Medical Laboratory Technology
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Technology is a comprehensive course designed to provide students with the theoretical knowledge and practical skills necessary for performing laboratory analyses that assist in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease. The course covers key areas such as clinical biochemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and pathology, emphasizing the use and maintenance of laboratory equipment, adherence to quality control standards, and the application of safety protocols. Students learn to process and analyze samples, interpret results, and communicate findings effectively with healthcare professionals, preparing them for vital roles within clinical laboratories and the broader healthcare system.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Immunohematology 2nd Edition by Kathy D. Blaney
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16 Chapters
393 Verified Questions
393 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1436 Page 2
Chapter 1: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28516
Sample Questions
Q1) What immunoglobulin class reacts best by antiglobulin testing?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
Answer: D
Q2) An antibody with a specificity other than to one's own cells or tissue that is stimulated by transfusion or pregnancy is termed an:
A) autoantibody.
B) isoantibody.
C) alloantibody.
D) immunogen.
Answer: C
Q3) What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate spin?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications
in Immunohematology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in:
A) vitro.
B) vivo.
C) laboratory animals.
D) humans.
Answer: A
Q2) Reagent used in the identification of ABO antibodies
A)Panel cells
B)Screening cells
C)A<sub>1</sub> and B cells
D)ABO antisera
E)Rh antisera
F)Lectins
Answer: C
Q3) What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes?
A) Polyclonal-based
B) Monoclonal-based
C) Heterophile antibody-based
D) Alloantibody-based
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28518
Sample Questions
Q1) Short segment of DNA with a known sequence that can be labeled with a marker
A)Restriction fragment-length polymorphism
B)Polymerase chain reaction
C)Hybridization
D)Probe
E)Amplicon
Answer: D
Q2) In a family study it was determined that all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A, B, O, and AB. The parents were most likely ____________.
A) AA and BB
B) AO and BB
C) OO and AB
D) AO and BO
Answer: D
Q3) Parents who are both phenotyped as group A cannot have a group O child.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Abo and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Group B
A)D-galactose
B)L-fucose
C)N-acetylgalactosamine
D)None of the above
Q2) According to Landsteiner's rule, what ABO antibody will be detected in a group A individual's serum?
A) Anti-A
B) Anti-B
C) Anti-A,B
D) None
Q3) Why is it sometimes necessary to distinguish A<sub>1</sub> and A<sub>2</sub> blood types?
A) To resolve a discrepancy between the forward and reverse typing
B) To prevent A<sub>1</sub> recipients from receiving A<sub>2</sub> blood
C) To determine the secretor status of group A individuals
D) To prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Rh Blood Group System
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The numeric Rh4 nomenclature refers to which antigen in the Rosenfield notation?
A) C
B) c
C) e
D) E
Q2) How would a donor who tested negative with anti-D reagent in the immediate spin test but positive at antihuman globulin with anti-D reagent be labeled?
A) D-positive
B) D-negative
Q3) ce
A)R<sub>1</sub>r
B)R<sub>1</sub>R<sub>1</sub>
C)R<sub>2</sub>R<sub>2</sub>
D)rr
Q4) The LW antigen expression is typically stronger on __________ cells.
A) D-positive red
B) D-negative red
C) Rh null
D) D-variant
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies to which of the following blood group system show dosage (i.e., are stronger with homozygous expression of the antigen)?
A) Lutheran
B) P
C) Duffy
D) Kell
Q2) Which of the following phenotypes is heterozygous?
A) Fy(a-b+)
B) Jk(a+b-)
C) Fy(a+b+)
D) Le(a+b-)
Q3) Which of the following facts is not a characteristic of Kell system antibodies?
A) Usually clinically significant IgG antibodies
B) Best detected in indirect antiglobulin test phases
C) Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents
D) Do not bind complement proteins
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Chapter 7: Antibody Detection and Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following situations can be found in a classic case of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A) Positive direct antiglobulin test
B) False-positive Fy<sup>a </sup>phenotyping
C) Crossmatch incompatibility at antihuman globulin
D) All of the above
Q2) An autoadsorption uses what type of cells to remove antibody from the serum?
A) Antibody screening cells
B) Donor red cells
C) Patient red cells
D) Antibody identification panel cells
Q3) One screening cell 1+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT negative
A)Alloantibody, IgG
B)Alloantibody, IgM
C)Autoantibody, IgM
D)Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG
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Chapter 8: Compatibility Testing
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26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two components of the major crossmatch?
A) Recipient red cells and donor serum
B) Donor red cells and recipient serum
C) Reverse ABO cells and recipient serum
D) Screening cells and donor serum
Q2) Antibodies detected in the immediate spin crossmatch are usually of which of the following immunoglobulin classes?
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgG
D) IgD
Q3) If an emergency exists and there is not enough time to perform a crossmatch for red cells, what is the correct procedure?
A) Release group O, D-negative whole blood.
B) Release group O, D-negative red blood cells.
C) Release group AB fresh frozen plasma until the blood type is performed.
D) Release ABO compatible blood based on the patient's prior record in the computer.
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10
Chapter 9: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allogeneic whole blood donors may donate every __________ days.
A) 24
B) 36
C) 56
D) 72
Q2) During the donor screening process, the potential donor's blood drop sinks to the bottom of the copper sulfate solution within 15 seconds. What is the interpretation of this test?
A) The hemoglobin is within limits; however, the hematocrit must be checked.
B) The donor has an acceptable hemoglobin and hematocrit to donate.
C) The donor is temporarily deferred.
D) The specific gravity of the copper sulfate is incorrect.
Q3) How long must a donor wait to donate red blood cells again following a 2-unit red blood cell apheresis donation?
A) 56 days
B) 4 weeks
C) 10 weeks
D) 16 weeks
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Chapter 10: Testing of Donor Blood
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hepatitis B virus carrier is defined as a:
A) hepatitis B surface antigen-positive person who has liver disease as a result of a previous hepatitis exposure.
B) person who can transmit hepatitis B virus but may not be outwardly affected by it.
C) hepatitis B surface antibody-positive person, negative for hepatitis B surface antigen.
D) hepatitis B core antibody-positive person, negative for hepatitis B surface antigen.
Q2) What is the true statement regarding West Nile virus testing?
A) Testing for West Nile virus is required only in New York and California.
B) Testing for West Nile virus is necessary only in the warmer months of the year.
C) West Nile virus testing is performed using nucleic acid testing on all donor units.
D) West Nile virus testing is optional.
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Chapter 11: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pheresis (ACD)
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)10 years
E)28 days
F)24 hours
G)48 hours
H)72 hours
Q2) Following a platelet concentrate transfusion, a patient did not obtain the calculated corrected count increment that was expected. The possible reason(s) this did not occur is(are) the:
A) patient had a fever.
B) patient was actively bleeding.
C) patient has leukocyte antibodies.
D) all of the above are correct.
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Chapter 12: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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25 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28527
Sample Questions
Q1) Ten days after the transfusion of 2 units, a patient had a 2 g/dL drop in hemoglobin and was slightly jaundiced. No evidence of bleeding was found. What tests would be helpful in determining whether the patient is experiencing a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Culture the donor unit.
B) Compare pretransfusion and posttransfusion ABO and D typing.
C) Perform hepatitis B surface antigen test.
D) Perform an antibody screen on the posttransfusion sample.
Q2) Administration of whole blood to a patient with cardiac insufficiency could result in which of the following transfusion reactions?
A) Delayed hemolytic reaction
B) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
C) Circulatory overload
D) Febrile nonhemolytic reaction
Q3) Which of the following transfusion reactions has the highest incidence?
A) Hemolytic reactions due to ABO incompatibility
B) Urticarial
C) Graft-versus-host disease
D) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28528
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are goals of an exchange transfusion except to:
A) correct anemia.
B) remove high levels of unconjugated bilirubin.
C) remove high levels of maternal antibody.
D) restore the platelet count.
Q2) In testing amniotic fluid, the Liley method of predicting the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is based on:
A) colorimetric protein analysis.
B) optical density of bilirubin at 450 nm.
C) ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin.
D) titration of antibody.
Q3) Rh immune globulin should be given within how many hours following delivery?
A) 12
B) 24
C) 48
D) 72
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Chapter 14: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contributes to red cell loss in chronic renal disease?
A) Below normal erythropoietin levels
B) Shearing of red cells from kidney dialysis
C) Elevated uremia
D) All of the above
Q2) The most effective component to treat a patient with von Willebrand's disease is:
A) fresh frozen plasma.
B) red blood cells.
C) platelets.
D) cryoprecipitated AHF.
Q3) Which of the following contributes to the high blood use in a liver transplant surgery?
A) The liver is a very large organ.
B) It is difficult to find close human leukocyte antigen matches for liver transplants.
C) Platelets are stored in the liver.
D) The liver produces the vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors.
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Chapter 15: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood Industry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Validation
A)The CAP survey is an example
B)Systematic evaluations to determine whether procedures are being followed
C)Testing to determine the accuracy and precision of reagents and equipment
D)Process of standardizing an instrument against a known value
E)Removal of products from the market that might compromise the safety of the recipient
F)Degree to which a measurement represents the true value
G)Establishing that a specific process produces an expected result
H)Evaluation of an employee's ability to perform a specific skill
I)Investigation and identification of the factors that contributed to an error
J)Maximizes the duration of equipment and increases the reliability of the equipment
K)System to plan and implement changes to prevent problems
Q2) Unacceptable quality control results for the antiglobulin test performed in test tubes may be noticed if:
A) preventive maintenance has not been performed on the cell washer.
B) the technologist performing the test was never trained.
C) the reagents used were improperly stored.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 16: Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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Sample Questions
Q1) AABB
A)Ensures safe and healthful working conditions
B)Government agency that determines whether a health facility meets standards for reimbursement for Medicare
C)Assessment of medical wastes
D)Ensures the safety and efficacy of biologics, drugs, and devices
E)Voluntary accrediting agency for hospitals
F)Writes fire safety standards
G)Provides peer-reviewed accreditation for hospital laboratories
H)Professional organization that accredits blood banks and transfusion services
I)Makes recommendations to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration regarding the prevention of disease transmission
J)Governs all transportation except by mail
Q2) All accidents, even minor ones, must be reported to a supervisor.
A) True
B) False
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