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Medical Law and Ethics examines the legal and ethical frameworks governing the practice of medicine, focusing on the rights and responsibilities of healthcare professionals, patients, and institutions. The course explores issues such as patient confidentiality, informed consent, medical negligence, end-of-life decision-making, and the allocation of scarce resources. Through analysis of key legislation, landmark cases, and ethical principles, students develop a critical understanding of how law and ethics intersect in clinical practice, enabling them to navigate complex moral dilemmas and comply with professional standards in a rapidly evolving healthcare landscape.
Recommended Textbook
Comprehensive Medical Assisting 6th Edition by Wilburta Q. Lindh
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47 Chapters
1893 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which of the following will keep the medical assistant current in knowledge in the years to come and will serve as testimony of a commitment to professionalism?
A)Dependability
B)Initiative
C)Continuing education
D)Empathy
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a level in the AAMA membership?
A)Regional
B)State
C)Local
D)National
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following does regulation NOT ensure?
A)Competence of health care providers
B)Minimum standard of skill
C)Limiting of performance of certain procedures to a specific occupation
D)Minimal standard of empathy and initiative
Answer: D
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Q1) treats diseases of children and adolescents
A)emergency medicine
B)internal medicine
C)urology
D)otolaryngology
E)pediatrics
Answer: E
Q2) A Medical Laboratory Technologist is credentialed by the A)CAAHEP
B)ABHES
C)ASCP
D)NCCPA
Answer: C
Q3) Pilates and Tai Chi are 2 types of A)Hypnotherapy
B)Ayurveda
C)Movement therapies
D)Biofeedback
Answer: C
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Q1) Focus on office management during the third year of employment.
A) long-term goal
B) short-term goal
Answer: A
Q2) Enroll in office management classes.
A) long-term goal
B) short-term goal
Answer: B
Q3) Who was the theorist who proposed the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) theory that adaptation to stress occurs in four stages?
A)Abraham Maslow
B)Martin Johnson
C)Hans Selye
D)Christian Seyle
Answer: C
Q4) Add front office administrative tasks and skills to the routine during second year of employment.
A) long-term goal
B) short-term goal
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the major reason communication is of the utmost importance in the health care setting?
A)Patients prefer a friendly office.
B)Patients are more satisfied.
C)Communication serves as the foundation for all patient care.
D)The medical assistant obtains a better history.
Q2) Which of the following is an example, according to the culture of the United States, of what is considered a comfortable personal space in an intimate setting?
A)1/2 foot
B)1 1/2 feet
C)1 foot
D)1 1/2 to 4 feet
Q3) Which of the following is the type of question that is frequently asked by individuals seeking a new physician and clinic?
A)Does the doctor see patients on time?
B)Does the doctor give good injections?
C)Will the doctor prescribe what I want?
D)Will the doctor listen to what I have to say?
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an Asian expression of pain?
A)General terms of relating the imbalance of the body
B)Descriptive words such as piercing or throbbing
C)Description of disturbances of the mind
D)Describing pain on a scale of 1 to 10
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic response by the medical assistant to a patient with a life-threatening illness?
A)Capitalize on the patient's strengths.
B)Build on the patient's own culture and coping abilities.
C)Maintain hope.
D)Show continued care and concern.
E)All of the above
Q3) Palliative care focuses on
A)medications and transfusions.
B)VSED choices.
C)aid in dying.
D)relief of pain and stress.
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Q1) Which of the following is a written order naming a specific date, time, and reason to appear in court?
A)Contract
B)Testimony
C)Tort
D)Subpoena
Q2) Which of the following best describes the purpose of a statute of limitations?
A)Maximum monetary award for patients who collect from physicians found guilty of negligence
B)Period of time or a deadline for initiating legal action
C)Limitations on the practice of referring by physicians
D)Limitation on the number of medical records providers can keep
Q3) Which of the following best describes the tort applicable to the injury to another person's reputation, name, or character through written words?
A)Battery
B)Libel
C)Invasion of privacy
D)Slander
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Q1) On the subject of ethics regarding abortion, which of the following is true?
A)A physician cannot be forced to perform an abortion.
B)Employees may be forced to assist in an abortion if instructed by the physician to do so.
C)A woman does not have a legal right to an abortion in the first trimester.
D)None of the above.
Q2) Hospice discourages
A)CPR
B)IV therapy
C)Feeding tubes
D)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following best describes the principles of ethical and moral conduct set forth as they relate to the medical assistant?
A)AAMA Code of Ethics
B)Principles as outlined by the provider or employer
C)Hippocratic oath
D)Code of Hammurabi
Q4) A provider charges a patient for multiple or complex insurance forms.
A) ethical
B) unethical

9
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Q1) incision
A) tissue torn and uneven
B) superficial scraping
C) skin or part torn off
D) sharp object injury
Q2) Jane, a patient in the clinic, comes in with a jagged 3-inch open laceration on her hand, which she calmly shows to you.What is your first priority for care?
A)Establish the need for sutures.
B)Take the patient history.
C)Minimize risk of infection.
D)Give a tetanus injection.
E)Calm the patient.
Q3) Which of the following statements is false regarding burns?
A)First-degree burns usually heal within a month, and some scarring may occur.
B)A second-degree burn involves the epidermis and dermis.
C)Blisters form with second-degree burns.
D)Third-degree burns affect or destroy all layers of the skin.
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Q1) Which of the following applies to the number of employees necessary in order to require a business to be in compliance with the ADA?
A)2
B)5
C)15
D)50
Q2) Which of the following best describes where patients may feel most comfortable discussing conditions, procedures, or treatments?
A)Providers's office
B)Reception area
C)Examination room
D)Laboratory area
Q3) Which of the following best describes making facilities and equipment available to all users?
A)Facilitation
B)Debilitating
C)Accessibility
D)Empowerment
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Q1) Which of the following best describes how computer equipment should be set up to minimize the occurrence of injury?
A)Place the top of the monitor just above eye level.
B)Position feet in firm contact with floor.
C)Sit with thighs below knees.
D)Adjust seat backs slightly forward.
Q2) Viruses find their way onto a system through which of the following?
A)Opening e-mail attachments
B)Opening unauthorized software
C)Downloading programs from the Internet
D)All of the above
Q3) As of 2013, CDC data showed what percentage of clinic based providers adopted some form of EMR?
A)78%
B)85%
C)90%
D)70%
Q4) standard telephone modem (dial-up)
A) hardwired system
B) wireless system
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Q1) pharmaceutical sale representative
A) medical assistant
B) provider
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a consideration to use for effective message taking?
A)Use a standard message pad with a carbonless copy.
B)Always attach a patient's message to the chart before putting it on the provider's desk.
C)May discuss the patient's condition with the caller
D)When you take a message, give callers an approximate callback time.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the FAX machine in a clinic setting?
A)send reports
B)send referrals
C)send/receive insurance approval
D)send PHI without encryption and specified agreement between parties
Q4) Which is not a type of VoIP service?
A)Protocol connection
B)Computer/computer
C)IP phone
D)Analog telephone adapter
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an interpersonal skill required for a person scheduling appointments?
A)Acting in a hurried manner
B)Being able to reduce anxiety
C)Being attentive
D)Being sensitive to the patients' needs
Q2) Which of the following describes an action of the medical assistant that best facilitates service to the patient when scheduling a procedure?
A)Provides the patient with a phone number of the facility.
B)Informs the patient that the facility will contact them.
C)Gets workable dates and times and schedules the appointment for the patient.
D)Provides the patient with directions to the facility.
Q3) Which of the following best describes a behavior indicating to the patient that their time is valued?
A)Impress the patient with your business manner.
B)Acknowledge his presence when he arrives.
C)Demonstrate a cool, detached atmosphere.
D)Provide restful music in the waiting room.
E)Allow only the allotted time for the visit.
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Q1) The middle pair of digits in the middle-digit filing system are considered which of the following?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Third
D)None of the above
Q2) have straight and terminal systems
A) alphabetic filing
B) numeric filing
Q3) labels assigned to each file
A) alphabetic filing
B) numeric filing
Q4) Which of the following best describes the tab-alpha system?
A)Lateral moveable files
B)Combination of 13 colors
C)Full-cut folders and a color-coded label
D)Ten colors and 1/3-cut folders
Q5) used when a limited number of files is accessed
A) alphabetic filing
B) numeric filing
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Q1) Where are enclosure notations, if applicable, keyed in a letter?
A)Three lines above the reference initials
B)One line above the reference initials
C)One or two lines below the reference initials
D)Three lines below the reference initials
Q2) What is the style of this letter?
A)Full block
B)Modified block
C)Hanging block
D)Simplified
Q3) Which of the following is the correct number of lines required between the inside address and salutation?
A)None
B)One
C)Two
D)Three
Q4) anurysm
A) spelled correctly
B) spelled incorrectly
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Q1) In order to become a CMT, you must take a voluntary examination from the:
A)AAMA
B)AMT
C)AHDI
D)AMA
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about transcribing chart notes?
A)They are a concise description of the patient's encounter with the office.
B)They are chronologically listed.
C)They may chronicle the details of a surgical procedure performed in a hospital.
D)They may include in-person visits to the office.
E)They may include telephone inquiries.
Q3) number and types of views taken
A) radiology report
B) operative report
C) autopsy report
D) pathology report
E) H & P
F) consultation
G) discharge summary
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the state or regional organization that handles Medicare claims?
A)Health maintenance organization
B)Social security office
C)Fiscal intermediary
D)Senior citizens' association
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a category for referrals?
A)Post-dated
B)Regular
C)Urgent
D)STAT
Q3) When a person has both Medicare and Medicaid insurance, charges are submitted first to:
A)Medicare, then last to Medicaid
B)Medicaid only
C)Medicaid, then to Medicare
D)You can not have both Medicare and Medicaid insurances at the same time
Q4) usually can go outside provider network
A) managed care
B) traditional
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Q1) Which of the following is a convention used when there is not enough information to find a more specific code?
A)NEC
B)NOS
C)V codes
D)E codes
Q2) Which of the following applies to the coding book used for specifying services and procedures performed in the medical office?
A)ICD-9-CM
B)RBRVS
C)CPT
D)EOB
Q3) How many diagnosis codes will the preceding scenario require?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
E)Five
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Q1) Which of the following is a primary advantage to accepting credit cards?
A)No fees are paid.
B)Confidentiality is not a problem.
C)Money is not a problem.
D)Money is available within 24 hours or so.
Q2) In the case of divorced parents and blended families, which parent is considered to be the guarantor and is responsible for payment?
A)Father
B)Parent with physical custody
C)Mother
D)Parent with the earliest birth date
Q3) Which of the following best classifies the adjustment column in the accounting process and its effect on the balance due?
A)Credit column; increases balance
B)Debit column; decreases balance
C)Neutral; no change to balance
D)Debit column; increases balance
E)Credit column; decreases balance
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Q1) Which of the following must the collection of fees be directed to when a patient dies?
A)Executor of the estate
B)Small claims court
C)Probate court
D)Deceased's insurance carrier
Q2) Which of the following questions would NOT be helpful in developing a credit and collection policy?
A)What kind of payment arrangements can be made if the patient does not pay at the time of service?
B)How would a reminder initially be managed: by telephone, by a note on the statement, or by letter?
C)At what point will a patient's bill be considered delinquent?
D)What is the most convenient time of the month for patients to make a payment?
Q3) Match the appropriate description with the federal regulation.
Fair Debt Collection Practices Act
A) legal guidelines governing telephone collections
B) shows installment payments and interest agreements
C) bankruptcy laws
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a true statement about a computerized accounting system?
A)Can be customized to the individual care setting
B)Replaces all other systems immediately
C)Can include the most common procedure and diagnostic codes
D)Automatically creates day-end summaries
Q2) Which of the following is the recommended turnaround time of an efficient billing and collections policy?
A)1 month or less
B)2 months or less
C)1 week
D)6 months
Q3) Total monthly receipts are $50,000 and total monthly charges are $60,000 for the same month.Which of the following percents is the collection ratio?
A)95%
B)87%
C)83%
D)120%
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Q1) Which of the following links in the infection cycle would be broken by cleansing and sterilization?
A)Portal of exit
B)Portal of entry
C)Mode of transmission
D)Infectious agent
E)Susceptible host
Q2) The science that studies the history, cause, and patterns of infectious diseases is known as what?
A)Histology
B)Diseaseology
C)Epidemiology
D)Infectology
Q3) touching
A) blood-borne
B) inhalation
C) ingestion
D) direct contact
E) vector
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Q1) assessment
A) weigh subjective and objective findings
B) vital signs
C) symptoms and patient's complaint
D) further tests and treatment
Q2) Which of the following is NOT included on the patient's medical history form?
A)Present health history
B)Body systems review
C)Insurance history
D)Social history
Q3) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when the patient comes into the office for a singular problem and wants to discuss many problems with the physician?
A)List all the problems under chief complaint.
B)Remind the patient that the physician's time is limited, but he will try and accommodate if possible.
C)Tell the patient not to worry because the physician will meet all his needs.
D)Tell the patient more time is needed and reschedule the appointment.
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Q1) Occasionally, as with medication dosages, the MA may be required to convert pound weight into kilogram weight.To do so they must know which of the following?
A)1 kg = 1.2 pounds
B)1 kg = 2.2 pounds
C)1 kg = 2.1 pounds
D)1 kg = 1.1 pounds
Q2) Which of the following is the most important action when taking an oral temperature using a digital thermometer?
A)Instruct the patient to leave the mouth slightly open.
B)Ask the patient to rinse the mouth with tepid water.
C)Cover the thermometer with a sheath.
D)Use a probe that has been disinfected.
Q3) Which of the following is the average normal range of adult diastolic blood pressure?
A)30-50 mmHg
B)60-80 mmHg
C)110-140 mmHg
D)140-180 mmHg
E)70-100 mmHg
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Q1) jaundice
A) yellow
B) white patches
C) blue
D) no color
Q2) used for abdominal examinations
A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Fowler's
E) Proctologic
Q3) Which of the following best describes the major role of the medical assistant in draping the patient?
A)To decrease patient anxiety
B)To examine selected areas efficiently
C)To maintain modesty
D)To prevent contamination
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a maternal sign and symptom of labor complications?
A)Heavy vaginal bleeding
B)Sudden drop in blood pressure
C)Headache
D)Vaginal discharge
E)Visual change
Q2) Which of the following terms applies to the surgical procedure of dilating and scraping the cervix of endometrial tissue?
A)Vaginotomy
B)Culdoscopy
C)Dilation and curettage
D)Hysteropexy
E)Evacuation
Q3) alpha fetal fetoprotein
A) produces an image of the fetus
B) takes a sample of tissue
C) used to rule out neural tube defects
D) takes a fluid sample for congenital anomalies
E) aspirates blood from fetal umbilical cord vessels
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Q1) Which of the following is the normal range in inches for newborn head circumference?
A)10.5 to 12.5 inches
B)11.5 to 13.5 inches
C)12.5 to 14.5 inches
D)14.5 to 16.5 inches
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant when a patient is suspected of being a victim of child abuse?
A)Leave it out of documentation.
B)Notify the local child protective agency.
C)Alert the parents' clergy of your suspicions.
D)Ask the parents about it.
Q3) Which of the following is the name of the vaccine given for chickenpox?
A)DPT
B)IPV
C)HiB
D)HBV
E)Varicella
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Q1) Which of the following is a method of diagnosing testicular cancer after palpating the testicle and finding a mass?
A)Digital rectal examination
B)Colonoscopy
C)Ultrasound
D)Biopsy
Q2) Which of the following is a surgery to excise the testicle?
A)Anorchism
B)Orchiectomy
C)Cryptorchidism
D)Hydrocele
Q3) What test would a physician do first to help determine whether there is some pathology of the prostate?
A)Urinalysis
B)Testicular exam
C)Digital rectal exam
D)PSA test
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Q1) According to the National Institute on Aging, which is not considered to be a tip for healthy aging?
A)Eat a well balanced diet.
B)Spend more time alone.
C)Exercise regularly.
D)Get regular checkups.
Q2) Which of the following can be prevented by encouraging fluid intake and physical activity to keep the lungs healthy?
A)Urethritis
B)Cardiovascular problems
C)Pneumonia
D)Vaginitis
E)Incontinence
Q3) lack of personal care
A) psychological
B) physical
Q4) welts
A) psychological
B) physical
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Q1) spirometry
A) urinary
B) respiratory
C) musculoskeletal
D) circulatory
E) sensory
F) blood and lymph
Q2) gout
A) urinary
B) digestive
C) sensory
D) circulatory
E) musculoskeletal
Q3) rickets
A) urinary
B) digestive
C) sensory
D) circulatory
E) musculoskeletal
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Q1) used to probe into a body cavity or wound
A) scopes
B) scalpel
C) bayonet forceps
D) retractors
E) probes
Q2) device used to cut the skin
A) scopes
B) scalpel
C) bayonet forceps
D) retractors
E) probes
Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of the medical asepsis handwashing procedure?
A)Wash hands and wrists.
B)Hold hands up while rinsing.
C)Wash 1 to 2 minutes.
D)Apply lotion.
Q4) used to provide padding and protection
A) dressing
B) bandage
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Q1) A technique that allows radiologic procedures to be done without using regular x-ray film is known as what?
A)Computed radiography
B)Computer tomography
C)Magnetic reasoning
D)Ultrasound
Q2) Which of the following is NOT included in patient preparation for a barium enema?
A)Special diet
B)No water
C)Laxative
D)Enemas
Q3) Which of the following must be of the highest resolution more than any other x-ray?
A)Ultrasound
B)Mammogram
C)Flat plate
D)CT scan
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Q1) Paralysis of one side of the body resulting from a stroke, accident, or other condition is known as what?
A)Hemiplegia
B)Paraplegia
C)Semiplegia
D)Quadriplegia
Q2) A method of using electric current to stimulate nerves is known as what?
A)ONES
B)TENS
C)FOURS
D)FIVES
Q3) Which of the following should be remembered when performing range-of-motion exercises on a patient?
A)Support the limb at the joint.
B)Do each movement only one time.
C)Position the patient in the supine position.
D)Use quick movements.
E)Have the patient go past the point of pain.
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Q1) The function of which of these nutrients is to build and repair tissues?
A)Minerals
B)Vitamins
C)Proteins
D)Carbohydrates
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about the food guide pyramid?
A)It is only for sick people.
B)There are four basic food groups.
C)You can eat any amount of the foods on it that you want.
D)It contains quantities of foods you should eat from each group.
Q3) Which of the following can result from bulimia?
A)Dental caries
B)Amenorrhea
C)Alopecia
D)Low blood pressure
Q4) Which of the following includes lignin, cellulose, gums, and pectins?
A)Fibers
B)Carbohydrates
C)Fat
D)Minerals

35
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Q1) Which of the following are common compounds extracted from the adrenal glands of animals?
A)Aminophylline and adrenalin
B)Adrenalin and digoxin
C)Cortisone and adrenalin
D)Cortisone and digoxin
E)Aminophylline and cortisone
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a true statement?
A)The generic name is the official name of the drug.
B)The brand name begins with a capital letter.
C)The chemical name indicates the molecular structure.
D)Each drug has only one name.
Q3) Which of the following are members of the health care team who are permitted to administer medications under the licensed practitioner's supervision?
A)Clinic receptionists
B)Pharmacists
C)Medical assistants
D)Pharmacy technicians
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Q1) Why is choosing the proper site for injections important?
A)Ensures the medication is delivered to the correct tissue type.
B)Pain and swelling are avoided.
C)Quantities can be given in specific sites.
D)All injections can be given only in certain tissue.
Q2) Which of the following injections does NOT require stretching the skin taut?
A)Intramuscular
B)Subcutaneous
C)Intradermal
D)None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a procedure to follow when a medication error occurs?
A)Recognize the error.
B)Assess the patient's condition.
C)Report the error immediately to the physician.
D)Documenting the error in the medical record is not necessary as long as the provider is notified.
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Q1) Where does deoxygenated blood enter the heart?
A)Pulmonary artery
B)Pulmonary vein
C)Right atrium
D)Right ventricle
Q2) Which of the following tests requires injecting the patient with a radioactive substance?
A)Echocardiogram
B)Electrocardiogram
C)Coronary artery bypass
D)Thallium stress test
Q3) Which of the following best describes the function of standardization of the EKG machine?
A)To set machine timing
B)To determine whether the machine is set and working properly
C)To check for artifacts
D)To determine the correct placement of chest electrodes
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Q1) no moderate complexity tests are performed by the provider
A) COW
B) PPMP
C) Registration
D) Accreditation
E) Compliance
Q2) conducts moderate and high-complexity testing
A) COW
B) PPMP
C) Registration
D) Accreditation
E) Compliance
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a goal that must be accomplished in order to comply with OSHA standards for the chemical hygiene plan?
A)Inventory of all hazardous chemicals
B)Assembling a materials safety data sheet (MSDS)
C)Providing education before an employee handles any hazardous chemicals
D)Providing education within 90 days of employment
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the purpose of using oil immersion?
A)Decrease magnification
B)Scatter light rays throughout the field
C)Multiply ocular lens magnification
D)Visualize all objects in the field
Q2) When using the microscope, how is the focus adjusted?
A)Use coarse adjustment with high power.
B)Visualize objects first with the coarse adjustment.
C)Use low power before high power.
D)Focus object initially with fine adjustment.
Q3) Which of the following is true about an electron microscope?
A)Can be used for visualization of viruses
B)Most often found in small clinics
C)Requires no special training
D)None of the above
Q4) cholesterol, triglycerides, HDL, and LDL
A) arthritis
B) general health
C) lipid
D) obstetric

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Q1) Place the steps of blood clotting in correct sequence as it occurs.? 1.calcium utilized
4.fibrinogen converts to fibrin?
2)clot forms5.prothrombin converts to thrombin?
3)uncoagulated blood
A)3, 1, 5, 4, 2
B)3, 1, 4, 5, 2
C)2, 1, 4, 5, 3
D)3, 2, 1, 5, 4
Q2) Which of the following is in a mixture of blood obtained from capillary puncture specimens?
A)Blood from arterioles
B)Blood from venules
C)Interstitial fluid
D)All the above
Q3) This has vacuum in the tubes.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
Q4) Pull gently with plunger.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
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Q1) Which of the following best defines hematology?
A)Study of blood chemistry
B)Study of blood proteins
C)Study of blood plasma
D)Study of blood cells
Q2) Which of the following is the normal value for a platelet count?
A)20,000-50,000
B)50,000-100,000
C)150,000-450,000
D)400,000-600,000
Q3) anisocytosis
A) Cells show marked variation in shape.
B) Cells show marked variation in size.
C) Cells have proper amount of hemoglobin.
D) Cells have large, pale central area.
Q4) Which of the following blood cells is NOT a granulocyte?
A)Eosinophil
B)Neutrophil
C)Lymphocyte
D)Basophil
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT included in the quality control of reagent strips?
A)Do not expose to moisture.
B)Keep in the original container.
C)Keep away from direct sunlight.
D)Keep in the refrigerator.
Q2) Which area on the reagent test strip would be positive, indicating an infection and its presence in a urine sample?
A)Specific gravity
B)Leukocytes
C)Ketones
D)Urobilinogen
Q3) Which of the following is the most frequently performed procedure in the medical office laboratory?
A)Hematology
B)Urinalysis
C)Chemistry
D)Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the use of a culturette tube?
A)Transporting stool samples
B)Keeping the swab moist
C)Transporting blood specimens
D)All the above
Q2) Which of the following is the KOH used for testing?
A)Gram positive bacteria
B)Acid-fast bacteria
C)Fungi and spores
D)Stool specimens
Q3) Which of the following is NOT given out as patient education to relieve discomfort and help patients toward better health?
A)Dress comfortably according to the weather.
B)Avoid tobacco.
C)Cough or sneeze into a tissue.
D)Decrease water intake.
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Q1) Pregnancy testing is based upon the detection of which hormone?
A)FSH
B)LH
C)hCG
D)TEH
Q2) Insulin is secreted by pancreatic cells in response to ____ glucose levels, and glucagon is secreted in response to ____ glucose levels.
A)Increased, decreased
B)Increased, increased
C)Decreased, increased
D)Decreased, decreased
Q3) Which of the following may or may not affect sperm function as measured by sperm analysis?
A)Cytoxan
B)Orchitis
C)Testicular atrophy
D)Alcohol
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT describe an advantage of teamwork in the office?
A)It builds problem-solving skills.
B)It flatters the team members.
C)It improves office efficiency and morale.
D)It encourages independence.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of the brainstorming process?
A)Everyone contributes ideas for a solution.
B)All of the possible solutions are reviewed for workability.
C)Solutions are prioritized.
D)A needs assessment is performed.
E)One person is assigned to implement a solution.
Q3) Which type of marketing tool would be most effective to announce new staff, promote a new service, or publicize a series of seminars?
A)Newsletter
B)Brochure
C)Press release
D)Special events
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Q1) Which of the following would the human resources manager most likely NOT look for when reviewing résumés?
A)Supplemental education received
B)Training related to the position
C)Unexplained gaps in employment
D)Age, sex, and race of applicant
Q2) OSHA mandates which of the following?
A)Employees must receive equal pay for equal work.
B)Employees must be protected from all risks.
C)Employees must be aware of risks associated with chemical hazards.
D)Employees must wear HazMat suits at all times.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the law that requires employers to verify the right of employees to work in the United States?
A)Immigration Reform Act
B)Equal Pay Act
C)Civil Rights Act
Q4) employment issues
A) policy manual
B) procedures manual
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Q1) Which of the following organizations awards the Certified Medical Assistant credential?
A)American Association of Medical Assistants
B)National Healthcareer Association
C)American Medical Technologists
D)Committee on Accreditation of Health Education Programs
Q2) Which of the following is the name of the National Healthcareer Association (NHA) newsletter?
A)The NHA today
B)CMA today
C)Professional Medical Assistant
D)Journal of Continuing Education Topics & Issues
Q3) Which of the following is the name of the official bimonthly magazine of the American Association of Medical Assistants for certified medical assistants?
A)Certified Medical Assistant News
B)CMA Today
C)American Medical News
D)Professional Medical Assistant
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the type of résumé that highlights an applicant's accomplishments and strengths?
A)Targeted
B)Functional
C)Chronological
Q2) Which of the following best describes the type of résumé useful for focusing on a specific job target?
A)Targeted
B)Functional
C)Chronological
Q3) In order to determine the best qualified candidate, employers use software that searches for specific keywords in a textrésumé.Which of the following wound NOT be considered a keyword:
A)Salary requirement
B)Job-specific skills
C)Technologic terms
D)Types of degrees
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