Medical Laboratory Technology
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Technology is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge and practical skills required to perform various laboratory analyses vital for the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases. The curriculum covers fundamental topics such as clinical biochemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, pathology, and molecular diagnostics. Students learn to operate and maintain laboratory instruments, follow standard safety protocols, analyze biological specimens, and interpret laboratory results. Emphasizing both theoretical foundations and hands-on training, this course prepares graduates for professional roles in healthcare laboratories, research institutions, and diagnostic centers.
Recommended Textbook
Urinalysis and Body Fluids 6th Edition by Susan King Strasinger
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15 Chapters
1057 Verified Questions
1057 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/531 Page 2
Chapter 1: Safety and Quality Assessment
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67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9911
Sample Questions
Q1) OSHA requires employers to provide free immunization for hepatitis B virus (HBV)to workers in urinalysis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What two activities are paper towels used for when washing the hands?
Answer: Drying the hands and turning off the water
Q3) Hands should be washed before and after testing each urine specimen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Lab coats worn in the urinalysis lab should:
A) Be worn loosely over uniforms
B) Have short sleeves
C) Be completely buttoned
D) Be worn at all times in and outside of the laboratory
Answer: C
Q5) A laboratory worker who is pregnant should avoid areas designated by what hazard symbol?
Answer: Radioactive
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Chapter 2: Introduction to Urinalysis
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9912
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least likely to occur if a urine specimen stands at room temperature for more than 2 hours?
A) Deterioration of formed elements
B) Increased bacteria
C) Decreased pH
D) Decreased glucose
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following specimens are acceptable for a urine culture except:
A) Catheterized specimen
B) Timed specimen
C) Suprapubic aspiration
D) Midstream clean-catch specimen
Answer: B
Q3) Quantitation of a substance that varies with daily activities should be performed on a:
A) Timed overnight specimen
B) First morning specimen
C) 24-hour specimen
D) 2-hour postprandial specimen
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Renal Function
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9913
Sample Questions
Q1) Using the information provided,which model is more likely to be affected by technical errors?
A) Freezing-point
B) Vapor-pressure
Answer: B
Q2) The renal function that is most frequently the first affected by early renal disease is:
A) Renal blood flow
B) Glomerular filtration
C) Tubular reabsorption
D) Tubular secretion
Answer: C
Q3) Results for glomerular filtration tests are reported in:
A) Milliliters per minute
B) Milliliters per 24 hours
C) Milligrams per deciliter
D) Milliequivalents per liter
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Physical Examination of Urine
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9914
Sample Questions
Q1) A clear yellow urine will not contain any pathologically significant constituents.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Amorphous urates
A)Significant
B)Nonsignificant
Q3) Which of the following urine colors and causes match?
A) Red-carotene
B) Dark yellow-porphyrins
C) Black-melanin
D) Green-pyridium
Q4) Bilirubin
A)Amber
B)Green
C)Pale yellow
D)Black
E)Red
F)Dark yellow
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine
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118 Verified Questions
118 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9915
Sample Questions
Q1) Proper care of reagent strips includes all of the following except:
A) Checking the expiration date
B) Storing in a clear container
C) Preventing exposure to toxic fumes
D) Storing with a desiccant
Q2) All of the following may interfere with glucose detection in a urine specimen except:
A) Galactose
B) Ascorbic acid
C) Bleach
D) The sample sits at room temperature for 4 hours
Q3) Failure to blot the edge of the reagent strip may result in errors in color interpretation caused by:
A) Excess dilution
B) Runover
C) Reagent leaching
D) Chemical concentration
Q4) A 25-year-old woman on a high-protein,low-carbohydrate diet.
A) Yes
B) No
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Chapter 6: Microscopic Examination of Urine
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9916
Sample Questions
Q1) The type of cast most closely associated with tubular damage is the:
A) WBC cast
B) Epithelial cell cast
C) RBC cast
D) Fatty cast
Q2) Urine sediments containing increased WBCs should be observed closely for the presence of:
A) Hyaline casts
B) Granular casts
C) Bacteria
D) Urothelial cells
Q3) Based on the information given,what is causing the crenated RBCs?
A) Elevated protein
B) Presence of hyaline casts
C) High specific gravity
D) Presence of granular casts
Q4) Many budding yeasts in a clear,red specimen from a bedridden,diabetic patient
A)Concerned
B)Not concerned
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Chapter 7: Renal Disease
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9917
Sample Questions
Q1) How do these results relate to the diagnosis of membranous glomerulonephritis?
A) Urinalysis results are similar.
B) Membranous glomerulonephritis progression to an advanced disorder.
C) They are not related.
D) The original diagnosis of membranous glomerulonephritis was wrong.
Q2) A patient whose microalbuminuria has progressed to a 2+ urine protein.
A) Alport syndrome
B) Diabetic nephropathy
C) Acute renal failure
D) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Q3) Patient with increased transitional epithelial cells in the urine sediment
A) Prerenal
B) Renal
C) Postrenal
Q4) Cystitis can be differentiated from pyelonephritis by:
A) Performing a cystoscopy
B) The presence of white blood cell casts
C) Performing blood cultures
D) The presence of bacteriuria
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Chapter 8: Urine Screening for Metabolic Disorders
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9918
Sample Questions
Q1) Both cystine and leucine crystals are present in the urine of patients with cystinuria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Characteristic urine odors are associated with all of the following disorders except:
A) Alkaptonuria
B) PKU
C) Maple syrup urine disease
D) Isovaleric acidemia
Q3) A patient diagnosed with Lesch-Nyhan disease can have all of the following conditions,except:
A) Cystinosis
B) Increase in uric acid
C) Self-destructive tendencies
D) Severe motor defects
Q4) Failure of a metabolic pathway to reach completion may be caused by an inborn error of metabolism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Cerebrospinal Fluid
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9919
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the information provided,what abnormality is present in the CNS of this patient if the IgG index is calculated to be above 0.70?
A) CSF leakage
B) Decreased blood-brain barrier integrity
C) Neural IgG synthesis
D) Bacterial meningitis
Q2) A CSF lactate level should not be performed on a xanthochromic specimen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Myelin basic protein is measured in the CSF to assess the condition of patients with:
A) Cerebral hemorrhage
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Bacterial meningitis
D) Neurosyphilis
Q4) The primary cause of a decreased CSF glucose in bacterial meningitis is:
A) Utilization of glucose by the microorganisms present in the fluid
B) Rapid glycolysis
C) Utilization of glucose by leukocytes present in the fluid
D) Alteration of blood-brain glucose transport
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Chapter 10: Semen
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67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9920
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the information provided,which abnormal parameter is affecting the viscosity?
A) pH
B) Motility
C) Morphology
D) Concentration
Q2) Greater than 1 million spermatids per milliliter indicates reproductive tract infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The motility component of a sperm analysis includes all of the following except evaluation of the:
A) Progressive and Brownian movement
B) Percentage of motile sperm
C) Quality of movement
D) Motility of normal and abnormal sperm
Q4) Slides for evaluation of sperm morphology can be stained using Papanicolaou stain.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Synovial Fluid
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9921
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the information provided,what type of diluting fluid should be used for the WBC count?
A) Hypotonic saline
B) Methylene blue
C) Glacial acetic acid
D) Normal saline
Q2) In the Ropes' or mucin clot test,normal synovial fluid:
A) Forms a solid clot when added to hyaluronidase
B) Forms a solid clot when added to glacial acetic acid
C) Forms a friable clot when added to hydrochloric acid
D) Does not form a clot when added to glacial acetic acid
Q3) The predominant cell in normal synovial fluid is the lymphocyte.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The polymerization of hyaluronic acid is decreased when arthritis is present. A)True
B)False
Q5) Automated cell counters should not be used for synovial fluid cell counts.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Serous Fluid
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9922
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the information given,what is the most probable cause of the effusion?
A) Pneumonia
B) Hemothorax
C) Malignancy
D) Congestive heart failure
Q2) Serous fluid exudates may contain malignant cells of either primary or metastatic origin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the significance of a pleural fluid with a hematocrit value of 30% (blood hematocrit: 34%)?
A) Hemothorax
B) Pneumonia
C) Esophageal rupture
D) Mesothelioma
Q4) A milky pleural fluid that stains strongly positive with Sudan III indicates:
A) Thoracic duct leakage
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Malignancy
D) Chronic inflammation
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Amniotic Fluid
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9923
Sample Questions
Q1) Amniotic fluid is formed by all of the following except:
A) Fetal urine
B) Fetal cell metabolism
C) Fetal swallowing
D) Transfer of water across the placenta
Q2) Production of both lecithin and sphingomyelin increases after 35 weeks gestation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Decreased levels of phosphatidyl glycerol in amniotic fluid can be associated with:
A) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
B) Toxemia of pregnancy
C) Hyaline membrane disorder SS
D) Intrauterine death
Q4) Failure of the fetus to begin swallowing will result in:
A) Oligohydramnios
B) A positive fern test
C) Polyhydramnios
D) Umbilical cord compression
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Chapter 14: Fecal Analysis
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9924
Sample Questions
Q1) Wet preparations for the detection of fecal neutrophils are stained with:
A) Gram stain
B) Wright's stain
C) Sudan III
D) Methylene blue
Q2) To prevent false-positive fecal occult blood results,patients should be instructed to avoid eating all of the following for 3 days before testing except:
A) Horseradish
B) Chicken
C) Melons
D) Red meat
Q3) Increased neutrophils in a stool sample may indicate that the patient has which of the following?
A) Staphylococcal food poisoning
B) Pancreatic insufficiency
C) Lower GI bleeding
D) Salmonella infection
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Chapter 15: Vaginal Secretions
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9925
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following organisms,which one requires DNA probe amplified by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
A) G. vaginalis
B) Candida sp.
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Bacteroides sp
Q2) Which of the following is the most likely reason a physician would collect vaginal fluid for analysis?
A) Preeclampsia
B) Vaginitis
C) Pregnancy testing
D) As part of a police rape kit for sexual assault
Q3) A vaginal fluid was collected from a 25-year-old female that showed the following results: appearance is pink with flocculent discharge,pH is 3.9,whiff test is negative,many Gram-positive rods,clue cells are absent.What is your interpretation of these results?
A) Patient has a possible bacterial infection
B) Patient has a possible yeast infection
C) Patient is normal and is menstruating
D) Patient has a possible Trichomonas infection
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Page 17