Medical Laboratory Technology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Technology is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the fundamental principles and practices of laboratory science in a medical setting. The curriculum covers essential topics such as clinical biochemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and pathology. Students learn about the collection, processing, and analysis of clinical specimens and gain hands-on experience with modern laboratory equipment and techniques. The course also emphasizes safety protocols, quality control, and the ethical considerations vital to medical diagnostics. Graduates of Medical Laboratory Technology are prepared to assist in the accurate diagnosis and monitoring of diseases, playing a crucial role in patient care and the healthcare system.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Laboratory Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine Practices 1st Edition by
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21 Chapters
420 Verified Questions
420 Flashcards
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Page 2
Gretchen Johns
Chapter 1: The Immune Process: the Origin and Interaction
Between Antigens and Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true about the classical pathway except A)Begins with formation of C1 from C1q,C1r,and C1s molecules
B)Consists of C5b and C6-C9
C)Is regulated by two mechanisms in the fluid phase
D)Is regulated on cell surfaces with complement control proteins
Answer: B
Q2) When a naive B cell Le ves the bone marrow,it has membrane-bound ________ antibody.
A)IgA and IgE
B)IgA and IgM
C)IgD and IgE
D)IgD and IgM
Answer: D
Q3) Which is the principal isotype found in mucosal secretions?
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgM
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Immunogenetics: the Origin of Antigens
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Sample Questions
Q1) The site of the gene on the chromosome is the
A)allele
B)codon
C)locus
D)null
Answer: C
Q2) What is the function of ribosomes?
A)Produce complementary strand of mRNA
B)Transcribe DNA into mRNA
C)Translate mRNA into protein
D)Unwind DNA
Answer: C
Q3) What term is used to describe an allele present on the same chromosome?
A)Amorph
B)Cis
C)Genotype
D)Karyotype
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Blood Bank Applications of Antigenantibody
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the incubation phase of an antibody screen test,how long should the test tubes be incubated?
A)5-10 minutes
B)10-30 minutes
C)Depends on the temperature of incubation
D)Depends on the enhancement reagent added
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of IgG except
A)Demonstrates agglutination in antiglobulin tests
B)Has a plasma half-life of about 23 days
C)Has a valence of 10
D)Is able to cross the placenta
Answer: C
Q3) The antihuman globulin technique is used to detect which isotype of antibody?
A)IgD
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Abo and Hh Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals first described the ABO blood group system?
A)Decastello
B)Landsteiner
C)Sturli
D)Yamamoto
Q2) The gene for the ABO blood group system resides on chromosome
A)3
B)5
C)9
D)11
Q3) Forward grouping
A)Identifies antibody by combining the unknown plasma with known ABO red blood cells
B)Identifies antigen by combining the unknown red blood cells with known antibody
C)Occurs when the results of the forward and reverse grouping do not correlate
D)Occurs when the results for the A and B antigen do not correlate
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Chapter 5: Rh, Rhag, and Lw Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Donor red blood cells that are e negative will be ______,unless they are of a rare deletion phenotype.
A)c negative
B)c positive
C)E negative
D)E positive
Q2) Which of the following is a purified concentrate of human anti-D?
A)HBIg
B)RhIg
C)Rhmod
D)Rhvariable
Q3) Rh antibodies may develop in response to transfusion of which of the following blood products?
A)Cryoprecipitate
B)Platelets
C)Rh-immune globulin
D)Thawed plasma
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following blood group systems has unknown clinical significance?
A)Yt
B)Scianna
C)Gill
D)Raph
Q2) The McLeod phenotype is very rare and is often associated with a hereditary form of
A)Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
B)Cold agglutinin syndrome (CAS)
C)Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)
D)Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinemia (PNH)
Q3) Antibodies in the Ii blood group system are usually
A)IgG alloantibodies that are detected when testing occurs at body temperature
B)IgG autoantibodies that are detected when testing occurs at room temperature
C)IgM alloantibodies that are detected when testing occurs at body temperature
D)IgM autoantibodies that are detected when testing occurs at room temperature
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8
Chapter 7: Pretransfusion and Compatibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crossmatch is also known as
A)Compatibility testing
B)Donor cell antigen typing
C)Immediate spin phase testing
D)Patient cell antigen typing
Q2) Another term for the electronic crossmatch is
A)computer-aided crossmatch
B)computer-assisted crossmatch
C)computer-enhanced crossmatch
D)computer-generated crossmatch
Q3) Which of the following is not a type of additive used if antibody screening and identification is performed by tube testing?
A)Albumin
B)DTT
C)LISS
D)PEG
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Chapter 8: Identification of Unexpected Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the autocontrol is negative and the patient has been transfused or pregnant,then positive reactions in the antibody screen test are likely due to an
A)alloantibody
B)antigen
C)autoantibody
D)anti-drug antibody
Q2) What test is used to determine the phenotype of red blood cells?
A)Antigen typing
B)Direct antiglobulin test
C)Molecular typing
D)Reflex test
Q3) The k antigen is destroyed by
A)the enzyme bromelin
B)the enzyme pronase
C)a combination of chymotrypsin and trypsin
D)a combination of ficin and pronase
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10
Chapter 9: Donor Selection, Phlebotomy, and Required Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Except for automated double red blood cell donations,the hematocrit must be at least ____ for all allogeneic donations.
A)33% (0.33)
B)38% (0.38)
C)40% (0.40)
D)42% (0.42)
Q2) What is the most common type of reaction in blood donors?
A)Varicose
B)Variolar
C)Vasospasm
D)Vasovagal
Q3) During the informed consent process,a donor must be made aware of which of the following?
A)Hemoglobin or hematocrit result
B)Foreseeable risks of donation
C)Potential benefits to the recipient
D)Transmissible disease testing methods
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Blood Products: Preparation, Storage, and Shipment of
Blood Components
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the approved shelf-life in days of red blood cell components that use one of the three additive solutions currently licensed in the United States?
A)7
B)21
C)35
D)42
Q2) All of the following are true about leukoreduction except
A)Can be achieved by using a specialized filter
B)Removes red blood cells from whole blood or blood components
C)Reduces the undesirable effects that white blood cells have on blood components
D)Reduces the risk of adverse reactions in patients receiving blood components
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about granulocyte component production?
A)A whole blood unit generally yields 5 × 106 granulocytes.
B)Apheresis collection is used more often than whole blood separation.
C)Granulocyte units are stored at 68-75.2° F (20-24° C)for up to 5 days.
D)Hydroxyethel starch is added and then the blood is centrifuged.
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Chapter 11: Component Therapy and Massive Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Community-directed donation programs are often used to find donors for patients suffering from one of which two diseases?
A)Anemia or coagulopathy
B)Hemophilia A or hemophilia B
C)Leukemia or lymphoma
D)Sickle cell anemia or thalassemia
Q2) Cryoprecipitate contains which coagulation factors?
A)Factor V,factor VII,factor VIII
B)Factor VII,factor VIII,factor XIII
C)Fibrinogen,factor V,factor VIII
D)Fibrinogen,factor VIII,factor XIII
Q3) Which method might be used to decrease the risk of transfusion-associated cytomegalovirus (CMV)transmission?
A)Freezing
B)Irradiation
C)Leukoreduction
D)Washing
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13
Chapter 12: Adverse Reactions to Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true about transfusion-related immunomodulation (TRIM)except
A)Cause remains unproven.
B)First recognized in liver transplant recipients.
C)Possible deleterious effects include increased recurrence of cancer.
D)Refers to immune suppression following transfusion of allogeneic blood products.
Q2) What causes allergic transfusion reactions?
A)Patient antibodies that are directed against antigens present on the transfused red blood cells.
B)Patient antibodies to non-ABO red blood cell antigens.
C)Preformed plasma antibodies that react with protein-based allergens.
D)Pulmonary infiltrates caused by antibodies to HLA antigens.
Q3) Regarding febrile,nonhemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTR),all of the following statements are true except
A)After an initial reaction,recurrence is uncommon.
B)Onset of symptoms occurs during or up to 4 hours after transfusion.
C)Prestorage filtration has been shown to be effective in reducing incidences.
D)Symptoms cause discomfort but are not life-threatening.
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14
Chapter 13: Transfusion-Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States,all donated blood is tested for the following before transfusion except
A)Anti-HCV
B)CMV using NAT
C)HBsAg
D)WNV using NAT
Q2) Which of the following is a mode of transmission for cytomegalovirus?
A)Fecal/oral
B)Respiratory
C)Transfusion
D)Vector
Q3) In what year was the West Nile virus first identified as an emerging threat in the United States?
A)1940
B)1976
C)1981
D)1999
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Chapter 14: Perinatal and Neonatal Transfusion Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A minimum of at least one ______ dose of Rh-immune globulin (RhIG)must be administered to all Rh(D)-negative women who deliver an Rh(D)-positive infant,provided the woman has not already made anti-D.
A)100 µg
B)200 µg
C)300 µg
D)400 µg
Q2) Which method is the most accurate means of determining the severity of fetal hemolytic anemia and the need for treatment of the fetus?
A)Amniotic fluid analysis
B)Doppler flow studies
C)Fetal blood sampling
D)Maternal antibody titer
Q3) Which donor red blood cells would be chosen to use in an intrauterine transfusion?
A)Group AB,Rh(D)negative that lack the offending antigen
B)Group AB,Rh(E)negative that lack the offending antigen
C)Group O,Rh(C)negative that lack the offending antigen
D)Group O,Rh(D)negative that lack the offending antigen
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Chapter 15: Autoimmune and Drug-Induced Immune
Hemolytic
Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to the destruction of autologous red blood cells during a hemolytic transfusion reaction that is destroying allogeneic cells?
A)Hemagglutination
B)Hemostasis
C)Hemoglobinuria
D)Hyperhemolysis
Q2) Which of the following describes alloadsorption?
A)Removal of antibody from plasma by incubation with donor or reagent red blood cells with specific phenotypes
B)Removal of autoantibody from plasma by incubation with the patient's own red blood cells
C)Removal of antibody bound to red blood cells by incubation with chloroquine
D)Removal of autoantibody bound to red blood cells by incubation with glycine
Q3) Corticosteroid therapy is most successful in treating which type of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A)Cold agglutinin syndorm (CAS)
B)Drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia (DIIHA)
C)Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)
D)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Platelet Refractory Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the information necessary to calculate corrected count increment (CCI)or post-transfusion platelet recovery (PPR)is not available,a rough estimate of _________ increment per one unit of platelet concentrate transfused in an average adult patient can be used.
A)500/µL
B)1,000/µL
C)2,000/µL
D)5,000/µL
Q2) The antibodies most commonly implicated in immune platelet refractoriness are directed against which group of antigens?
A)ABO
B)HLA
C)HPA
D)Rh
Q3) Which condition is not considered prothrombotic?
A)Graft versus host disease (GVHD)
B)Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
C)Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
D)Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Transfusion Support of Selected Patient
Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red blood cell and platelet transfusions are used as supportive therapy in patients who have undergone a hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)transplant until when?
A)Chemotherapy is complete
B)CMV reactivation occurs
C)Engraftment occurs
D)Factor levels reach 70%
Q2) Which of the following is an oral iron chelator?
A)Deferasirox
B)Deferoxamine
C)Dexamethasone
D)Dimercaprol
Q3) Which of the following is a self-limited process that subsides with donor lymphocyte death?
A)Graft versus host disease
B)Hyperacute rejection
C)Iron overload
D)Passenger lymphocyte syndrome
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Human Histocompatibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are typical monitoring tests performed after a kidney transplant except
A)C4D staining and histological analysis
B)Serum creatinine level
C)Serum complement level
D)Urinary output
Q2) All of the following are true about HLA class I molecules except
A)Are expressed only on antigen presenting cells
B)Includes a 45 kDa glycoprotein heavy chain
C)Includes a 12 kDa -2 microglobulin light chain
D)Has a peptide-binding cleft that reacts with short peptides
Q3) What is the best description of a CREG?
A)Group of alleles on the same chromosome that are often inherited together
B)Group of antigens that all react with an antibody directed against a common epitope
C)Group of antigens resulting from alleles that are independently segregated
D)Group of HLA antibodies that react with a particular epitope common to multiple bacteria
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Chapter 19: Methods in Parentage Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mendel's laws of genetics requires ________ of the alleles in the child's sample to be traceable to each parent.
A)one-half
B)one-third
C)one-quarter
D)one-sixth
Q2) In what year were DNA typing procedures incorporated into parentage testing standards?
A)1953
B)1967
C)1985
D)1992
Q3) Which of the following legislation was passed with the hopes of reducing welfare costs by collecting from delinquent parents?
A)Aid to Families with Dependent Children
B)Child Support Enforcement Act
C)Promoting Safe and Stable Families
D)Victims of Child Abuse
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21
Chapter 20: Transfusion Safety and Regulatory Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organization represents one of the most common voluntary accreditations that apply to medical laboratories?
A)American Association of Bioanalysts
B)American Medical Technologists
C)Board of Certification of the American Society of Clinical Pathologists
D)College of American Pathologists
Q2) Most laboratory tests performed in blood banks and transfusion services are _________ tests.
A)nonwaived
B)waived
C)centralized
D)point-of-collection
Q3) Under which regulatory agency was the Bureau of Biologics housed?
A)AMA
B)CMS
C)FDA
D)NIH
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Chapter 21: Quality Assurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a quality assurance activity?
A)Trend analysis
B)Strategic planning
C)Vendor selection
D)Visual inspection
Q2) Regulation grants the authority to stop production of blood products in a blood manufacturing organization when a problem is detected to which group of people?
A)Executive members
B)Leadership administrators
C)Production managers
D)Quality assurance unit
Q3) Which type of audit is particularly effective in spotting errors that may be overlooked by routine record review?
A)External
B)Process
C)Product
D)Self
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