality of cloth. How did this lead to his interest in microscopy?
Answer: Briefly, his work introduced him to magnifying lenses. He began the hobby of grinding lenses, ultimately making a microscope that enabled him to observe single-celled microbes.
Q3) Early metabolism may have been catalyzed by:
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) protein
D) amino acids
E) carbohydrates
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) Who proved that stomach ulcers are caused by a bacterium?
A) Hooke
B) Marshall
C) Gram
D) Jenner
E) van Leeuwenhoek
Answer: B
Q2) As lens strength increases, the light cone __________ and the lens must be __________ the object.
A) narrows; nearer to B) narrows; farther from C) widens; nearer to D) widens; farther from E) widens; touching
Answer: C
Q3) List and describe three common shapes of bacteria.
Answer: Bacilli (bacillus in the singular) are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci (singular, coccus) are spherical-shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are tightly coiled spirals or corkscrew-shaped bacteria.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Ribosomes isolated by centrifugation are still active. What evidence demonstrates this?
Answer: Ribosomes isolated by centrifugation can translate messenger RNA in cell-free systems. Experiments in cell-free systems provide the basis for much of our knowledge of protein synthesis.
Q2) Briefly describe the transertion process. Why is this process important for insertion of proteins into the cell membrane?
Answer: Transertion is the coupling of transcription and translation of proteins destined for secretion or membrane insertion. Membrane proteins contain hydrophobic regions poorly soluble in the aqueous cytoplasm where translation occurs. The transcription and translation of these proteins take place near the cell membrane (i.e., DNA is pulled outward toward the membrane), so these proteins could be inserted readily into the membrane once synthesized.
Q3) What are some of the limitations of X-ray crystallography?
Answer: Crystallographic analysis can only be used for isolated particles, and the particles' function can't be fully observed. It can only be used for molecules capable of being crystallized, but is not useful for analysis of soluble proteins or proteins that are flexible.
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Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) A(n) __________ cell loses membrane integrity and cannot carry out the simple transport functions needed to support life.
A) depolarized
B) endospore
C) planktonic
D) heterocyst
E) dormant
Q2) __________ can consume glucose and, in the absence of oxygen, can break it down into ethanol and carbon dioxide gas.
A) E. coli
B) Phototrophs
C) Yeast
D) Archaea
E) Bacteria
Q3) Which of the following is true of all biofilms?
A) They only contain a single species.
B) The EPS may be protein or polysaccharide.
C) Cells in the biofilm are dormant until the bacteria leave the biofilm.
D) The EPS is secreted by the bacteria.
E) It is a continuous monolayer surface deposit.
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) The pressure (psi, or pounds per square inch) at Earth's surface is:
A) 0 psi
B) 3 psi
C) 5 psi
D) 7 psi
E) 14 psi
Q2) Organisms adapted to grow at overwhelmingly high pressures are called:
A) psychrophiles
B) thermophiles
C) barophiles
D) acidophiles
E) mesophiles
Q3) What alkaliphile do pink flamingos eat and how is it involved in making the flamingo pink?
Q4) All of the following are true about microbes and temperature EXCEPT:
A) Microbes have mechanisms to control their temperature.
B) Temperature affects the average rate of molecular motion.
C) Changes in temperature affect membrane fluidity.
D) Changes in temperature affect transport.
E) Every organism has an optimum temperature for growth.
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) A(n) __________ phage may integrate its genome into that of the host cell.
A) lytic
B) temperate
C) viroid
D) asymmetrical
E) oncogenic
Q2) What determines the host range and tropism of a virus?
Q3) Genes for the capsid proteins are found in the:
A) plasmid
B) bacterial chromosome
C) envelope
D) ribosome
E) viral genome
Q4) How is a plaque assay used to count virions in a solution?
Q5) What is the viral envelope composed of? How does it differ from the bacterial cell envelope?
Q6) How does genome uncoating occur with animal viruses?
Q7) What is necessary for bacteriophage and animal virus entry into a cell? How does that differ from plant viral entry?
Q8) Discuss the role that marine viruses play in carbon balance.
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) Pieces of DNA that have been cut with restriction enzymes can then be "grafted" together using the enzyme:
A) DNA gyrase
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA primase
D) RNA polymerase
E) reverse transcriptase
Q2) __________ naturally function to cut the DNA of invading plasmids and phages at specific points.
A) Topoisomerases
B) Restriction endonucleases
C) Ligases
D) Polymerases
E) Gyrases
Q3) Describe the role that DNA Pol I plays in replication.
Q4) What determines when DNA replication begins?
Q5) Humans have an immune system that can distinguish self from nonself. How is the bacterial restriction-modification system similar?
Q6) Describe how the name of a gene and its gene product are denoted.
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Explain the process of transcription initiation.
Q2) Gram-negative microbes are surrounded by two layers of __________, between which lies __________.
A) membrane; peptidoglycan
B) membrane; periplasmic space and lipopolysaccharide
C) membrane; periplasmic space and peptidoglycan
D) lipopolysaccharide; periplasmic space and peptidoglycan
E) lipopolysaccharide; peptidoglycan
Q3) Name two antibiotics that affect translation and explain their mode of action.
Q4) Which drug intercalates into DNA and inhibits transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A) streptomycin
B) actinomycin D
C) chloramphenicol
D) rifampin
E) tetracycline
Q5) Define "half-life" in terms of mRNA. Biologically, why is it important that the half-life of mRNA be the shortest of the RNAs? What chemically leads to a longer half-life for tRNAs and rRNAs?
Q6) How do sigma factors regulate major physiological responses?
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) Newly replicated, and consequently __________, DNA sequences are invisible to a restriction enzyme.
A) mutated
B) restricted
C) modified
D) hemimethylated
E) single-stranded
Q2) In order to transfer, an F factor must have which of the following?
A) oriV and its own DNA polymerase
B) oriV and tra genes
C) oriT and tra genes
D) oriT and its own DNA polymerase
E) oriT, tra genes, and its own DNA polymerase
Q3) Phages that carry host DNA are called transducing particles. Describe how the Salmonella P22 phage accidentally packages host DNA.
Q4) Why is SOS repair considered to be an error-prone repair mechanism? Why would an organism use an error-prone mechanism?
Q5) How do bacterial cells protect themselves from invading foreign DNA? Why aren't the bacteria harmed by this process?
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) __________ RNAs bind to complementary sequences of target transcripts and stimulate or prevent translation.
A) Ribosomal
B) Transfer
C) Messenger
D) Antisense
E) Small
Q2) The mechanism behind slipped-strand mispairing is:
A) short repeats allow for slippage of the RNA polymerase during transcription of the affected genes
B) short repeats allow for slippage of DNA polymerase during replication, which leads to an out-of-frame reading sequence
C) an invertible promoter slips into different reading frames
D) the genes coding for lipopolysaccharide in Gram-negative bacteria can be slipped in and out of frame
E) short repeats slip and turn genes off, but they can never be turned back on
Q3) What is diauxic growth and why does it occur?
Q4) Explain the process of attenuation in regulating transcription of the tryptophan operon.
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) In HCV, the genome recombination takes place through a process known as:
A) reverse transcription
B) DNA switching
C) polypeptide elongation
D) exocytosis
E) template switching
Q2) Cyclophilin A is a host protein that:
A) acts as a coreceptor for HIV
B) facilitates HIV entry into the nucleus
C) is incorporated in the HIV envelope
D) inhibits HIV replication
E) cuts the polyprotein into subunits
Q3) Which was the first virus demonstrated to cause cancer?
A) human immunodeficiency virus
B) Rous sarcoma virus
C) herpes simplex virus
D) coxsackievirus
E) rhinovirus
Q4) Explain what happens in individuals infected with HIV who are homozygous for CCR5, heterozygous for a CCR5 deletion, or homozygous for a CCR5 deletion.
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Chapter 12: Bio-techniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) His<sub>6</sub>-fusion-tagged proteins can be isolated by affinity chromatography because the histidine tag tightly binds to:
A) copper
B) magnesium
C) iron
D) calcium
E) nickel
Q2) Microbes that grow at neutral pH but can survive at pH 2 for short periods are called:
A) acid-fast
B) neutralophiles
C) acid-resistant
D) extremophiles
E) none of the above
Q3) Describe the use of a primary and secondary antibody in a western blot.
Q4) Once a gene encoding a putative transcriptional regulatory protein is identified by sequence annotation, what needs to be done to demonstrate this activity?
Q5) Explain the principle of riboswitches and switchboards, and provide examples of their application.
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) Glucose is activated by __________ phosphorylation(s) by ATP during the first stage of the Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) none of the above
Q2) Escherichia coli degrades human waste in the colon using mixed-acid fermentation. Why is this a factor of concern in some medical procedures, such as colonoscopy?
Q3) The base adenine forms from __________ in experiments simulating the origin of life on Earth.
A) carbon dioxide and nitrate
B) ethanol and urea
C) methane and ammonia
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) Define organotroph and heterotroph. Are these terms equivalent?
Q5) What is substrate-level phosphorylation? Provide two examples from bacterial metabolism.
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Q1) Alkaliphiles maintain an inverted pH gradient in which:
A) the pH in their immediate environment is lower than the cytoplasmic pH
B) their immediate environment has a pH several units above that of the cytoplasm
C) pH in the immediate environment is equal to that of the cytoplasm
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) How does photosystem I allow Chlorobium and other green sulfur bacteria to live near deep-sea vents?
Q3) Describe Peter Mitchell's chemiosmotic model for coupling the electron transfer system with ATP synthesis.
Q4) What are facultative phototrophs? Provide an example and its possible use in biotechnology.
Q5) What is photoheterotrophy? Give examples of photoheterotrophic organisms.
Q6) The chemiosmotic theory states that the proton potential is composed of:
A) [ATP] and [ADP]+[Pi]
B) a pH gradient and Na<sup>+</sup> gradient
C) pH and pNa<sup>+</sup>
D)\(\Delta\)pH and \(\Delta\)\(\varPsi\)
E) none of the above
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) How is fatty acid biosynthesis regulated in bacteria?
Q2) The Calvin cycle is essentially:
A) started by the oxygen capture by Rubisco
B) a reductive pentose phosphate cycle
C) the reductive, or reverse, tricarboxylic acid cycle
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) How does the reductive or reverse TCA cycle differ from the regular TCA cycle?
Q4) How many turns of the Calvin cycle does it take to provide one molecule of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate into the biosynthesis of glucose?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 6
E) none of the above
Q5) What technique was used to demonstrate that gene expression of the CO<sub>2</sub>-concentrating mechanism (CCM) transporters is induced by low levels of CO<sub>2</sub>? Briefly explain the basis of the technique.
Q6) What are nonribosomal peptide antibiotics? How are they synthesized?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following methods is NOT used in studying food-borne illnesses?
A) reporting cases to the CDC
B) when a food is identified as a cause of an illness, tracing it to a factory or farm
C) electron microscopy of the foods to find the pathogen
D) molecular tests on isolated bacteria thought to be the cause
E) comparing food intake histories of ill people to look for matches
Q2) NO starter culture is available for which of the following processes?
A) sourdough bread making
B) yogurt making
C) chocolate production
D) cheese making
E) beer making
Q3) Recombinant E. coli is used in the production of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) interferon
B) CC10 lung development protein
C) human growth hormone
D) insulin
E) antibodies
Q4) What makes a company dealing with industrial microbiology a success?
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) Explain how banded iron formations could arise in the geologic record due to photoferrotrophy.
Q2) The sum of all of Earth's life is called:
A) lithosphere
B) mantle
C) core
D) atmosphere
E) biosphere
Q3) The most likely ancestor for today's mitochondria according to the endosymbiosis hypothesis is:
A) a species of the genus Bacillus
B) a cyanobacterium
C) a member of the clostridia
D) an enterobacterium
E) a rickettsial
Q4) Why and how is the small subunit ribosomal RNA (SSU 16S rRNA) used to determine molecular phylogeny?
Q5) How could catalytic activity in enzyme proteins have evolved from catalytic RNA?
Q6) What criteria need to be met in order to prove that two bacterial strains belong in the same species?
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) What is oligotrophy? Provide examples.
Q2) The following bacterial genera belong to the Enterobacteriaceae. In particular, __________ display swarming behavior prior to forming __________.
A) Escherichia; colonies
B) Proteus; biofilms
C) Pseudomonas; endospores
D) Caulbacter; stalks
E) Myxobacteria; fruiting bodies
Q3) Which gammaproteobacterial genera include species that oxidize H<sub>2</sub>S to S<sup>0</sup>?
A) Escherichia and Enterobacter
B) Chromatium and Beggiatoa
C) Klebsiella and Shigella
D) Proteus and Erwinia
E) none of the above
Q4) Describe four mechanisms cyanobacteria use to provide an anoxic environment for the oxygen-sensitive, nitrogen-fixation enzyme nitrogenase.
Q5) What is unique about the genome of Borrelia species?
Q6) What is photoheterotrophy? Provide two examples.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) Methanogens are classified within how many major orders?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
Q2) The Haloarchaea, extreme __________, are the only form of life to grow in concentrated brine.
A) thermophiles
B) psychrophiles
C) methanophiles
D) halophiles
E) acidophiles
Q3) Discuss the genome and morphology of known archaeal viruses. Why are their genomes all similar in structure?
Q4) Describe the physiological adaptations found in haloarchaea that compensate for the high internal potassium chloride concentrations.
Q5) Why has Sulfolobus been studied so much more extensively than many archaea, and what is known about it?
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Plasmodium falciparum is a(n) __________ and is transmitted to the human host by the bite of a __________.
A) Apicomplexan; mosquito
B) Trypanosome; tsetse fly
C) Apicomplexan; reduviid bug
D) Trypanosome; mosquito
E) Apicomplexan; sand fly
Q2) Schizogony refers to which life-cycle stage in Plasmodium falciparum?
A) mitotic reproduction and zygote development into spore-like form for transmission to next host; found in mosquito stage
B) mitotic reproduction to achieve large population within host; found in liver stage and RBC stage
C) meiotic reproduction to produce gametes; found in RBC stage
D) mitotic reproduction and zygote development into spore-like form for transmission to next host; found in RBC stage
E) meiotic reproduction to produce gametes; found in mosquito stage
Q3) Give one reason why geologists could look at foraminiferans to determine potential sites for oil drilling.
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) How would a high cereal or grain diet for cattle affect the growth of pathogens like E. coli?
Q2) Cryptogamic "soils" are found in dry, hot deserts. Which of the following is NOT true of cryptogamic crusts?
A) They develop very slowly.
B) They are made of lichens, mosses, and other algae and fungi.
C) They are quite resilient and not easily killed.
D) They play a vital role in protecting seeds for germination.
E) They help to prevent erosion in desert ecosystems.
Q3) Describe haustorial parasitism.
Q4) Ominovores or carnivores have different microbial communities than herbivores due to:
A) the presence of a cecum
B) the availability of branched-chain amino acids for cellulolytic bacterial metabolism
C) hindgut fermentation
D) both A and B
E) both B and C
Q5) Define cryptogamic crust and explain its vital role in desert ecosystems.
Q6) Describe the steps in sequencing a metagenome.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Microbes using nitrogen as a terminal electron acceptor would be performing:
A) nitrogen fixation
B) ammonification
C) nitrification
D) denitrification
E) anammox
Q2) Much of the carbon and nitrogen in wetlands is cycled by:
A) aerobic respiration
B) plants and aerobic heterotrophs
C) wild fire
D) anaerobic bacteria and archaea such as methanogens
E) cyanobacteria and phototrophs
Q3) Microbes participate in which step of wastewater treatment?
A) preliminary
B) primary
C) secondary
D) tertiary
E) all of the above
Q4) What evidence suggests that the biochemistry of life elsewhere would resemble that on Earth?
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) What is the biology underlying the condition of lupus, and how could the symptoms of lupus be lessened on the cellular level?
Q2) Describe antibody-induced opsonization, the process in which innate and adaptive immunity work together to engulf an invader.
Q3) Interferons:
A) are antibacterial agents produced by skin, GI-tract, and lung cells
B) are secreted by eukaryotic cells in response to intracellular infection
C) are only produced by activated phagocytes
D) are host-specific and virus-specific
E) can block bacterial replication
Q4) Are the Langerhans cells of skin-associated lymphoid tissue (SALT) related to the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas that secrete insulin? What is their function?
Q5) How would you explain the distinguishing characteristics of innate and adaptive immunity?
Q6) How is it that Clostridium difficile, often a part of the normal intestinal microflora, can be the causative agent of pseudomembranous enterocolitis?
Q7) How does eating sugar cause dental caries and cavities?
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) In a radial immunodiffusion assay, immunoprecipitation rings will be created within the agar dish based on:
A) equivalence point
B) antibody isotype
C) antibody allotype
D) polyclonal antigen preparation
E) Fc binding of antigens
Q2) A surgical patient infected with a blood-borne Staphylococcus would initially produce an anti-staphylococcal antibody of the IgM class. Why is that?
Q3) How can a person who has taken penicillin for a childhood ear infection later develop an allergy to penicillin when prescribed that drug again?
Q4) A mutation that caused a person to have an ineffective complement C6 protein would have a direct effect on formation of:
A) complement-antibody complex
B) C3 convertase
C) C3b opsonins for phagocytosis
D) membrane attack complex
E) C5 convertase
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Why is a microbial agent that prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion more virulent as an intracellular pathogen than one that is not?
Q2) Which of the following are also known as frank, or strict, pathogens?
A) parasites
B) endoparasites
C) ectoparasites
D) primary pathogens
E) opportunistic pathogens
Q3) What are ubiquitination signals? Describe how a microbe can redirect these signals for its own purposes.
Q4) Which of the following causes whooping cough?
A) Streptococcus mutans
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Bordetella pertussis
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Mycoplasma
Q5) What is the rationale for designating disease-causing protozoa and worms as parasites, not as pathogens?
Q6) Diphtheria toxin is a classic AB exotoxin. How does it cause host cell damage?
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Helicobacter pylori is thought to cause cancer through:
A) toxin production
B) inducing superantigens
C) neutralizing acid pH, which allows anaerobes to grow
D) injecting the CagA protein into gastric epithelial cells
E) adhering with pili to the oropharygeal epithelium
Q2) Which of the following is a genetic neurodegenerative disease?
A) kuru
B) fatal familial insomnia
C) mad cow disease
D) wasting disease
E) all of the above
Q3) Toxic shock syndrome is associated with which of the following?
A) E. coli O157:H7
B) enterotoxin of Staphylococcus aureus
C) superantigens of some Gram-positive cocci
D) meningococcal capsular antigen
E) pertactin of whooping cough
Q4) What is the reservoir for Trichomonas vaginalis? Explain how it causes disease in the acidic vagina of females.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Compare and contrast the utility of the antibiotic polymyxin versus cephalosporin in clearing up an Escherichia coli skin infection that has become systemic.
Q2) Streptogramins are a drug class that possess a synergistic effect. This means that they:
A) work best on antibiotic-resistant and antibiotic-intermediate bacteria
B) kill bacteria using both bacteriostatic and bactericidal mechanisms
C) have two drug components working together to create a more potent effect
D) induce an antibody-driven immune response more quickly
E) kill Gram-negative, Gram-positive, and mycobacteria equally well
Q3) A patient who accidentally takes too many doses of chloramphenicol during a Salmonella sp. infection could possible come down with:
A) aplastic anemia
B) liver cancer
C) gastroenteritis
D) ulcers
E) growth plate defects
Q4) Many times people will tell you to eat yogurt or drink kefir if you are on antibiotics. Why do some people view this as an "urban legend"? Can it be effective?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) Haemophilius influenzae requires __________ and __________ for confirmatory growth of an organism in vitro.
A) catalase; oxidase (N disk)
B) Eosin-Methylene Blue (EMB) agar; MacConkey agar
C) citrate; bile salts
D) hemin (X factor); NAD (V factor)
E) phenylalanine; ortho-Nitrophenyl-\(\beta\)-galactoside (ONPG)
Q2) Direct fluorescent staining of infected tissue samples taken from a patient allows for rapid identification under what circumstances?
A) hard-to-culture organisms
B) protist infections
C) Gram-negative organisms
D) intracellular infections
E) metabolically active organisms
Q3) Compare and contrast the epidemiological terms endemic, epidemic, and pandemic. Give an example of each to support your answer.
Q4) Compare and contrast the use of the serum antibody ELISA with the antigen-capture ELISA in the detection of Ebola.
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Chapter 29: What Do Winning Organizations Do Well
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Q1) In order to transform Arbol Industries from a cost-focused company to a marketing-led company, one of the new CEO's first steps was to
A) hire a marketing manager.
B) implement cost reductions.
C) increase labour productivity.
D) cut back on research and development.
E) focus on the current stock price.
Q2) Asking customers how they can be better served is an example of a product mix review.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Typical problems faced by for-profit organizations include
A) customers becoming less price-sensitive.
B) an influx of high-priced competitors.
C) building an organization where everyone is focused on the customer.
D) lack of funding from donors.
E) fewer media channels.
Q4) What is the first step in the marketing process? Explain why it is so important.
Q5) List three typical problems faced by non-profit organizations that marketing can solve.
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Chapter 30: Understanding Customer Needs
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Q1) How do companies co-create value with the customer, and which medium is helping to facilitate this?
Q2) Southwest Airlines' decision to focus on the customer segment that does not want frills, only low fares, demonstrates the firm's deep understanding of A) customer needs.
B) economies of scale.
C) advertising.
D) public relations.
E) the competition.
Q3) A data collection method where the moderator engages one respondent in a conversation for at least 60 minutes is referred to as a survey.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An advantage of secondary research is that
A) you conduct the research yourself.
B) it takes longer than primary research.
C) it can be expensive.
D) you may find the answer you are researching.
E) there are few sources of secondary data.
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Chapter 31: Choosing Which Customers to Serve
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Q1) One of the common pitfalls in market segmentation is
A) segmenting by product, not by market.
B) always using a different segmentation approach.
C) using a different segmentation strategy than competitors.
D) never targeting the largest segment.
E) understanding that segments change.
Q2) To overcome the limitations of demographics as a segmentation variable, researchers turned to geographic segmentation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A marketer that does not recognize customer needs and provides all customers with only one offer is practising
A) market segmentation.
B) mass marketing.
C) personal selling.
D) competitive positioning.
E) narrowcasting.
Q4) What is the ideal method for segmenting customers on the internet?
Q5) Explain why segmenting customers by demographic variables is rarely effective.
Page 33
Q6) List and describe three common pitfalls in segmenting customers.
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Chapter 32: Developing a Strong Marketing Plan
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Q1) The key outcomes for the business section examines A) objectives.
B) tactics.
C) return on investment.
D) marketing???-sales linkages.
E) timeline.
Q2) The first section in a marketing plan contains the
A) competitor analysis.
B) market analysis.
C) customer analysis.
D) objectives to be achieved.
E) executive summary.
Q3) In a SWOT analysis for Disney, "the increased popularity of participatory vacations" is a(n)
A) strength.
B) weakness.
C) opportunity.
D) threat.
E) objective.
Q4) What are the four major areas that the sections of a marketing plan fall into?
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Chapter 33: Product and Brand Strategies
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Q1) An important component of brand equity is
A) product cost.
B) the channel.
C) brand awareness.
D) marketing communications.
E) the functional product.
Q2) The world's best innovators know that _________ determines the culture of an organization.
A) the sales force
B) the customer
C) the marketing strategists
D) the CEO
E) the research and development team
Q3) Apple's move to get music companies to agree to sell their music online is an example of
A) platform innovation.
B) value capture innovation.
C) brand innovation.
D) networking innovation.
E) business model innovation.
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Chapter 34: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) A short-term tactic in which a company sets a high initial price for a product to recoup its investment is referred to as
A) cost-plus pricing.
B) value-based pricing.
C) price skimming.
D) target costing.
E) price penetration.
Q2) When extremely low enterprise licensing fees caused potential customers to not take a company's claims about its new data-management system seriously, this clearly showed a strong relationship between
A) advertising and sales.
B) price and the company's marketing strategy.
C) brand awareness and brand image.
D) product introduction and distribution.
E) retailers and manufacturers.
Q3) There is a strong possibility that your brand image could be hurt if you drop your price.
A)True
B)False
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Channel Strategies
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Q1) When an organization begins to move customers from one channel to another, the organization's sales force and its channel partners
A) embrace the transition.
B) are not affected in any way.
C) focus on stepping up customer service.
D) are usually downsized.
E) face the same fears as customers.
Q2) The sequence from raw material to sale is known as A) a product strategy.
B) a sales strategy.
C) a supply chain.
D) channel economics.
E) the core product.
Q3) The cost of going to market (the combined cost of sales and marketing expenses across all channels) is often a company's single largest expense.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is it important to base channel decisions on customers' needs?
Q5) What is examined when calculating channel economics?
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Chapter 36: Marketing Communications Strategies
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Q1) In recall tests, aided recall is the more powerful indicator of advertising effectiveness. A)True
B)False
Q2) Packaging a message based on an understanding of the target audience's needs is known as
A) the message channel.
B) encoding.
C) feedback.
D) the target's response.
E) noise.
Q3) Before customers can become loyal, they go through a process of A) awareness.
B) acquiring knowledge.
C) product trial.
D) increasing involvement with the brand.
E) comparing competitors' products.
Q4) How has the new paradigm changed customer needs and their responses to marketing communications messages?
Q5) Describe three of the guiding principles of integrated marketing communications.
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Chapter 37: Delivering Customer Value
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Q1) If marketing has positioned a brand uniquely in the marketplace and created brand awareness and knowledge before the salesperson calls, the end result is
A) increased sales costs.
B) a lack of price integrity.
C) reduced sales costs.
D) a higher cost of ownership.
E) a lower pocket price.
Q2) The role of sales includes
A) conducting formal marketing research.
B) developing customer value propositions.
C) measuring customer satisfaction.
D) managing the brand.
E) developing specialized knowledge of the customer's industry and business.
Q3) The key to translating marketing planning into sales action lies in
A) marketing communications.
B) market segmentation.
C) the sales review.
D) supply chain management.
E) sales force deployment.
Q4) What is the role of marketing in the buying funnel?
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Building a Customer-Focused Business
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Q1) Subway became known as the fast-food restaurant that offered healthy choices for customers who wanted to maintain a healthy lifestyle or lose weight. Subway's product positioning is typical of a company that is
A) focused on its products.
B) focused on nutritional research.
C) focused on customer needs.
D) focused on the competition.
E) focused on sales execution.
Q2) The fact that the customer gets the same fast, friendly, clean, and accurate service at any McDonald's, regardless of location, demonstrates that everyone within the organization is focused on the customer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare and contrast the philosophy, organizational structure, and focus of a product-centric business with a customer-centric business.
Q4) Customer focus is a management philosophy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List three of the common traps to avoid in building a customer-focused business.
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Chapter 39: Customer Attraction, Satisfaction, and Retention Strategies
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Q1) An American Customer Satisfaction Index (ACSI) study shows a clear correlation between higher levels of customer satisfaction and
A) higher stock prices.
B) market volatility.
C) advertising spending.
D) increased distribution.
E) personal selling.
Q2) Building customer retention is very important because loyal customers are
A) not as willing to forgive after a negative experience.
B) more willing to listen to inducements from competitors.
C) less willing to try new offerings by the business.
D) generally more price-sensitive.
E) more profitable.
Q3) Customers classified as at risk represent
A) loyal customers who have been swayed by competitors.
B) low-margin customers, therefore unattractive customers.
C) high-cost, price-sensitive customers.
D) an opportunity to bring immediate payback.
E) customers at the last stage of the product life cycle.
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Q4) What type of feedback is typically measured on a customer satisfaction survey?
Chapter 40: Building the Marketing Organization of the Future
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Q1) John Deere has been successful because the firm constantly reviews its segments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which ROI marketing metric is the qualitative measurement of brand associations examined?
A) problem recognition
B) information search
C) purchase consideration
D) purchase intent
E) repeat purchase decision
Q3) Customers who have a high cost to serve, but do not want to pay very much are classified as
A) passive.
B) aggressive.
C) carriage trade.
D) bargain basement.
E) potential.
Q4) Discuss how Bata has placed an emphasis on corporate sustainability.
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Q5) List three of the major external changes that have bombarded the discipline of marketing in recent years.