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Medical Law and Ethics explores the complex interplay between legal principles and ethical considerations in the healthcare field. The course delves into topics such as patient rights and consent, confidentiality, the allocation of medical resources, malpractice, and end-of-life decisions. Students will analyze real-world case studies to understand the impact of legislation and ethical frameworks on medical practices and policies. By examining landmark court cases and contemporary ethical dilemmas, learners will gain a foundation for making informed decisions that balance professional responsibility with compassion and legal compliance in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant An Applied Learning Approach 11th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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4897 Verified Questions
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Q1) Identify and explain four study skills that can help you become a successful student. Answer: Any of the following explanations: organize information into recognizable groups so that your brain can remember it more easily; be physically active while studying; create pictures of the material or rewrite notes; overlearn material you find anxiety producing; create songs, word associations, or dances; teach the material to someone else; read assignments more than once; take effective notes; ask questions about material you do not understand; review your notes shortly after class; create mind maps; adopt a positive attitude about your success.
Q2) Learning styles are determined by your individual method of __________, or examining, new material and the way you process it or make it your own. Answer: perceiving
Perceiving is the method individuals use to examine information and recognize it as real.
Q3) Describe three strategies that can help you become successful at taking tests. Answer: Prepare adequately, control negative thoughts during test time, and understand how to manage different types of questions.
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Q1) What contribution made by Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis drastically reduced deaths that commonly took place in hospitals?
A)Promotion of the use of vaccinations in Hungary
B)Insistence on the disinfection of physicians' hands before they assisted with childbirth
C)Encouragement of better educational methods for hospital personnel
D)Discovery that heat killed disease-causing microorganisms in contaminated water
Answer: B
Q2) A(n) __________ practice is composed of at least three physicians.
Answer: group
A group practice is a body of at least three licensed physicians who engage in full-time practice in a formally organized and legally recognized entity.
Q3) Which procedure was first performed by Dr.Christiaan Barnard?
A)Operation to save babies born with malformed hearts
B)Heart transplant from one human to another
C)Catheterization for diagnosis of heart disease
D)Injection of penicillin to cure infectious diseases
Answer: B
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Q1) Which quality in a medical assistant is most likely to promote positive relations in the medical office?
A)Businesslike behavior
B)Consistently high grades during medical assisting training
C)Attractiveness
D)Sincere interest in patients' welfare
Answer: D
Q2) The first national organization formed for medical assistants was the:
A)CAAHEP
B)ABHES
C)AMT
D)AAMA
Answer: D
Q3) The AMT offers an examination, called the __________, that medical assistants who have clinical duties might want to take after 6 months of employment in the healthcare field.
Answer: COLT
The COLT exam indicates proficiency in clinical duties.
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Q1) Karen refused to perform a duty given to her by her supervisor and thus is guilty of
Q2) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A)competent
B)compatent
Q3) Checking personal e-mail several times a day in the medical office is always acceptable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Corresponding in size, amount, extent, or degree and equal in measure is the definition of:
A)commensurate
B)characteristics
C)persona
D)reproach
Q5) Probably the most important asset a medical assistant can offer the employer is:
A)confidentiality
B)teamwork
C)a good attitude
D)credibility
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Q1) Paraphrasing is listening to what the sender is communicating, analyzing the words, and then restating them to confirm that the receiver has understood the message as the sender intended it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A person who will not allow relationships to change from the way they once were is a:
A)Benedict Arnold
B)subject changer
C)mind reader
D)contract tyrannizer
Q3) That which advances beyond the usual or proper limits is called:
A)paraphrasing
B)malediction
C)litigious
D)encroachment
Q4) It is always helpful to have a(n) __________ staff member to communicate with patients who speak another language.
Q5) The last stage of grief is __________.
Q6) Jonathan often makes __________ remarks that offend his co-workers.
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Q1) Logically, the control of gametes should be left to the man and woman who produced them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true regarding the human genome?
A)Experts need to educate Congress, federal agencies, and governments about the use of genetic information.
B)The genome project formally began in 1890.
C)The mapping of the human genome has raised questions about confidentiality and privacy issues.
D)Major healthcare agencies, such as the CDC, DHHS, NIH, and FDA, are involved in the genome project.
Q3) One who pleads the cause of another or defends a cause or proposal is a(n):
A)attorney
B)defender
C)counselor
D)advocate
Q4) The provision of care to medical colleagues or their families and staff is called
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Q1) Failure to perform a duty is called __________.
Q2) Once a patient has decided to file a lawsuit against a physician, the first step is to find a(n) __________ to accept the case.
Q3) Turning to something or someone for help or protection is called __________.
Q4) A list of questions from one party in a lawsuit to another party in the lawsuit is called a(n):
A)deposition
B)interrogatory
C)petition
D)response
Q5) Civil cases must be proven beyond a reasonable doubt.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ negligence exists when the patient contributes to his or her own condition.
Q7) The petitioner, or respondent, brings a case to civil court.
A)True
B)False
Q9) A(n) __________ is a list of legal cases to be tried. Page 9
Q8) Civil cases must be proven by a(n) __________ of the evidence.
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Q1) __________ was enacted partly to ensure that medical records would be kept private and confidential.
Q2) Devices that load a program or data stored on a disk into the computer are called
Q3) Search engines are programs in which a topic, word, or group of words can be entered and the engine searches the Internet for matches.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Information transmitted by the computer to a monitor or printer is a query.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Microcomputers perform which of the following functions?
A)Input
B)Storage
C)Processing
D)All of the above
Q6) A suite of communications protocols used to connect users or hosts to the Internet is called __________.
Q7) A(n) __________ is a device that connects several computers or networks.
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Q1) The medical assistant should use medical jargon with patients and lay terms with physicians and other medical personnel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The medical assistant may help an angry caller to calm down by:
A)speaking in a lower tone of voice
B)getting angry in return
C)passing the situation off to the office manager immediately
D)calling the physician into the situation
Q3) A(n) __________ used in a phone greeting would include "Good morning" or "Good afternoon."
Q4) STAT means "as soon as possible."
A)True
B)False
Q5) Performing many tasks at the same time is called __________.
Q6) Which of the following would be considered professional jargon?
A)Encephalalgia
B)Backache
C)Earache
D)Headache

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Q1) Paula thinks she may be pregnant and is overjoyed.She should be seen:
A)immediately
B)today
C)this week
D)this month
Q2) When the physician is scheduled at outside facilities, the medical assistant must be sure to allow time for:
A)emergencies
B)travel
C)returning phone calls
D)the physician's late arrival
Q3) What should the medical assistant remember when dealing with the appointments in the appointment book if the physician is ill?
A)Explain the nature of the physician's illness apologetically.
B)Refrain from disclosing the nature of the physician's illness.
C)Avoid losing the patient by referring him or her to another physician.
D)Tell the patients that the physician is out of town.
Q4) Periodically, __________ calls will necessitate rescheduling of appointments.
Q5) A space of time between events is called a(n) __________.
Q6) Two-way communication is also called __________.
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Q1) The appearance of the reception room influences the patient's perception of the entire office.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient's anger may be a reflection of his or her pain or __________ of what the physician may discover during the examination.
Q3) Which of the following should most often be added to a patient chart's on each visit?
A)Medical history form
B)Progress notes form
C)Patient information sheet
D)Insurance information sheet
Q4) The best practice is to place a patient's chart so that the name cannot be seen by those in the hallways of the physician's office.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When the office staff commits to making the patient feel welcome, success of the practice is __________.
Q6) Sign-in sheets should not list the __________ for the patient's office visit.
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Q1) The medical assistant should avoid waste and be __________ with products at the office.
Q2) A(n) __________ year does not necessarily begin in January.
Q3) The fiscal year begins:
A)in January
B)in September
C)in August
D)whenever designated by the business
Q4) Which of the following words means an amount of money or credit furnished in anticipation of repayment?
A)Budget
B)Advance
C)Bookmark
D)Honorarium
Q5) When new stock is added, it should be placed:
A)at the front
B)in the middle
C)in the back
D)wherever it will fit
Q6) Thieves usually approach a physician's office to steal money or __________.
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Q1) Susan spent most of the day making sure the medical records that were more than 7 years old were __________ and readied for storage.
Q2) A measure around a body or item is called:
A)girth
B)bond
C)ream
D)flush
Q3) To have mail delivered any day of the year, including Sundays and holidays, the medical assistant should use __________ mail.
A)first class
B)express
C)priority
D)bulk
Q4) Flush can mean either to the left or to the right.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A declarative sentence asks a question.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following names should be filed first?
A)Wm.Jones
B)William Jones
Q2) The process of moving an active file to inactive status is called:
A)purging
B)indexing
C)coding
D)conditioning
Q3) Who ultimately decides whether a medical record can be released?
A)The physician
B)The office manager
C)The medical assistant
D)The patient
Q4) When documents are added to a patient's chart, the most recent information should be placed on top.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A filing system in which materials can be located without consulting an intermediary source of reference is said to be a(n) __________ system.
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the goals of the Nationwide Health Information Network?
A)Ensuring that consumer health information is secure
B)Improving the coordination of care between the various healthcare facilities
C)Reducing risks from medical errors
D)All of the above
Q2) Perhaps the most difficult obstacle to overcome is the __________ of employees in physicians' offices who dislike change.
Q3) The EMR system should be backed up __________.
Q4) Which EMR system backup is probably the least trouble and requires the least amount of hardware?
A)Online backup system
B)External hard drives
C)Full server backup
D)Thumb drive backup
Q5) Remember that all backup systems need __________to run.
Q6) Monthly maintenance costs of the EMR system run approximately $_____ for a physician's office.
Q7) Something __________ is generally or widely accepted, favored, or practiced.
Q8) EMR systems must protect the patient's right to __________.
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Q1) A(n) __________ makes a particular treatment or procedure inadvisable.
Q2) HIPAA was developed in part to ensure the confidentiality of medical records.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most patients predict that they would be __________ likely to continue to see the physician despite a medical error if the physician is forthcoming about the mishap.
Q4) __________ are established by authority, custom, or general consent as a model or example.
Q5) An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury is called an adverse event.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which of the following is not a common medical error?
A)Lack of follow-up on abnormal test results
B)Failure to return a patient's phone call
C)Failure to educate the patient
D)Failure to follow-up on adverse drug reactions
Q7) Some feel that a(n) __________ is an admission of guilt.
Q8) An infection that originates in a hospital is a(n) __________ infection.
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Q1) The division of the federal government that enforces privacy standards is:
A)OSHA
B)HIPAA
C)OCR
D)OIG
Q2) Patients' rights are the heart of the HIPAA Privacy Rule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A pharmacist cannot discuss a patient on the phone when another person is standing nearby.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Before the HIPAA Privacy Rule, health information could be __________ to others without either notice to or authorization from the patient.
Q5) If something is generally or widely accepted, practiced, or favored, it is:
A)prevalent
B)precluded
C)covered
D)inferred
Q6) Electronic __________ are used daily in modern physicians' offices.
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Q1) Lordosis
A)754.0
B)754.1
C)754.2
D)754.3
Q2) Codes used to classify environmental causes of disease or injury are called _____ codes.
Q3) At times, the medical assistant must code a(n) __________ if the physician is not yet sure of the diagnosis.
Q4) Dermatitis caused by cosmetics
A)692.84
B)692.83
C)692.82
D)692.81
Q5) HIV infection
A)043
B)042
C)041
D)040
Q6) The ICD-9 has __________ appendices.
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Q1) Thoracentesis, puncture of pleural cavity for aspiration, initial or subsequent
A)32003
B)32002
C)32001
D)32000
Q2) Initial nursing facility care, detailed or comprehensive history or examination, straightforward or low-complexity decision making
A)99304
B)99305
C)99306
D)99307
Q3) The place of service never changes for physician billing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) New patient, initial inpatient consultation
A)99251
B)99252
C)99253
D)99254
Q5) A(n) __________ patient has seen the physician within the past 3 years.
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Q1) The maximum amount of money third-party payers will pay for a specific procedure or service is called the:
A)benefit
B)allowed charge
C)allowed service
D)incurred amount
Q2) Organizations that fund their own insurance programs offer their employees:
A)group coverage
B)individual coverage
C)government plans
D)self-insured plans
Q3) A physician can choose whether to accept Medicaid patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Health insurance typically covers services and procedures considered medically necessary.Most insurance policies also cover "elective" procedures, such as certain cosmetic surgeries, that are not considered medically necessary.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Procedure code modifiers are found in column __________ of block 24.
Q2) The date in block 14 is the date:
A)of the filing of the claim
B)of the onset of the illness
C)the patient signed the claim
D)the provider signed the claim
Q3) The medical assistant should __________ the front and back of the patient's insurance card.
Q4) Medicare's UPIN stands for _______ identification number.
A)universal physician
B)unique physician
C)unique provider
D)universal provider
Q5) The current Health Care Claim Form has also been called:
A)HCFA 1500
B)Universal Claim Form
C)CMS-1500
D)all of the above
Q6) The provider can list up to __________ diagnoses on the CMS-1500 claim form.
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Q7) The __________ identification number is used by the Internal Revenue Service.

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Q1) The purpose of a charge slip is to:
A)provide an itemized billing statement on which the physician notes charges
B)explain charges to patients before treatment
C)provide estimates of future treatments
D)allow patients to apply for credit
Q2) If the physician believes that the insurance company will pay only $185 of the $255 fee, he should bill the insurance company:
A)$255 and advise the patient that he or she will be billed for the balance after the insurance pays the claim
B)ill the insurance company $185 and bill the patient $255
C)$185 and write off the $70
D)$295 and bill the patient $70
Q3) Transferring or carrying from a book of original entry to a ledger is called:
A)posting
B)paying
C)receiving
D)billing
Q4) Jonathan Sidwell paid $80 on his balance of $417.What is his new balance?
Q5) The Truth in Lending Act is enforced by the Federal __________ Commission.
Page 25
Q6) The balances due to a creditor on an account is known as __________.
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Q1) A routine NSF check can be filed with the district attorney's office without ever contacting the maker.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An insurance check arrives toward a patient's surgery for $5,694.39.If the patient's balance is $5,234, what is the balance on the patient's account after the check amount is posted?
Q3) Most patients who write checks to pay their account with their physician have no intention of fraud.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Banking by mail is never done now that the use of the Internet is so prevalent. A)True B)False
Q5) If the bank charges a fee of $12 each time the average balance drops below $5,000, and this has happened seven times during the year, what is the total in these fees that the physician will pay?
Q6) The __________ discloses any errors that may exist in the checkbook or, on rare occasions, the bank statement.
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Q1) Which of the following records must be available for review by the IRS?
A)Employees' Social Security numbers
B)The number of withholding allowances claimed
C)The amount of gross salary
D)All of the above
Q2) Employers must file a quarterly federal tax return.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A request for payment is called a(n) __________.
Q4) Employers must file tax returns __________.
Q5) The purpose of the disbursement journal is to keep a record of the amount:
A)in the checking account
B)owed by the physician
C)paid out for various expenses
D)owed to the physician
Q6) All offices use petty cash to make change.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Each employer must have a federal tax __________ number.
Q8) A summary of accounts paid out is called the __________ journal.
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Q1) New employees should be given orientation in which of the following areas?
A)Office policies
B)Nature of the practice
C)Physical environment
D)All of the above
Q2) Frederick Herzberg believed that job __________ had to exist for a worker to be motivated.
Q3) Expert power is that of position or status.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Incentives give the employees reason to perform over and above the level expected of them.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The chain of command is less important in an office with many employees.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Coercive power is not manipulative.
A)True
B)False Page 28
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Q1) What is the final step in developing a plan?
A)Research
B)Planning the concept
C)Assessment
D)Evaluation
Q2) Color choices, __________, and fonts can enhance the look of a professional Web site.
Q3) Which of the following resources might be free to the medical practice?
A)Advice columns in newspapers
B)Getting involved in the local community
C)Participating in health fairs
D)All of the above
Q4) The phase of planning during which the problem or goals are reviewed is the __________ stage.
Q5) Medical assistants should not be expected to provide good customer service along with their other duties.
A)True
B)False

Page 30
Q6) Poorly chosen phrases that suggest poor attitudes give the patient or visitor a(n) __________ view of the facility.
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Q1) The CDC does not recommend Standard Precautions for which of the following body fluids if the fluid does not contain visible blood?
A)Amniotic
B)Cerebrospinal
C)Pleural
D)Synovial
E)Urine
Q2) A(n) __________ agent is a medication that relieves a patient's symptoms but does not cure a disease.
Q3) Hands do not have to be sanitized if the healthcare worker conscientiously uses gloves during all possible times of exposure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) __________ is an insect or tick that transmits the causative organisms of a disease.
Q5) An inherited defect is one that occurs inexplicably during fetal development.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the difference between cell-mediated and humoral immunity.
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Q1) Gathering details about a patient's use of over-the-counter medications is not necessary during a patient interview.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The best method of ensuring that the patient understands a patient education intervention is to have the patient repeat back the details learned.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Restatement is a valuable active listening technique, because it acknowledges the emotions displayed by the patient during the interview.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define open-ended and closed questions and statements and provide an example of each.
Q5) You are conducting an interview with a new patient who appears very anxious.Summarize four ways of using therapeutic nonverbal language to enhance the quality of the patient interaction.
Q6) Describe the organization of SOAPE notes.
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Q1) Both videotapes and Internet sites allow patient learning to be self-directed and
Q2) Diagram and explain how to develop and implement a patient education plan.
Q3) Reflection can be an excellent communication tool to use when a patient is angry about a diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which model analyzes what people believe to be true about themselves and their health?
A)The health belief model
B)Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's stages of grief
C)The holistic model
Q5) You are responsible for developing a patient education pamphlet on diabetes mellitus.Which factor is most important to remember?
A)Using correct medical terminology about the disease process
B)Creating a comprehensive, complex description of the complications of the disease
C)Using language that a sixth- to eighth-grader can understand
D)Creating different pamphlets for male and female patients
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Q1) Dietary fiber is the portion of the plant that cannot be digested.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The glycemic index is an important tool for patients with diabetes to help control spikes in the blood glucose level.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nonessential nutrients are not required by the body to maintain a state of health.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fat has 6 calories per gram.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The American Cancer Society recommends a low-fiber diet.
A)True
B)False
Q6) No connection exists between a high alcohol intake and the occurrence of cancer. A)True
B)False
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Q1) The bell of a stethoscope is typically used to auscultate the BP.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the OSHA guidelines for taking vital signs.
Q3) Stertorous breathing often is described as sounding similar to:
A)snoring
B)wheezing
C)gasping
D)rales
Q4) A patient weight of 150 pounds is equivalent to 330 kg.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pulse rate may vary with the respiratory rate in pediatric patients.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Accurately record as you would in the patient's medical record the following vital signs:
apical pulse arrhythmic and 62, aural temperature 37.4° C, blood pressure 126/60 mm Hg in the left arm and 118/56 mm Hg in the right arm, and respirations 28.
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Q1) The medical assistant is responsible for obtaining informed consent for any scheduled procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During a physical examination, the physician discovers a bruit.What method would she be using to make this discovery?
A)Manipulation
B)Palpation
C)Percussion
D)Auscultation
Q3) A body __________ is composed of several organs and their associated structures.
Q4) When preparing a patient for a physical examination, the medical assistant is responsible for all of the following except:
A)providing the patient with a gown and instructions on how to wear it
B)making sure the patient has emptied the bladder
C)providing refill prescriptions as needed
D)measuring and recording vital signs
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Q5) For administration of a rectal suppository, the patient would be placed in the __________ position.

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Q1) Demerol is a Schedule I analgesic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drugs used to increase urinary output and to reduce blood pressure are __________.
Q3) Which part of the prescription contains details about the patient as well as the symbol for take?
A)Subscription
B)Signature
C)Inscription
D)Superscription
Q4) Anabolic steroids are classified as Schedule III drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) With a geriatric patient, the physician considers many factors before prescribing a medication.These factors include:
A)changes in body composition
B)changes in body functioning
C)living conditions
D)all of the above
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Q1) If a medication has been on the market for a long time, the generic name may be the only one listed on the label.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many tablespoons equal 16 ounces?
A)8 Tbsp
B)32 Tbsp
C)24 Tbsp
D)12 Tbsp
Q3) Describe the three basic steps for calculating the prescribed dose of medication accurately.
Q4) The physician orders 75 mg of Demerol IM.The drug label states,"Demerol 50 mg/mL." How many milliliters should be administered?
A)1 mL
B)1.2 mL
C)1.5 mL
D)2.1 mL
Q5) __________ uses a calculation of the body surface area (BSA) of infants and young children to determine the pediatric dose.
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Q1) Rectal medications usually are administered by instillation or:
A)irrigation
B)insertion
C)application
D)spray
Q2) The _________ and _________ of the medication ordered determines the size of the syringe-needle unit selected.
A)color; odor
B)color; amount
C)amount; viscosity
D)viscosity; odor
Q3) If the medical assistant finds a container of medication without a label, the appropriate action is to discard the medication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a liquid oral medication is poured, it is important to:
A)hold the measuring device at eye level
B)allow the bottle to come in contact with measuring device
C)palm the label of the medication
D)A and C
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Q1) A closed wound caused by blunt force trauma that results is swelling, ecchymosis, and pain is called a(n):
A)abrasion
B)avulsion
C)laceration
D)contusion
Q2) Epistaxis is:
A)redness
B)a ligament injury
C)a nose bleed
D)a bruise
Q3) If a patient is bleeding profusely from a laceration on the arm, direct pressure should be applied to the radial artery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Summarize the steps that should be taken in a physician's office to prevent and manage fires.
Q5) A patient having an acute asthma attack will report dyspnea. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Inflammation of the eardrum is called:
A)myringectomy
B)myringoplasty
C)myringitis
D)myringotomy
Q2) A physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of the disorders and diseases of the eye is a(n):
A)DO
B)opthalmologist
C)optician
D)ophthalmologist
Q3) When testing a patient's far visual acuity, the medical assistant uses which type of chart?
A)Snellen
B)Ishihara
C)Bradford
D)Rosenthal
Q4) The patient may stand 10 feet from the Snellen chart during the examination.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Acceptable sites for skin testing include the anterior forearm, the upper arm, and the back.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Skin testing on young children is typically done on both forearms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Palliative treatment is prescribed to do which of the following?
A)Ease the symptoms of a condition.
B)Cure a disorder.
C)Prevent a disease from occurring.
Q4) Small, purple, hemorrhagic patches on the skin that are frequently associated with bleeding disorders or liver disease are called __________.
Q5) A malignant melanoma typically develops at the site of a congenital nevus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Cells that are in a primitive form and are diagnostic of a cancer-producing tumor are called __________.
Q7) The medical term for age spots is __________.
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Q1) You have learned a great deal about infectious viral hepatitis in this chapter.Explain the mode of transmission and typical signs and symptoms of the following types of viral hepatitis.
Q2) Peptic ulcers caused by H.pylori bacteria are treated with which of the following medications?
A)Antibiotics and proton pump inhibitors
B)NSAIDs
C)Prednisone
D)Antiemetics and antibiotics
Q3) Mr.Grassi is diagnosed with a cancerous tumor of the cecum.He is scheduled for a resection of which of the following areas of the colon?
A)Splenic flexure
B)Descending colon
C)Ascending colon
D)Sigmoid colon
Q4) __________ are varicose veins of the anus and rectum.
Q5) Patients who have had bariatric surgery need routine injections of vitamin B .
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The primary predisposing factor for the development of testicular cancer is cryptorchidism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following items should be included on a urine specimen label?
A)Date of collection
B)Time of collection
C)Patient's name
D)All of the above
Q3) No specific patient preparation is required for a KUB.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not typically transmitted sexually?
A)HIV
B)Gonorrhea
C)Chlamydia
D)E.coli
Q5) In a(n) __________ procedure, an electric current or laser is used to destroy cancer cells in the lining of the bladder.
Q6) __________ is marked by hypertension and anuria.
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Q1) Gardasil is an immunization available for women previously infected by HPV to prevent reinfection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The NuvaRing must be placed over the cervix to be effective.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare the characteristics, contraindications, and possible side effects of OCPs, the cervical cap, and an IUD.
Q4) Salpingitis is a bacterial infection of the distal end of the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The primary reason for HIV screening of all pregnant women is:
A)treatment prevents the development of AIDS
B)properly treating the pregnant woman helps protect the fetus from HIV
C)treating the pregnant woman extends her life
D)the law requires that all pregnant women be screened for HIV
Q6) Determination of the EDD typically is done through a sonogram.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Piaget's sensorimotor stage is the stage in which children use logical thinking to start considering people other than themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The symptoms associated with an asthma attack are caused both by bronchospasms and by inflammation of the bronchioles.
A)True B)False
Q3) The DTaP vaccine provides immunity against diphtheria, tetanus, and polio.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adolescents at the postconventional level display what behaviors?
A)They use abstract thinking to make decisions.
B)They are egocentric and do not understand the relationship between cause and effect.
C)They follow the rules to avoid disappointing others.
D)They are learning to consider the greatest good for the greatest number when making decisions.
Q5) The medical term for pink eye is __________.
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Q1) The physician must perform a reduction for a displaced fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Rheumatoid arthritis causes degenerative changes in the articular cartilage of the joints.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The medical term for pain in a joint is:
A)arthralgia
B)arthritis
C)arthrocentesis
D)arthroplasty
Q4) An adult with osteomalacia is said to have rickets.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The __________ function of the red bone marrow results in the production of blood cells.
Q6) __________ in children is called rickets.
Q7) Summarize four risk factors for the development of osteoporosis.
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Q8) A(n) __________ fracture in a young child is suggestive of a child abuse injury.

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Q1) Patients who experience TIAs have temporary symptoms, because the tissue ischemia is short-lived.
A)True
B)False
Q2) HIPAA privacy regulations have special stipulations regarding access to which of the following information?
A)Hospital admission for a suicide attempt
B)Psychotherapy notes
C)A history of medication use for depression
D)The diagnosis of schizophrenia
Q3) During a grand mal seizure, the patient goes though a tonic phase of muscle twitching and jerking, followed by a clonic phase of generalized stiff muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Multiple minor CVAs can result in symptoms of dementia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A patient with MS who shows worsening of symptoms is experiencing a(n) __________ of the disease.
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Q1) Diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus include an FBS greater than 126 mg/dL on more than one occasion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient's activity level does not affect the type and amount of insulin prescribed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following hormones is not produced by the anterior pituitary?
A)PRL
B)ACTH
C)LH
D)ADH
Q4) Which of the endocrine glands produces epinephrine and norepinephrine?
A)Thyroid
B)Adrenal
C)Pituitary
D)Thymus
Q5) The thyroid gland will not function properly unless the anterior pituitary produces __________ to stimulate its action.
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Q1) Healthcare workers who have a positive PPD skin test must have the test repeated annually to screen for active tuberculosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A microorganism that is exceedingly pathogenic or deadly is said to be highly
Q3) __________ is measured by instructing the patient to inhale deeply and exhale completely without forcing the exhalation.
Q4) Antibiotics are prescribed for URIs if there is evidence of a secondary bacterial infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The sinuses are fluid-filled spaces of the face that help filter inhaled air.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The collection of dust and foreign particles in the cilia lining the respiratory tract initiates the cough reflex.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Patients with an artificial heart valve may be prescribed lifelong antibiotic prophylaxis for invasive medical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement is true about CK levels in a patient with an MI?
A)The more severe the cardiac damage, the longer it takes for CK levels to peak.
B)Levels begin to increase almost immediately after myocardial damage.
C)CK levels return to normal within 18 hours.
D)CK levels are not predictive of the extent of cardiac damage.
Q3) In BP readings, the contraction phase of the heartbeat is called:
A)diastole
B)systole
C)tachycardia
D)pacemaker
Q4) Rheumatic heart disease develops because of an antigen-antibody reaction several weeks after an untreated staphylococcal infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ causes pulmonary edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, and tachycardia.
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Q1) List four risk factors that contribute to the development of osteoporosis.
Q2) Disease is a normal and unavoidable part of the aging process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The medical assistant may perform a(n) __________ to assess a patient's ability to write, calculate, and recall facts.
Q4) Which of the following disorders involves the loss of bone density?
A)Osteoarthritis
B)Osteoporosis
C)Rheumatoid arthritis
D)Gout
Q5) Wound healing may be a problem for an older patient because of neurologic changes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The vaccine Zostavax is available for aging people to prevent activation of the varicella-zoster virus, which causes shingles.The vaccine __________ is available for aging people to prevent activation of the varicella-zoster virus, which causes shingles.
Q7) Explain the Mini-Mental Status Exam and how it is used to diagnose dementia.
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Q1) If the ECG recording appears as a series of interruptions on the baseline, the medical assistant should:
A)check for nearby electric appliances
B)ask the patient to lie still
C)help the patient relax and stay warm
D)check the cable connections to the electrodes
Q2) Summarize the immediate treatment of an MI.Explain why certain medications are administered.
Q3) The electrodes of the ECG carry cardiac electrical impulses into the machine, where they are magnified by an amplifier.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The electrocardiograph records both the intensity of and the actual time required for each part of the cardiac cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The right leg is used to ground the recording of the augmented leads.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The radiographic view in which the sagittal plane of the body or body part is parallel to the film is called __________.
Q2) Which statement is true of an UGI?
A)It is performed with an iodine contrast medium.
B)Patient prep includes the use of a cathartic.
C)It is a fluoroscopic examination.
D)It is an MRI procedure.
Q3) __________ ultrasonography can be used to detect vascular disease, such as atherosclerosis and venous thrombosis.
Q4) The purpose of intensifying screens is to reduce the amount of x-ray exposure necessary for an accurate view.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The part of the sonography machine that is in contact with the patient is called the:
A)gantry
B)cathode
C)transducer
D)table
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Q1) You are preparing a chemical hygiene plan for your employer and need copies of the material safety data sheets (MSDS) for several products in use in your laboratory.The first step is to contact:
A)the manufacturer of the product
B)the CDC
C)an OSHA representative
D)a sales representative
Q2) The microscope component that directs the light up through the stage is the:
A)condenser
B)iris diaphragm
C)ocular
D)magnification system
Q3) An MSDS contains which of the following?
A)Trade and chemical names
B)Hazardous ingredients
C)Manufacturer's name and address
D)All of the above
Q4) The clinical __________ department analyzes blood, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), urine, and joint fluid.
Q5) Describe the purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA).
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Q1) When a woman enters menopause, the ovaries stop producing eggs and the levels of __________ rise.
Q2) The medical assistant is responsible for making sure laboratory specimens are properly labeled and prepared for shipping to the referral laboratory.Describe this procedure.
Q3) QC for the microscopic examination of urine relies on standardized commercial systems such as KOVA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A urinometer is most frequently used to determine the specific gravity of a urine specimen in the physician's office laboratory.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Oval fat bodies are __________, which creates a sharp microscopic image of this urinary product.
Q6) The average person produces approximately 2 L of urine each day.
A)True B)False
Q7) __________ may be the first indication of diabetes mellitus.
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Q1) __________ is the liquid portion of the blood that contains clotting agents.
Q2) The most common phlebotomy site in adults is/are the:
A)radial vein
B)brachial artery
C)veins in the antecubital space
D)veins in the popliteal area
Q3) In a routine venipuncture, the angle at which the needle enters the arm should be _____ degrees.
A)80 to 90
B)30
C)15
D)0 to 5
Q4) When the needle is inserted into the vein during a routine venipuncture, the bevel of the needle should be facing down.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the postexposure management of a needle stick.
Q6) __________ are used for small veins, such as those in the hand or in a pediatric patient.
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Q7) The typical site for a capillary puncture in an adult is the __________ finger.

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Q1) Troponin is a component of a(n) _____ panel.
A)liver
B)renal
C)cardiac
D)electrolyte
Q2) Which of the following tests is used to determine renal function?
A)Ferritin
B)Total bilirubin
C)pH
D)Creatinine
Q3) RBC values range from 4,000 to 6,000 cells/mm³.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The WBC count is lowest in newborns and highest in adults.
A)True
B)False
Q5) B cells produce specific antibodies against a particular antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Patients with __________ have an unusually large number of all blood cells.
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Q1) An organism that is flexible as far as its oxygen requirements are concerned is called a(n):
A)aerobe
B)anaerobe
C)facultative aerobe
D)facultative anaerobe
Q2) A cellulose tape test for pinworms requires:
A)a thin specimen of stool to be spread on cellulose tape to immobilize the worms
B)a length of cellulose tape to be touched against the anal folds to collect worms
C)temporarily taping the anus closed to trap the worms
D)a microscope to view the eggs that have adhered to a length of cellulose tape
E)B and D
Q3) Rodent control is important for preventing the spread of diphtheria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The metric unit of measurement used to report the size of bacteria and viruses is the
Q5) __________ is used medically to combat viral infections and cancer.
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Q1) The physician may spray a topical anesthetic (e.g., Fluori-Methane) on a surgical site before injecting a local anesthetic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This instrument has a fine tip for retrieval of foreign objects.
A)Nasal speculum
B)Splinter forceps
C)Needle holder
D)Littauer stitch or suture scissors
Q3) Ratchets are used to lock an instrument into position.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A trocar is placed within a(n) __________ to drain fluid.
Q5) Local anesthetics with epinephrine are not recommended for use in suturing a finger laceration.
A)True
B)False
Q6) __________ are used to hold tissue away from the surgical incision to better expose the surgical site.
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Q1) __________ is the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life.
Q2) Disease-causing microorganisms.
A)Microorganisms
B)Pathogens
C)Spores
D)Normal flora
Q3) __________ is the destruction of microbes after they leave the body.
Q4) When autoclaving, place a gauze sponge around the tips of sharp instruments to prevent them from piercing the wrapping material.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Unwrapped items in an autoclave require more time for sterilization than wrapped items.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A wound usually caused by an accident that results in tearing or separation of tissues is called a(n) __________.
Q7) A brush burn is an example of a(n) __________.
Q8) What rules must be followed for wrapping an instrument for the autoclave? Page 62
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Q1) The medical assistant should make every effort not to miss a day of work during the probationary period.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Self-esteem comes from knowing that strengths are overcoming weaknesses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Job applications are never considered legal documents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There should be no __________ on a resume.
Q5) It is helpful to conduct __________ interviews for practice.
Q6) Which of the following is the most appropriate expectation for you to have of your externship experience?
A)If you do good work, you will be offered employment.
B)You will feel very prepared to perform any duty assigned to you on the first day.
C)You will have many opportunities to practice the skills in which you are competent.
D)You are inexperienced and will be given the lower level office tasks.
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