Medical Law and Ethics Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Law and Ethics explores the legal frameworks and ethical principles that govern medical practice and healthcare decision-making. The course examines topics such as consent to treatment, patient confidentiality, professional negligence, end-of-life care, reproductive rights, and emerging challenges from advances in medical technology. Students will analyze landmark cases, statutes, and ethical theories to develop a critical understanding of how legal and moral considerations intersect in clinical settings. Emphasis is placed on applying these principles to real-world scenarios, preparing students to address complex dilemmas faced by healthcare professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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51 Chapters
4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Those actions that identify the medical assistant as a member of a healthcare profession, including dependability, respectful patient care, initiative, positive attitude, and teamwork
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: C
Q2) The way an individual looks at information and sees it as real
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: F
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ therapists are trained to use oxygen therapy and to measure lung capacity.
Answer: Respiratory
Respiratory therapists use oxygen therapy and measure lung capacity.
Q2) Which two scientists developed a vaccine that brought polio under control?
A) Helen Taussig and Alfred Blalock
B) Albert Sabin and Jonas Salk
C) Alexander Fleming and Howard Florey
D) Walter Reed and Sir Frederick Grant Banting
Answer: B
Q3) What type of registered nurse has advanced training to diagnose and treat common illnesses?
A) Anesthetist
B) Practitioner
C) Dietician
D) Practical
Answer: B
Q4) Podiatrists care for the patient's __________.
Answer: feet
Podiatrists are educated in caring for the feet, including surgical treatment.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best way for new medical assistant graduates to become good team players in the medical office?
A) Show consideration and appreciation for each member of the staff.
B) Share what they learned in school about the latest techniques in healthcare.
C) Be careful to perform only the tasks in their job description and no other duties.
D) Try to develop close friendships with everyone on the staff after working hours.
Answer: A
Q2) If Meredith makes a list of the tasks that need to be done today, she is practicing A) insubordination.
B) professionalism.
C) prioritization.
D) time management.
Answer: C
Q3) The __________ examination is offered as a certification for medical assistants by the AMT.
Answer: RMA
The AMT offers the RMA examination.
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is always helpful to have a(n) ____________ staff member to communicate with patients who speak another language.
Q2) Which of the following can be a channel in linear communication?
A) Spoken word
B) Written message
C) Body language
D) E-mail message
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following can be overcome with facts about the source of social bias?
A) Prejudice
B) Stereotyping
C) Highly abrasive patients
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
A) What is the name of your insurance carrier?
B) What is your date of birth?
C) How have you been getting along?
D) What pharmacy do you prefer?
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Presumed consent is also called ________ consent.
A) written
B) verbal
C) implied
D) informed
Q2) The science and philosophy of law is called jurisprudence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A sum imposed as punishment for an offense is called a(n) __________.
Q4) Which of the following conditions does not support classification of a minor by the courts as emancipated?
A) The minor wants to enter the armed forces.
B) The minor is married.
C) The minor is self-supporting.
D) The minor lives separate and apart from parents or a legal guardian.
Q5) Once a patient has decided to file a lawsuit against a physician, the first step is to find a(n) __________ to accept the case.
Q6) Consent, usually written, that states understanding of what treatment is to be undertaken and the risks involved with such treatment is called __________ consent.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An obligation that people have or perceive themselves to have is called a(n)
A) duty.
B) reparation.
C) right.
D) opinion.
Q2) Although attorneys often accept clients on a(n) ______________ fee basis, it is unethical for a physician to do so.
Q3) According the AMA's code of ethics, which of the following is acceptable?
A) Payment by or to a physician for the referral of a patient
B) Contingency fees
C) Fee based on the value of service provided
D) All of the above
Q4) The physician involved in caring for a patient should be an advocate for the family rather than for the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A devotion to or conformity with the truth is called ____________.
Q6) __________ are defined as claims that a person or group makes on society.
Q7) ____________ waiver of insurance co-payments may violate the policies of some insurers.
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electronic medical record makes the physician's office more efficient and patient information more accessible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The EHR software contains limited information, usually related to medical treatment for one healthcare facility. The EMR allows sharing of information with other providers outside the facility, including medical laboratories, nursing homes, hospitals, and specialists.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Which of the following keyboards helps reduce repetitive strain injuries by minimizing muscle strain?
A) QWERTY keyboard
B) Wireless keyboard
C) Split-key layout
D) Waved or curved key layout
E) Both C and D
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant can refer patients to an Internet map if they call for directions to the physician's office.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Referrals to other physicians should always be __________ in the patient's medical record.
Q3) Which of the following greetings is recommended as appropriate for handling incoming calls in an extremely busy medical office?
A) "Good morning. This is Dr. Bewell's office. Ms. Blakely speaking."
B) "Dr. Bewell's office. Ms. Blakely speaking."
C) "Thank you for calling Dr. Bewell's office. This is Tina."
D) "Dr. Bewell's office."
Q4) Call __________ allows the user to send calls to another designated number, such as a cell phone.
Q5) The medical assistant should use medical jargon with patients and lay terms with physicians and other medical personnel.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The continental United States is divided into __________ standard time zones.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be removed from the reception area as quickly as possible?
A) Talkative patients
B) Angry patients
C) Children
D) Patients' relatives
Q2) The medical assistant should follow all the following practices regarding patient arrivals except
A) personally escorting patients from reception to the appropriate room.
B) telling patients the specific items of clothing to remove.
C) explaining exactly how to put on the exam gown.
D) having patients wait in the examination room instead of the waiting room.
Q3) It is possible to violate patient ______________ when using a sign-in register.
Q4) A patient's anger may be a reflection of his or her pain or __________ of what the physician may discover during the examination.
Q5) A parent normally accompanies a child in the exam room unless the parent is suspected of _________________.
Q6) Sign-in sheets should not list the __________ for the patient's office visit.
Q7) Uncertainty in new surroundings can often create ____________.
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inventories of computer hardware, calculators, and copiers for tax purposes are
A) deducted as a practice expense for the year in which they are purchased.
B) depreciated over 2 years.
C) depreciated over 5 years.
D) depreciated over 7 years.
Q2) Which type of special postal service would you use for a heavy, expensive piece of medical equipment being returned to the manufacturer for a refund?
A) Registered
B) First class
C) Certified
D) Special delivery
Q3) Which of the following is a monthly activity?
A) Restock rooms
B) Organize reading materials in rooms
C) Disinfect toys in patient waiting areas
D) Inventory emergency supplies
Q4) Mail sent within the Unites States and its territories is called ___________ mail.
Q5) Thieves usually approach a physician's office to steal money or ____________.
Q6) A(n) _____________ is a list of items ordered and items shipped.
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who ultimately decides whether a medical record can be released?
A) The physician
B) The office manager
C) The medical assistant
D) The patient
Q2) The type of electronic record of health-related information about a patient that conforms to nationally recognized interoperability standards and that can be created, managed, and consulted by authorized clinicians and staff from more than one healthcare organization is a(n)
A) EMH.
B) EHR.
C) EMR.
D) PHI.
Q3) The software of an EHR system can be designed to be compatible with a medical specialty office, such as pediatrics or oncology.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The business care and prudence expected from a person seeking to satisfy a legal requirement under similar circumstances is called ________________.
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following codes will be used for a patient with a history of myocardial infarction with no symptoms but diagnosed by means of an electrocardiogram?
A) Category I21
B) Code I25.2
C) Code I21.3
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following terms defines a malignant neoplasm site as the absence of invasion of surrounding tissues?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) In situ
D) Benign
Q3) When coding for drug toxicity, which of the following refers to a condition when a patient takes less of a medication than is prescribed by his or her provider or by the manufacturer's instructions?
A) Adverse effect
B) Poisoning
C) Underdosing
D) Toxic effect
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Downcoding and upcoding are illegal practices, and medical assistants can be prosecuted for either practice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Downcoding can increase reimbursements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chest x-ray examination, single view, frontal
A) 71000
B) 71100
C) 71010
D) 71011
Q4) Triglycerides
A) 84476
B) 84477
C) 84478
D) 84479
Q5) Some physicians must __________ patient care among several different providers.
Q6) The state of the patient as either new or established is called the patient __________.
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under which of the following Medicare plans for primary care and specialists' services is the patient required to pay a monthly premium?
A) Part A
B) Part B
C) Part C
D) Part D
Q2) A review of individual cases by a committee to make sure that services are medically necessary and to study how providers use medical care resources is called a(n)
A) credentialing committee review.
B) peer review committee evaluation.
C) utilization review.
D) audit committee review.
Q3) The federal- and state-sponsored health insurance program for the medically indigent is called
A) Medicare.
B) Medicaid.
C) Medigap.
D) MediCal.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Claims that have errors or omissions that must be corrected and resubmitted to receive reimbursement are called _____________ claims.
A) clean
B) dirty
C) dingy
D) incomplete
Q2) The insured's address in block 7 refers to the __________ address.
A) patient's
B) spouse's
C) policyholder's
D) insurance carrier's
Q3) Procedure code modifiers are found in column __________ of block 24.
Q4) The primary insurance policy information is contained in block __________.
Q5) Procedures performed on the patient are found in what block?
A) 24a
B) 24b
C) 24d
D) 24e
Q6) The medical assistant should do everything possible to prevent claim
17
Q7) The charges for procedures are listed in column __________ of block 24.
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The STARK law imposes restrictions on which of the following?
A) Medicare Advance Beneficiary Notices
B) Professional courtesy
C) Fee for service
D) Billing minors
Q2) Accounts receivable are moneys that are expected but not yet received. All invoices, statements, and operational expenses are included in accounts receivable.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Which of the following are special bookkeeping entries?
A) Credit balances
B) Third-party payments
C) Refunds
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) The entire property of a person is said to be his or her __________.
Q6) Accounts __________ are debts incurred but not yet paid. Page 18
Q5) A record or notation of a transaction is called a(n) __________.
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person presenting a check for payment might be called the __________.
Q2) Checks received in the mail today include those for $87, $45, $88, and $100. What is the total check deposit for the day?
Q3) The country is divided into how many Federal Reserve districts?
A) 8
B) 10 C) 12 D) 14
Q4) The deposit is $450. The checkbook balance is $9,872.54. If one debit card transaction is completed on the account for $251.55, what is the balance in the account?
Q5) Any individual, corporation, or legal party who signs a check or any type of negotiable instrument is considered the A) maker.
B) payer.
C) drawer.
D) payee.
Q6) The deposits in cash today are $657 and the checks total $8,343. What is the total deposit?
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) An office with more than _________ employee(s) should have one person designated as a supervisor or office manager.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q2) The best time to terminate an employee is usually at the beginning of the day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a manager does not make a habit of writing formal reprimands to employees not performing as expected, insufficient evidence may be available to terminate their employment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person who is currently employed should never be approached to accept a new position.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When an organization has no checks and balances, it is easy to
power.
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Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an effort is made to create or change an attitude, belief, or perception through purchased broadcast time or print space, the company is usually
A) advertising.
B) conducting public relations.
C) performing public service.
D) None of the above
Q2) Patients should be treated the same way as the medical assistant would want to be treated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patient navigators are healthcare providers, so they can offer any type of medical advice and prescribe medication or therapy. The role of the patient navigator is to identify the barriers to healthcare and work with the health insurance system to overcome these obstacles.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q4) _____________ boxes are a great way to get patient and employee input.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CDC recognizes the use of alcohol-based hand rubs as an adequate replacement for traditional hand washing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viral infections
A) are treated effectively with antibiotics.
B) include malaria and gonorrhea.
C) are treated with a focus on palliative care.
D) may form spores.
Q3) If the eyes come in contact with body fluids, continuously flush the eyes with water as soon as possible for a minimum of 5 minutes using an eye wash unit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The medical term for hives is rhinitis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most effective treatment for viral infections is palliative in nature.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information that you gather from a patient interview is considered A) subjective.
B) objective.
C) assessment.
D) evaluation.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of holistic patient care?
A) The focus of care is the patient's disease process.
B) The physician considers the patient's ability to pay for treatment.
C) The patient's emotional state is investigated.
D) The medical assistant investigates lifestyle factors that may contribute to disease.
Q3) Children should always be given a choice whether to take their medication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The size and shape of a wound would be included in the objective area of the progress notes of SOAPE documentation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the four sections of the POMR.
Q6) Identify the legal and ethical issues associated with the medical record.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following locations is an appropriate place for learning?
A) Waiting room
B) Exam rooms
C) Front desk
D) All of the above
Q2) Which statement is true about Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's stages of grief model?
A) Most patients are ready to learn about disease process immediately after diagnosis.
B) Some patients respond to a disturbing diagnosis with anger toward the physician or medical assistant.
C) Family members of adult patients do not need to be included in education interventions.
D) Most patients reach acceptance of a serious health condition within a few days.
Q3) Demonstration/return demonstration is an effective method of teaching a patient with diabetes how to give insulin injections.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Diagram and explain how to develop and implement a patient teaching plan.
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25
Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unsaturated fats are heavier and denser than saturated fats.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vitamin C can be found in
A) meat and nuts.
B) dairy products.
C) raw vegetables.
D) citrus.
E) oils and butter.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an essential nutrient?
A) Vitamin D
B) Certain amino acids
C) Cholesterol
D) All of the above
Q4) Which health condition is related to stress?
A) Headaches
B) Hypertension
C) Diarrhea
D) All of the above
Q5) Describe the major factors that influence individual food choices.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your office uses thermometers that record temperatures in Celsius, but the mother of a young child doesn't understand what 38.6° Celsius means. Convert the temperature into Fahrenheit for her.
A) 99° F
B) 103.2° F
C) 101.5° F
D) 100.8° F
Q2) A common pediatric pulse arrhythmia that varies with breathing is called
A) intermittent pulse.
B) apnea.
C) sinus arrhythmia.
D) thready.
Q3) Which of the following pulses is palpated on the wrist?
A) Apical
B) Brachial
C) Carotid
D) Radial
E) Temporal
Q4) The thickening, decreased elasticity, and calcification of arterial walls is called
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical term for chewing food is mastication.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A deformity that is identified as gross in medical terminology is one that is particularly disgusting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the examination table, the medical assistant should always assist the patient on the person's strong side.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A percussion hammer is used for which part of the physical examination?
A) Neurologic
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Urinary
D) Respiratory
Q5) A positive skin turgor test result indicates that the patient is dehydrated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) St. John's wort is an effective treatment for severe depression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Schedule II prescriptions can be refilled only one time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lipitor is a powerful antihypertensive medication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) __________ is used for the treatment of allergic reactions.
Q5) Which of the following does NOT apply to Schedule II (C-II) prescriptions?
A) Must be either a written or an e-prescription
B) Cannot be refilled
C) Telephone or fax orders are permitted
D) May require specific types of order forms in some stores
Q6) Anabolic steroids are classified as Schedule III drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q7) __________ medications are used to delay or block blood clot formation.
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) One teaspoon is equal to _____ mL.
A) 5
B) 15
C) 30
D) 60
Q2) The __________ is the bottom number of a fraction.
Q3) Medications delivered from the pharmacy in individual doses are called __________ packs.
Q4) What is the formula D * Q/H used to calculate?
A) Drug doses
B) Conversions
C) Desired dose
D) Quantity of units
Q5) Your patient is to receive Precef 20 mg/kg every 12 hours. The patient weighs 88 pounds. What is the correct dose?
A) 500 mg
B) 600 mg
C) 800 mg
D) 1000 mg
Q6) The comparison of two ratios is called a(n) __________.
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) When giving an adult subcutaneous injection, you should not inject more than _____ mL into subcutaneous tissue.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 1.5
Q2) Which of the following needle gauges is most appropriate for intramuscular administration of a very viscous medication?
A) 16
B) 18
C) 21
D) 23
E) 27
Q3) Samantha Baxter has been prescribed progesterone transdermal patches for menopausal symptoms. Explain in detail the patient education Mrs. Baxter should receive so that she can administer her medication correctly.
Q4) The __________ of a medication is its thickness and its ability to move easily from a vial to an injection unit.
Q5) List and describe the seven rights of safe drug administration.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) On discovering an unresponsive person, the medical assistant first should assess the A) airway.
B) blood pressure.
C) heart sounds.
D) pulse.
E) skin color.
Q2) Which of the following emergency situations should be managed first?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Shock
C) Occluded airway
D) Severe chest pain
E) Fractured bone
Q3) The medical term for low blood sugar is __________.
Q4) You are responsible for placing and labeling biohazardous waste containers. Explain the methods for proper disposal of hazardous material in the physician's office.
Q5) Explain the steps that should be taken to maintain a safe work environment.
Q6) A person suffers from __________ if he or she excretes more water than is taken in.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a surgical procedure called __________, an excimer laser is used to treat refractive errors.
Q2) Conduction hearing loss can be caused by all of the following except A) impacted cerumen.
B) ototoxic medications.
C) fluid in the middle ear.
D) chronic ear infections.
Q3) A tympanogram can help detect the presence of fluid in the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient diagnosed with myopia has which refractive problem?
A) Light rays entering the eye focus behind the retina.
B) Light rays entering the eye focus in front of the retina.
C) The focusing of light rays entering the eye is irregular.
D) The eye has difficulty changing the point of focus from distance to near.
Q5) The __________ within the cochlea is lined with hairlike sensory cells; these cells are surrounded by nerve fibers that stimulate the eighth cranial nerve, resulting in sound.
Page 33
Q6) In ______________, heat is used to reshape the cornea in patients over age 40.
Q7) __________ eye drops are used to treat open-angle glaucoma.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells that are in a primitive form and are diagnostic of a cancer-producing tumor are called __________.
Q2) The presence of pseudopods indicates a positive reaction to allergen testing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following layers of skin is often referred to as the "true skin"?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Subcutaneous layer
D) All of the above
Q4) A benign tumor shows anaplastic changes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is a multiorgan, chronic, autoimmune inflammatory disease that affects connective tissue throughout the body.
Q6) Which is not an appropriate action when treating frostbite?
A) Using a heat source of up to 105° F
B) Taking time to monitor vital signs periodically during treatment
C) Warming the area with an external, even heat source
D) Gently rubbing the affected area
Page 34
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood vessels that surround the villi of the small intestine carry absorbed materials through the portal circulation to which organ?
A) Heart
B) Kidneys
C) Brain
D) Liver
Q2) If the result of occult blood screening is positive, the patient
A) has a serious condition that demands immediate medical attention.
B) has tested positive for cancer of the lower intestinal tract.
C) should have further tests to determine the cause.
D) has a large amount of blood leaving the body during elimination.
Q3) For each of the following diagnostic procedures of the GI system, list at least three instructions that should be included in patient teaching on how to prepare for the procedure:
a. UGI
b. Barium enema
c. Colonoscopy
d. Fecal occult blood screening
Q4) __________ are varicose veins of the anus and rectum.
Q5) The medical term for enlargement of the liver is __________.
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Syphilis is easily treated in the early stages with penicillin G.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cryptorchidism is
A) a hernia of the veins of the scrotum.
B) the surgical procedure to repair an undescended testicle.
C) a result of chronic STDs.
D) an undescended testicle.
Q3) Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is treated successfully with penicillin?
A) Chlamydia
B) Syphilis
C) Genital herpes
D) Genital warts
E) Both A and B
Q4) Surgical removal of the prostate gland is called
A) prostatitis.
B) prostatocystitis.
C) prostatolith.
D) prostatectomy.
Page 36
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone oxytocin stimulates milk ejection from the breast.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____________ describes an abnormal change in cellular size, shape, and appearance.
Q3) ____________ is the initial milk that is rich in nutrients and immune properties and is expressed from the breast immediately after the birth of an infant.
Q4) The most crucial period for fetal organ development is the third trimester.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Implanon implant is designed to prevent pregnancy for up to 3 years after insertion.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Salpingitis is a bacterial infection of the distal end of the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A woman is considered _____________ if she has had two or more pregnancies.
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Q8) Pregnancy is confirmed when the hormone __________ is found in the urine.
Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infants with a low-grade fever should not receive any immunizations until their temperature is normal.
A)True B)False
Q2) Adolescents stop growing when the epiphyseal plates of the long bones are no longer active.
A)True B)False
Q3) Fifth disease is caused by coxsackievirus and results in ulcer formation in the mouth and throat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You have learned a great deal in this chapter about how to interact therapeutically with children of all ages. Summarize the therapeutic approaches for infants, school-age children, and adolescent patients.
Q5) The Hib vaccine prevents _____________.
Q6) Bacterial meningitis is much more serious than viral meningitis.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diathermy is a deep heat therapy that can be used to treat muscle spasms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lateral curvature of the spinal column is known as
A) osteoporosis.
B) lordosis.
C) scoliosis.
D) kyphosis.
Q3) Which of the following specialized imaging techniques is used to assess bone density?
A) Arthogram
B) Bone scan
C) Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry
D) Computed tomography
E) Electromyography
Q4) A classic sign of osteoporosis is
A) anemia.
B) joint pain.
C) kyphosis.
D) scoliosis.
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Risk factors associated with TIAs include
A) hypertension.
B) smoking.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) carotid artery disease.
E) All of the above
Q2) Which statement is not true about brain tumors?
A) They are always primary tumors.
B) They may be a secondary growth from a tumor located elsewhere in the body.
C) Benign tumors can be fatal.
D) An eye exam reveals papilledema.
Q3) A phobia is an intense fear of something that is truly dangerous.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As a medical assistant working with patients with neurologic disorders, you must be able to recognize general symptoms of neurologic problems. Summarize five typical symptoms.
Q5) ALS can be cured if it is diagnosed early enough.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with _______________ has a deficiency of all the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary; therefore, the symptoms reflect systemic inactivity of all of the glands stimulated by the anterior pituitary hormones.
Q2) The thyroid gland will not function properly unless the anterior pituitary produces __________ to stimulate its action.
Q3) Which of the following is the most correct explanation of diabetes mellitus type 2?
A) The patient typically has no family history of diabetes.
B) It usually is seen only in patients over age 40.
C) Patients are at great risk of developing cardiovascular complications over time.
D) Patients with this type of diabetes will never have to take insulin for blood glucose control.
Q4) Patients with diabetes type 1 must take multiple oral or injected doses of insulin throughout the day.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is required for ovulation to occur.
Q6) Diabetic __________ is the leading cause of renal failure in the United States.
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Page 41
Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient is diagnosed with viral pneumonia, the WBC count will not be normal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Residual volume is the amount of air left in the lungs after forced expiration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What test is ordered to determine whether the pneumonia is viral or bacterial?
A) Chest x-ray
B) Sputum culture and sensitivity
C) White blood cell count
D) All of the above
Q4) A successful spirometry effort is one in which the patient
A) exhales slowly and continuously.
B) blows into the mouthpiece as hard and as fast as possible.
C) breathes normally into the machine for at least 5 minutes.
D) inhales and exhales repeatedly into the mouthpiece.
Q5) Inflammation of the membranes surrounding the lungs is called __________.
Q6) If pus accumulates in the pleural space, the patient is diagnosed with
42
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about a Doppler study?
A) It requires IV injection of a dye.
B) It picks up the speed of RBCs as they travel through the vessel.
C) It must be performed in a hospital.
D) All of the above are true.
Q2) Patients with an artificial heart valve may be prescribed lifelong antibiotic prophylaxis for invasive medical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of a calcium channel blocker is A) Cozaar.
B) Lotensin.
C) Cardizem.
D) Tenormin.
Q4) The most serious complication of a DVT in the saphenous vein is a PE. A)True B)False
Q5) Mevacor is an anticholesterol medication used to help prevent an MI.
A)True
B)False
43
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions may have signs and symptoms similar to those seen in dementia?
A) Depression
B) Side effects of OTC medications
C) Malnutrition
D) All of the above
Q2) List four risk factors that contribute to the development of osteoporosis.
Q3) Which of the following is/are true of age-related vision changes?
A) Patients require up to four times as much as light.
B) Glare is a serious problem.
C) Individuals have difficulty adjusting to abrupt changes in light.
D) Both B and C are true.
Q4) Aging patients may develop __________ because of a lack of dietary fiber and chronic constipation.
Q5) What is ranked as the leading cause of death among men and women?
A) Cancer
B) Heart disease
C) Diabetes
D) Obesity
Q6) __________ is the severe loss of intellectual ability.
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which deflection from the baseline represents the repolarization of the ventricles?
A) P wave
B) T wave
C) ST segment
D) QRS complex
Q2) The __________ leads use two limbs to record the heart's electrical activity.
A) augmented
B) standard
C) precordial
D) chest
Q3) Patients should not hold their breath during the brief seconds necessary to record an ECG.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient in V-fib does not have a pulse.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Lead __________ records the electrical activity between the left arm and the left leg.
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Buttons and thick seams in clothing may cause an artifact on an x-ray film.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Summarize the safety checks that should be performed before an x-ray image is taken.
Q3) The radioisotopes used in nuclear medicine cause the patient to become radioactive; this requires special precautions for family members.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You are concerned about the safety of working in a facility that performs x-ray studies on site. Which statement is true about your risk of radiation exposure as an employee in the facility?
A) The x-ray room collects radiation over time.
B) Scatter radiation is present at all times.
C) The only time a radiation hazard exists is during the x-ray exposure itself.
D) People consistently exposed to scatter radiation have a shortened life span.
Q5) Patients with cardiac pacemakers cannot have an MRI scan.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) For qualitative tests, a numeric value is attached to the result that specifically states the amount of analyte in a given volume of specimen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The clinical chemistry department performs which of the following tests?
A) Presence of ketones in urine
B) Cell morphology
C) Blood cell count
D) Lipid profile
Q3) Summarize methods that can be used to prevent physical hazards in the clinical laboratory.
Q4) The military clock time of 1735 hours corresponds to 5:35 AM on the Greenwich clock. A)True B)False
Q5) Specimens collected in the ambulatory care setting frequently are sent to a(n) __________ for analysis.
Q6) The clinical __________ department analyzes blood, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), urine, and joint fluid.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reagent strip is highly sensitive to
A) hemoglobin.
B) immunoglobulin.
C) urinary albumin.
D) mucoproteins.
Q2) The Clinitest is performed as a screening test for glycosuria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A cloudy urine specimen may be the result of which of the following?
A) Glycosuria
B) Ketones
C) Lipids
D) Crystals
Q4) When a woman enters menopause, the ovaries stop producing eggs and the levels of __________ rise.
Q5) Casts in a urine specimen develop in what part of the urinary tract?
A) Urethra
B) Renal
C) Bladder
D) Ureters
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leaving a tourniquet tied on a patient's arm for longer than the recommended time results in
A) syncope.
B) hemoconcentration.
C) hematoma formation.
D) bifurcation.
Q2) The clear part of whole blood that contains clotting agents is
A) plasma.
B) blood cells.
C) serum.
D) hemoglobin.
E) B and D.
Q3) Which of the following PPE is required by OSHA for healthcare workers to wear during venipuncture?
A) Gloves
B) Mask
C) Gown
D) All of the above
Q4) Describe the steps medical assistants must take to protect themselves and co-workers against needle-stick injuries.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a normal H&H for a female?
A) 30% and 11 g/dL
B) 36% and 14 g/dL
C) 52% and 17 g/dL
D) 35% and 11 g/dL
Q2) Which statement is true about HDL?
A) It transports cholesterol.
B) It is referred to as the "bad" cholesterol.
C) If elevated, it can result in a greater risk of heart disease.
D) All of the above are true.
Q3) In emergencies, if there is no time for the laboratory to perform a type and cross-match, which type of blood is administered?
A) Type A positive
B) Type B negative
C) Type AB positive
D) Type O negative
Q4) A(n) ________________ is performed by the immunohematology department to determine blood compatibility before a transfusion.
Q5) An RBC that is larger than normal is described as ______________.
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ are specific structures within a cell that perform a particular cellular function.
Q2) Which of the following pathogenic organisms are classified as eukaryotes?
A) Pathogenic fungi
B) Pathogenic protozoa
C) Helminths
D) All of the above
Q3) Protozoa often are identified with observation of __________, the microscopic capsule-like sacs that enclose them in the larval stage.
Q4) Sensitivity testing is used to determine
A) the susceptibility of a microorganism to antiviral treatment.
B) the patient's susceptibility to a particular pathogen.
C) a pathogen's susceptibility to a particular antibiotic.
D) All of the above
Q5) The rapid detection test that assists in the diagnosis of stomach ulcers detects
A) Clostridium perfringens.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Helicobacter pylori.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the system for identifying suture sizes.
Q2) How should instruments be handled after the surgery is complete?
A) Place heavier instruments at the bottom of a collection basin.
B) Keep all instruments locked to prevent accidental injury.
C) Wait until any blood on the instrument has dried before cleaning.
D) Use a detergent with a neutral pH that creates a high level of suds.
E) Both A and D are correct.
Q3) Match the Littauer scissors with the appropriate description and/or function. (Select all that apply.)
A) 4 to 5 inches long
B) Most frequently used length is 5 inches
C) Usual length is 4 inches
D) 5 to 6 inches long
E) Blade has beak or hook
F) Curved or straight blade tips
G) Used to cut and dissect fascia and muscle
H) Can be used as suture scissors
Q4) __________ forceps are available in different lengths and are used to grasp tissue, muscles, or skin surrounding a wound.
Q5) A trocar is placed within a(n) __________ to drain fluid.
Page 52
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reducing the number of microorganisms to a safe level is called A) sanitization.
B) disinfection.
C) sterilization.
Q2) The medical assistant should always keep the sterile field in view.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Very low temperatures are used in __________ to destroy tissue by freezing it on contact.
Q4) The medical assistant must never turn his or her back on a sterile field or wander away from it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Unwrapped items in an autoclave require more time for sterilization than wrapped items.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Outline the rules for setting up and maintaining a sterile field. Page 53
Q6) If correctly done, autoclaving destroys even __________, the dormant form of bacteria.
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) Performance __________ rarely give perfect ratings.
Q2) When developing a portfolio, which of the following can provide "evidence" of specific abilities and skills?
A) Reference documents
B) Certifications
C) Education-related documents
D) Prior employment documents
E) Examples of work or a summary of projects
Q3) The purpose of the cover letter is to get the employer to look at the résumé, and the purpose of the résumé is to get the applicant the job.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following sources can be used to support claims of an individual's characteristics?
A) Past job reviews
B) Practicum evaluations
C) Words in résumé or cover letter
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
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