Medical Laboratory Technology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Technology is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the fundamental principles and practices used in clinical diagnostic laboratories. The curriculum covers essential topics such as laboratory safety, instrumentation, specimen collection and handling, diagnostic techniques, and quality control. Students will gain hands-on experience in hematology, microbiology, clinical chemistry, immunology, and blood banking, enabling them to perform and interpret a wide range of laboratory tests. Emphasis is placed on the critical role of laboratory technology in disease detection, monitoring, and prevention, as well as the ethical and professional responsibilities of laboratory personnel. This course equips students with the technical skills and knowledge necessary for successful careers in medical diagnostics and research.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Blood Banking and Transfusion Practices 4th Edition by Paula R.
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16 Chapters
461 Verified Questions
461 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood
Industry and Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17670
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding good manufacturing practices (GMPs)?
A) GMPs are legal requirements established by the Food and Drug Administration.
B) GMPs are optional guidelines written by the AABB.
C) GMPs are required only by pharmaceutical companies.
D) GMPs are part of the quality control requirements for blood products.
Answer: A
Q2) AABB
A)Ensures safe and healthful working conditions
B)Ensures the safety and efficacy of biologics, drugs, and devices
C)Provides peer-reviewed accreditation for hospital laboratories
D)Professional organization that accredits blood banks and transfusion services
E)Makes recommendations to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration regarding the prevention of disease transmission
Answer: D
Q3) All of the following are true regarding competency testing except:
A) it must be performed following training.
B) it must be performed on an annual basis.
C) it is required only if the technologist has no experience.
D) retraining is required if there is a failure in competency testing.
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications
in the Blood Bank
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following requires adjustment in order to enhance the reaction of an antibody in vitro?
A) Temperature above 37° C
B) Speed of the centrifuge above the calibrated settings
C) Increase the concentration of red cells in the test system
D) Increase the incubation time in the incubator
Answer: D
Q2) Which immunoglobulin class is impacted by the zeta potential in a hemagglutination test?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgE
Answer: B
Q3) In a serologic test,the term prozone is also known as: A) equivalence.
B) antigen excess.
C) antibody excess.
D) serum-to-cell ratio.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reagent used to detect the presence of red cell antibodies
A)Panel cells
B)Screening cells
C)A1 and B cells
D)ABO antisera
E)Lectins
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is not an advantage of using a monoclonal antibody over a polyclonal antibody?
A) There are very few variations between lots.
B) There are no contaminating antibodies.
C) Direct agglutination is usually faster.
D) All variations of the antigen can be detected.
Answer: D
Q3) Tests for certain clinical conditions such as hemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune hemolytic anemia
A)Indirect antiglobulin test
B)Direct antiglobulin test
C)Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The children of a group AB mother and a group B father could phenotype as all of the following except:
A) O.
B) A.
C) B.
D) AB.
Q2) What is an advantage of Nucleic Acid Testing (NAT)for viral marker testing?
A) Quicker to perform than most other tests
B) More cost effective than traditional test methods
C) A small amount of DNA or RNA can be detected
D) No problem with cross-contamination of samples
Q3) In the PCR reaction,what is the term for the short pieces of single-stranded DNA that are complementary and mark the sequence to be amplified?
A) Nucleotides
B) Polymerases
C) Primers
D) Amplicons
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Chapter 5: ABO and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) H antigen
A)D-galactose
B)L-fucose
C)N-acetylgalactosamine
D)None of the above
Q2) Group A
A)D-galactose
B)L-fucose
C)N-acetylgalactosamine
D)None of the above
Q3) What is the test procedure that combines patient's serum with commercial A and B reagent red cells?
A) ABO forward grouping
B) ABO reverse grouping
C) Antibody screen
D) Antibody panel
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Chapter 6: Rh Blood Group System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inheritance of the Rh antigens are:
A) X-linked recessive.
B) X-linked dominant.
C) autosomal recessive.
D) codominant.
Q2) A patient phenotypes as D+C+E-c-e+.Predict the most likely genotype.
A) R<sup> </sup>r
B) R<sup> </sup>R<sup> </sup>
C) R<sup> </sup>r'
D) R<sup> </sup>R<sup> </sup>
Q3) ce
A)R<sup> </sup>r
B)R<sup> </sup>R<sup> </sup>
C)R<sup> </sup>R<sup> </sup>
D)rr
Q4) How would you label a donor who tested negative with anti-D reagent upon immediate-spin and positive in antihuman globulin test?
A) D-positive
B) D-negative
C) Cannot label; more testing needed
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Other Red Cell Blood Group Systems, Human
Leukocyte Antigens, and Platelet Antigens
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mixed lymphocyte culture (MLC)is a procedure that has been used in HLA testing to determine:
A) class I HLA antigen determination.
B) class II HLA antigen determination.
C) HLA antibody identification.
D) compatibility testing for tissue typing.
E) B and D.
Q2) Antibodies to Kidd,Kell,and Duffy blood group antigens share all the following characteristics except:
A) can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
B) usually detected only by the indirect antiglobulin test.
C) enhanced with enzyme treatment.
D) can cause transfusion reactions.
Q3) Select the statement that is FALSE regarding anti-P1.
A) Anti-P1 will not react with enzyme-treated P1 positive red cells.
B) P2 individuals can make anti-P1.
C) Anti-P1 is clinically not significant.
D) Anti-P1 reacts best at room temperature.
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Chapter 8: Antibody Detection and Identification
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All screening cells positive 1+ at IS,DAT negative
A)Alloantibody, IgG
B)Alloantibody, IgM
C)Autoantibody, IgM
D)Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG
Q2) Select the antibody that is not produced against a low-incidence antigen.
A) Anti-Vel
B) Anti-C<sup>w</sup>
C) Anti-V
D) Anti-Lu<sup>a</sup>
Q3) An autoadsorption may be performed to investigate underlying autoantibodies.When is this procedure acceptable?
A) When the autoantibody is reactive at 4° C
B) When the patient has not been recently transfused
C) Only if complement is coating the red cells
D) When the eluate is negative
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Chapter 9: Compatibility Testing
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells.What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility?
A) Immediate-spin
B) 37° C low-ionic strength solution
C) Indirect antiglobulin
D) None of them; unit is compatible
Q2) If the recipient was transfused within the last 3 months,how long from the time of collection can a sample be used for the crossmatch?
A) 3 days
B) 5 days
C) 7 days
D) 10 days
Q3) If an emergency exists and there is not enough time to perform a crossmatch for red cells,what is the correct procedure?
A) Release group O, D-negative whole blood.
B) Release group O, D-negative RBC units.
C) Release group AB fresh frozen plasma until the blood type is performed.
D) Release ABO-compatible blood based on the patient's prior record in the computer.
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Chapter 10: Blood Bank Automation for Transfusion Services
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The PROVUE,TANGO,and NEO have the ability to perform all of the following tests except:
A) ABO/D typing.
B) antibody ID panels.
C) direct antiglobulin test.
D) acid elution.
Q2) A smooth layer of cells in the bottom of the well is interpreted as a/an ____________ reaction when the solid-phase red cell adherence method is completed for the antiglobulin test:
A) positive
B) negative
C) indeterminate
D) mixed field
Q3) Which of the following instruments performs assays using gel technology?
A) ECHO
B) PROVUE
C) NEO
D) TANGO
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12
Chapter 11: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nonimmune mechanisms can lead to a hemolytic reaction to red blood cells?
A) Incompatible intravenous solutions mixed with the unit
B) Improper storage of the unit
C) Bacterial contamination of the unit
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following conditions can result from long-term red blood cell transfusions?
A) Citrate toxicity
B) Hemosiderosis
C) Graft-versus-host disease
D) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
Q3) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
A)Prevented by leukocyte-reduced components
B)Prevented by irradiation of components
C)Symptoms include hives and itching
D)Associated with ABO incompatibilities
E)Caused by donor white cell antibodies
F)Alloantibodies to red cell antigens
G)Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17681
Sample Questions
Q1) A 300-µg dose of Rh immune globulin contains sufficient anti-D to protect against how much whole blood?
A) 25 mL
B) 30 mL
C) 50 mL
D) 100 mL
Q2) All of the following are common characteristics of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn except:
A) weak positive direct antiglobulin test.
B) the mother is group A.
C) the antibody on the infant's cells is anti-A,B.
D) mild clinical symptoms.
Q3) Which one of the following antibodies is unlikely to cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
A) Anti-C
B) Anti-K
C) Anti-Le<sup>a</sup>
D) Anti-S
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Chapter 13: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) 27-year-old woman returning from the Peace Corps in Nigeria who was vaccinated for typhoid 6 months ago
A)Acceptable donors
B)Temporarily deferred
C)Permanently deferred
D)Indefinite deferral
Q2) 53-year-old woman taking a beta-blocker for hypertension and over-the-counter low-dose aspirin for blood-clot prevention
A)Acceptable donors
B)Temporarily deferred
C)Permanently deferred
D)Indefinite deferral
Q3) 18-year-old woman currently taking Accutane for acne
A)Acceptable donors
B)Temporarily deferred
C)Permanently deferred
D)Indefinite deferral
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15
Chapter 14: Testing of Donor Blood
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the organism that causes Chagas disease?
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Trypanosoma cruzi
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Plasmodium vivax
Q2) What is the advantage of testing donors' blood using nucleic acid test methods?
A) Detection of small amounts of the virus
B) Reduction of costs involved in testing
C) Quicker and easier to perform than other methods
D) All of the above
Q3) How is the sensitivity of a viral marker assay described?
A) True positives divided by difference between true positives and false negatives
B) True negatives divided by sum of true negatives and false positives
C) True positives divided by sum of true positives and false negatives
D) True negatives divided by difference between true negatives and false positives
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16
Chapter 15: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select an important determination of platelet viability following the recommended storage interval.
A) Platelet count
B) pH
C) PTT
D) Oxygen level
Q2) Why are plastic overwraps recommended when thawing FFP and CRYO?
A) To prevent contamination of the water bath
B) To prevent rapid thawing, which affects labile factors
C) To prevent entry ports from becoming contaminated with water
D) To prevent the label from peeling off when thawing
Q3) What patient population needs leukocyte-reduced red blood cells?
A) Patients with febrile transfusion reactions
B) Patients with iron deficiency anemia
C) Patients with hemophilia A
D) Patients with cancer undergoing chemotherapy treatments
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Chapter 16: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used in the treatment of hemophilia A?
A) Factor VIII concentrate
B) Factor XIII concentrate
C) Platelets
D) Fresh frozen plasma
Q2) Which of the following situations contributes to red blood cell loss in chronic renal disease?
A) Below normal erythropoietin levels
B) Shearing of red cells from kidney dialysis
C) Elevated uremia
D) All of the above
Q3) A patient,group AB,D-positive,has a bleeding aortic aneurysm.A massive transfusion is undertaken for lifesaving measures.What ABO phenotype is recommended for transfusion to this patient?
A) Group A
B) Group B
C) Group O
D) Group AB
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