Medical Laboratory Technology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Technology is a course designed to equip students with the theoretical knowledge and practical skills necessary to perform a variety of clinical laboratory tests essential for the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases. Covering areas such as hematology, microbiology, clinical chemistry, immunology, and pathology, students learn sample collection, analysis, and interpretation using advanced laboratory equipment and techniques. Emphasis is also placed on laboratory safety, quality control, ethical practices, and effective communication with healthcare professionals. This foundational training prepares graduates for crucial roles in medical laboratories, research institutions, and diagnostic centers.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition by Patricia Tille
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
79 Chapters
1136 Verified Questions
1136 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2162 Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43094
Sample Questions
Q1) An organism is serologically identified in the clinical laboratory.This is an example of which phenotypic property?
A) Subcellular properties
B) Antigenic properties
C) Resistant profiles
D) Nucleic acid sequence analysis
Answer: B
Q2) The use of a double genus in a microorganism's label, such as Burkholderia (Pseudomonas), indicates that the bacterium:
A) does not fit well in either group but has some characteristics of both groups.
B) is a genetic cross between the two groups.
C) has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia).
D) has been moved from one genus (Burkholderia) to another genus (Pseudomonas).
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
3
Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43095
Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial cell that contains teichoic acid stains which color on the Gram stain?
A) Pink
B) Red
C) Green
D) Purple
Answer: D
Q2) A pathway that generates ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation that does not require oxygen and produces various end products, including alcohols, acids, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen, is:
A) substrate-level phosphorylation.
B) fermentative metabolism.
C) oxidative phosphorylation.
D) aerobic respiration.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43096
Sample Questions
Q1) Cells with a short life span that circulate in blood and tissues and are usually the first cells on the scene of a bacterial invasion are called:
A) monocytes.
B) polymorphonuclear neutrophils.
C) lymphocytes.
D) macrophages.
Answer: B
Q2) The complement system serves to:
A) increase blood flow to the area of infection and can also effectively wall off the infection through the production of barrier substances.
B) attract and enhance the activities of phagocytes.
C) provide substances secreted by one type of cell, which have substantial effects on the antiinfective activities of other cells.
D) ingest and destroy microorganisms.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43097
Sample Questions
Q1) A cleaning solution used on the laboratory bench top to kill bacteria that are potentially harmful to humans would be called a(n):
A) surfactant.
B) disinfectant.
C) biocide.
D) antiseptic.
Q2) The agency that has published guidelines known as standard precautions to reduce the risk of disease transmission in laboratories is:
A) DHEC.
B) OSHA.
C) CDC.
D) EPA.
Q3) Biosafety Level 4 agents:
A) include those that are the common agents of infectious disease.
B) require only standard good laboratory technique.
C) include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M. gordonae, and Brucella.
D) require the use of maximum containment facilities.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Specimen Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43098
Sample Questions
Q1) The definitive identification of clinically significant isolates is:
A) always necessary and should be carried out by the laboratory at all times.
B) desirable in most cases; however, limited identification may sometimes be necessary and helpful.
C) often not cost effective and should be performed only when requested by the attending physician.
D) not necessary in most cases and should not be routinely performed by the laboratory.
Q2) The best anticoagulant to prevent clotting of specimens, such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid, which are submitted for recovery of all types of microorganisms, is:
A) sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS).
B) heparin.
C) citrate.
D) ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA).
Q3) An example of a selective medium for gram-positive organisms is:
A) MacConkey agar.
B) blood agar.
C) colistin and nalidixic acid.
D) thioglycollate broth.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 7
Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43099
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the different types of staining and microscopic techniques, which one of the following is basically the most sensitive?
A) Chromogenic
B) Fluorescence
C) Phase contrast
D) Light field
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning dark-field microscopy?
A) This type of microscopy uses specific stains to enhance the contrast of certain bacteria.
B) The condenser does not allow light to pass directly through the specimen but directs the light to hit the specimen at an oblique angle.
C) Dark-field microscopy allows the visualization of larger viruses.
D) Dark-field microscopy can differentiate various difficult-to-grow organisms by using immunofluorescence.
Q3) The most critical step in the Gram stain is the application of the:
A) safranin.
B) crystal violet.
C) Gram's iodine.
D) Gram's decolorizer.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43100
Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that have nutritional needs that are relatively complex and require extra media components to be used for growth are called:
A) fastidious.
B) capnophiles.
C) neutrophils.
D) halophiles.
Q2) Which category of media can be described as containing specific nutrients required for the growth of particular bacterial pathogens in a patient specimen?
A) Enrichment
B) Supportive
C) Selective
D) Differential
Q3) What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces incomplete hemolysis and a greening discoloration of the medium?
A) Beta
B) Gamma
C) Alpha
D) Kappa
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43101
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of hybridization method would be the optimal choice to use to detect a lesion infected with a particular virus?
A) Southern
B) In situ
C) Peptide nucleic acid
D) Sandwich
Q2) The ability of two nucleic acid strands, a probe and a target, which have complementary base sequences that specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule, drives which of the following methods?
A) Hybridization
B) Sequencing
C) Amplification (PCR)
D) Genotypic
Q3) The enzyme that is commonly used for primer extensions in the PCR method works best at what temperature?
A) 25º C
B) 56º C
C) 72º C
D) 94º C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43102
Sample Questions
Q1) A sample suspected of containing Legionella pneumophila is treated with the dye fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC); however, the sample fluoresced a bright apple-green colony after it was processed.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) A technical error may have occurred.
B) The fluorescent bulb may have malfunctioned.
C) The results are accurate; no discrepancy is found.
D) A postanalytical error is to blame.
Q2) The precipitin test that involves antigen and antibody diffusing toward each other, producing a visible precipitin band at the point at which they meet, is referred to as:
A) double immunodiffusion.
B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C) particle agglutination.
D) enzyme immunoassay.
Q3) Monoclonal antibodies are those that:
A) react with many different types of antigens.
B) react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C) are produced by the offspring of a single hybrid cell.
D) can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Page 11
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43103
Sample Questions
Q1) A method that uses an electrical current to speed up the migration of an antigen and antibody is referred to as:
A) double immunodiffusion.
B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C) particle agglutination.
D) enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) The antibody that is predominantly found in tears, saliva, and intestinal secretions is:
A) IgG.
B) IgA.
C) IgM.
D) IgE.
Q3) The study of the diagnosis of disease by measuring antibody levels in serum is called:
A) immunology.
B) immunohematology.
C) serology.
D) immunocytology.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43104
Sample Questions
Q1) Mycoplasmas are organisms without cell walls.Which antimicrobial agents would be ineffective in treating infections involving this bacterium?
A) Tetracycline
B) Aminoglycosides
C) Penicillin
D) Rifampin
Q2) Rifampin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
Q3) Polymyxin B
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 13
Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43105
Sample Questions
Q1) Bactericidal tests should be performed:
A) for every clinically significant organism isolated from a clinical specimen.
B) to evaluate antimicrobial agents usually considered to be bacteriostatic.
C) for severe and life-threatening infections.
D) on all gram-positive and gram-negative organisms, whether or not they are clinically significant.
Q2) In the microdilution broth dilution method, the interpretive criteria for the susceptible, intermediate, or resistant categories are based on the:
A) amount of turbidity in the test well.
B) correlations of the MIC with serum achievable levels for the antimicrobial agent, particular resistance mechanisms, and successful therapeutic outcomes.
C) size of the zone of inhibition.
D) reciprocal value of the MIC.
Q3) Enterococcal resistance to ampicillin predicts resistance to:
A) vancomycin.
B) aminoglycoside.
C) cephalosporin.
D) amikacin.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43106
Sample Questions
Q1) An infected intravenous (IV)catheter tip grew out gram-positive cocci, which were catalase positive and coagulase negative.The zone size of the novobiocin disk measured 18 mm.The most likely organism causing infection is:
A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
B) S. epidermidis.
C) S. hominis.
D) S. cohnii.
Q2) The Staphylococcaceae staphylococcus that is more likely to cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections in nonhospitalized hosts, especially sexually active young women, is:
A) S. saprophyticus.
B) S. aureus.
C) S. epidermidis.
D) S. intermedius.
Q3) The tube coagulase test:
A) detects bound coagulase.
B) detects extracellular coagulase.
C) is performed on slide coagulase-positive isolates to confirm a positive result. D) requires citrated reagent plasma.
Page 15
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43107
Sample Questions
Q1) What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces complete hemolysis and a clearing of the medium?
A) Beta hemolysis
B) Gamma hemolysis
C) Alpha hemolysis
D) Kappa hemolysis
Q2) The CAMP factor is produced by:
A) Enterococcus faecalis.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) S. agalactiae.
Q3) Streptococcus pneumoniae can be described as:
A) resistant to bile and optochin.
B) beta-hemolytic.
C) catalase-positive.
D) often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 16
Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43108
Sample Questions
Q1) Media that can be used for isolating Bacillus anthracis include:
A) Thayer-Martin agar.
B) 5% sheep blood agar.
C) MacConkey agar.
D) Columbia blood agar with colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA).
Q2) A patient diagnosed with Bacillus anthracis is allergic to penicillin.Which antibiotic can be given that will be therapeutically effective?
A) Ampicillin
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Imipenem
D) Vancomycin
Q3) Suspect spore-forming, gram-positive Bacillus species that is nonhemolytic, nonmotile, and penicillin-susceptible and that produces a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as:
A) Corynebacterium diphtheria.
B) Bacillus anthracis.
C) Bacillus cereus.
D) Corynebacterium jeikeium.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
17
Chapter 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43109
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who are immunocompromised and women who are pregnant should avoid eating soft cheeses such as Mexican-style, feta, Brie, Camembert, and blue-veined cheeses to prevent:
A) foodborne listeriosis.
B) staphylococcal food poisoning.
C) gastric gangrene.
D) Salmonella infection.
Q2) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is:
A) Listeria monocytogenes.
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C) Bacillus anthracis.
D) Bacillus cereus.
Q3) After 48 hours of incubation, black colonies with a dark brown halo are observed on Tinsdale agar.What type of toxin does this organism produce?
A) Emetic toxin
B) Exotoxin
C) Enterotoxin
D) Endotoxin
Page 18
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43110
Sample Questions
Q1) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Lactobacillus
C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D) Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Q2) To test the validity of TSI media, quality control should be performed using which two organisms?
A) Gardnerella and Lactobacillus
B) Erysipelothrix and Gardnerella
C) Propionibacterium and Lactobacillus
D) Actinomyces and Arcanobacterium
Q3) A farmer has a localized, painful skin infection.Cultures are set up, and alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative, and gram-positive bacilli are isolated.Based on this information, which of the following biochemical results are expected-urease, H S production in TSI, and nitrate reduction?
A) Positive urease, positive TSI, and positive nitrate
B) Positive urease, negative TSI, and negative nitrate
C) Negative urease, positive TSI, and negative nitrate
D) Negative urease, negative TSI, and negative nitrate
Page 19
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43111
Sample Questions
Q1) A chronic, granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues, which is caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts, is referred to as:
A) actinomycetoma.
B) infectious granulomas.
C) lymphocytoma.
D) Actinomadura.
Q2) Nocardia spp.cause which of the following types of infections in individuals who are immunocompromised?
A) Mycetoma
B) Lymphocutaneous infections
C) Skin abscesses or cellulites
D) Invasive pulmonary infections
Q3) Which organisms should be used to run quality control for acid-fast stains?
A) Nocardia and Rhodococcus
B) Streptomyces and Actinomadura
C) Dermatophilus and Nocardiopsis
D) Nocardia and Streptomyces
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43112
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following bacterial species, which is associated with a serious diarrheal illness with high mortality rates among some populations?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Shigella spp.
C) Salmonella spp.
D) Vibrio spp.
Q2) Which of correct for the description "acid slant, acid butt, no H S"?
A) Salmonella spp.
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus spp.
D) Pseudomonas spp.
Q3) A gram-negative bacillus that is hydrogen sulfide (H S)-positive, citrate-positive, spot indole-negative, and associated with gastroenteritis in the United States is most likely:
A) Klebsiella pneumoniae.
B) Proteus vulgaris.
C) Salmonella enteritidis.
D) Shigella sonnei.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43113
Sample Questions
Q1) Plump coccobacilli that tend to resist alcohol decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp.are:
A) Bordetella spp.
B) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia.
C) Acinetobacter spp.
D) Pseudomonas oryzihabitans.
Q2) Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A) Acinetobacter spp.
B) Bordetella trematum
C) Burkholderia gladioli
D) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
Q3) For more serious infections caused by Acinetobacter spp., such as pneumonia or bacteremia, effective treatment may require the use of:
A) multiple rounds of penicillin or a similar antibiotic.
B) a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
C) repeated high-level doses of gentamycin.
D) single-drug therapy in combination with a steroid.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 22
Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43114
Sample Questions
Q1) Which organism exhibits bipolar staining on the Gram stain, which resembles a "safety-pin" appearance?
A) Burkholderia mallei
B) Pseudomonas pseudomallei
C) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group
D) Brevundimonas diminuta
Q2) Not including organisms in the Enterobacteriaceae family, the second most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens are:
A) Pseudomonas.
B) Burkholderia.
C) Ralstonia.
D) Vibrio.
Q3) Which species of Burkholderia is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?
A) Burkholderia ralstonia
B) Burkholderia pseudomallei
C) Burkholderia mallei
D) Burkholderia cepacia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43115
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an indwelling catheter tip began spiking a fever of 39º C.The site of the catheter was inflamed and red.The catheter tip was cultured, and the following organism was isolated: a nonlactose-fermenter on MacConkey agar; a glucose, xylose, and mannitol oxidizer with the ability to hydrolyze esculin.This organism is most likely which one of the following?
A) CDC group EF-4b
B) Shewanella putrefaciens
C) Rhizobium radiobacter
D) Paracoccus yeei
Q2) The most common type of infection caused by both Rhizobium radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is:
A) peritonitis.
B) endocarditis.
C) meningitis.
D) bacteremia.
Q3) The natural habitat of Achromobacter sp.can best be described as the:
A) mucous membranes of animals.
B) gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C) natural environment.
D) genitourinary tract of animals.
Page 24
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43116
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a bacteremia identified as Elizabethkingia meningoseptica infection was placed on intravenous penicillin; however, the patient did not improve after 5 days.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?
A) The dose was abbreviated and therefore did not have time to work.
B) The patient is most likely allergic to penicillin and is not responding.
C) Penicillin is ineffective against this organism.
D) An aminoglycoside should be given along with the penicillin to increase its effects.
Q2) The natural habitat of Chryseobacterium sp.can best be described as the: A) mucous membranes of animals.
B) gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C) natural environment.
D) genitourinary tract of animals.
Q3) Which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes to determine the validity of the indole reagent?
A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Empedobacter brevis
B) Chryseobacterium spp. and Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
C) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Sphingobacterium multivorum
D) Agrobacterium group and Sphingobacterium spiritivorum
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43117
Sample Questions
Q1) Gram-stain morphologic features, motility, and flagellar placement are important identifying characteristics of:
A) Chryseobacterium.
B) Flavobacterium.
C) Pseudomonas.
D) Bordetella.
Q2) Pertussis (whooping cough), an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the _________ species.
A) Brucella
B) Bordetella
C) Pasteurella
D) Francisella
Q3) The mode of transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica can best be described as: A) person-to-person contact.
B) exposure to contaminated water.
C) inhalation of contaminated air.
D) close contact with animals.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 26
Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43118
Sample Questions
Q1) Vibrio cholerae and Photobacterium damsela are used to perform quality control on TCBS agar.After overnight incubation, no growth is observed.What is the next course of action?
A) Reinoculate the TCBS agar, and incubate for 36 hours.
B) Check the pH to ensure that it is 8.6.
C) Reincubate the plates for another 24 hours.
D) These two organisms are poor choices for quality control on TCBS agar.
Q2) The drug of choice to treat patients with Vibrio cholera is:
A) tetracycline.
B) ceftazidime.
C) imipenem.
D) aztreonam.
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Vibrio spp., Aeromonas spp., Plesiomonas shigelloides, and Chromobacterium violaceum?
A) Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B) Habitats are limited to the gastrointestinal tract.
C) Habitats are mostly soil and water environment.
D) Habitats are limited mostly to soil.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43119
Sample Questions
Q1) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive, motile by wet mount, and has the ability to oxidize glucose, xylose, and sucrose is most likely which of the following?
A) Treponema
B) Leptospira
C) Borrelia
D) Sphingomonas
Q2) When performing quality control on motility media, which of the following organisms should be used?
A) Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.
B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group IIc and CDC group IIe
C) CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii
D) CDC group IIh and Acidovorax facilis
Q3) Oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, (oxidatively)gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:
A) Pseudomonas.
B) Vibrio.
C) Stenotrophomonas.
D) Sphingomonas.
Page 28
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43120
Sample Questions
Q1) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections, primarily of the respiratory tract, is:
A) M. catarrhalis.
B) M. lacunata.
C) M. canis.
D) M. atlantae.
Q2) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella atlantae will appear as:
A) either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B) gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C) coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D) coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
Q3) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella lacunata will appear as:
A) either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B) gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C) coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D) coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43121
Sample Questions
Q1) The organism that is found in vegetation and occasionally in the hospital environment grows best at which temperature?
A) 4º C
B) 25º C
C) 35º C
D) 56º C
Q2) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A) Eikenella corrodens
B) Weeksella virosa
C) Pseudomonas maltophilia
D) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
Q3) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?
A) Eikenella corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.
B) Weeksella virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum
C) Bergeyella zoohelcum and Escherichia coli
D) Eikenella corrodens and Weeksella virosa
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 30
Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43122
Sample Questions
Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A) Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B) Mannheimia haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C) Pasteurella multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D) Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
Q2) Which test is used to differentiate Pasteurella multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A) Indole
B) Catalase
C) Nitrate
D) Sucrose
Q3) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving:
A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B) Eikenella corrodens.
C) Pasteurella multocida.
D) Weeksella virosa.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella,
Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar
Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43123
Sample Questions
Q1) Kingella spp.can be distinguished from Neisseria spp.by its:
A) negative test for catalase.
B) positive test for lactose fermentation.
C) positive test for catalase.
D) negative test for oxidase.
Q2) Which yellow-pigmented organism exhibits gliding motility that grows best at 35º C and in conditions with increased carbon dioxide (CO )but cannot grow in ambient air?
A) Actinobacillus
B) Capnocytophaga
C) Cardiobacterium
D) Kingella
Q3) Kingella denitrificans, which is nonhemolytic and tends to pit the agar, also grows on selective media that support the growth of which gram-negative diplococci?
A) Capnocytophaga spp.
B) Cardiobacterium hominis
C) Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Page 32
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 31: Haemophilus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43124
Sample Questions
Q1) Growth of most Haemophilus species in culture is enhanced by:
A) incubation at 33° to 35° C.
B) high humidity.
C) 5% to 10% carbon dioxide (CO2).
D) enriched special media.
Q2) Haemophilus ducreyi requires what special media to grow?
A) Heart-infusion-based agar, supplemented with 10% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin
B) Mueller-Hinton-based chocolate agar, supplemented with 1% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin
C) Heart infusion-based chocolate agar, supplemented with 10% fetal bovine serum and vancomycin
D) Mueller-Hinton-based agar, supplemented with 10% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin
Q3) Which of the following media provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?
A) 5% sheep blood agar
B) Brain-heart infusion agar
C) Chocolate agar
D) Nutrient agar
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43125
Sample Questions
Q1) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:
A) Afipia felis.
B) Bartonella quintana.
C) B. clarridgeiae.
D) B. henselae.
Q2) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?
A) Gram stain
B) Wright stain
C) Trichrome stain
D) Warthin-Starry silver stain
Q3) Although molecular methods are available, such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species, limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:
A) probes.
B) polymerases.
C) primers.
D) restriction enzymes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43126
Sample Questions
Q1) Which organisms should be used to perform quality control on hippurate reagent?
A) Campylobacter coli and C. concisus
B) C. curvus and C. hyointestinalis
C) C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and C. jejuni subsp. doylei
D) C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and C. coli
Q2) Campylobacter jejuni subsp.jejuni grows best at what conditions?
A) 37º C under microaerobic conditions
B) 37º C under anaerobic conditions
C) 42º C under microaerobic conditions
D) 42º C under anaerobic conditions
Q3) Curved, microaerophilic, gram-negative rods, with most species having strong urease activity and the majority of which colonize mammalian stomachs or intestines, describe which group of bacteria?
A) Campylobacter
B) Helicobacter
C) Arcobacter
D) Enterobacter
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35
Chapter 34: Legionella
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43127
Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) A direct immunofluorescent antibody (DFA)test was performed on a sputum sample that yielded a positive test.The organism grew on BCYE medium and was a thin gram-negative, faintly staining bacillus.What is the drug of choice for this organism?
A) Fluoroquinolones
B) Erythromycin
C) Penicillin
D) Aminoglycosides
Q3) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?
A) L-cysteine and iron
B) Blood and cysteine
C) Dopa-cysteine
D) Nicotinic adenine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 35: Brucella
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43128
Sample Questions
Q1) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable, which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A) Penicillin and azithromycin
B) Ampicillin and gentamycin
C) Doxycycline and rifampin
D) Gentamycin and vancomycin
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A) dairy farmers.
B) fishermen.
C) prison guards.
D) those working with exotic birds.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 37
Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and
Related Species
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43129
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following toxins contributes to the virulence of Bordetella pertussis and works by hemolyzing red cells and activating cyclic adenosine monophosphate, which inactivates several types of host immune cells?
A) Endotoxin
B) Pertussis toxin
C) Tracheal cytotoxin
D) Adenylate cyclase toxin
Q2) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are:
A) runny nose and mild cough.
B) severe and violent coughing.
C) neutrocytosis and fever.
D) lymphadenitis.
Q3) Acceptable specimens for the detection of Bordetella pertussis are:
A) throat swabs.
B) sputum.
C) nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D) anterior nose swabs.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 38
Chapter 37: Francisella
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43130
Sample Questions
Q1) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:
A) blood.
B) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
C) lymph nodes.
D) urine.
Q2) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A) Cysteine and cystine
B) Blood and cysteine
C) Dopa-cysteine
D) Nicotinic adenine
Q3) Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations, is caused by which of the following species?
A) Brucella
B) Bordetella
C) Pasteurella
D) Francisella
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43131
Sample Questions
Q1) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by:
A) chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.
B) a granulomatous lesion.
C) septic arthritis.
D) endocarditis.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A) Sodoku.
B) Haverhill fever.
C) monillic fever.
D) monillic gastritis.
Q3) Which of the following causes Sodoku, which is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion?
A) Streptobacillus moniliformis
B) Spirillum minus
C) Bordetella spp.
D) Pasteurella spp.
Page 40
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43132
Sample Questions
Q1) An endocervical swab was collected from a 26-year-old woman with a purulent discharge.The Gram stain revealed the following: · Many white blood cells (WBCs)
· Moderate gram-negative diplococci
· Moderate gram-negative coccobacilli
· Few yeast
Based on these findings, what would be the next course of action?
A) Report the isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) Work up the yeast.
C) Report the Gram stain, and follow up with culture.
D) Request a new specimen; this one is contaminated.
Q2) The gram-negative coccus that can be described as oxidase-positive, glucose-negative, maltose-negative, sucrose-negative, lactose-negative, and DNase-positive is:
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) Moraxella catarrhalis.
C) N. cinerea.
D) N. gonorrhoeae.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 41
Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43133
Sample Questions
Q1) Feces in a sterile specimen cup is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
Q2) Urine via catheter is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
Q3) During specimen collection, an important thing to remember when handling a collection device with an oxygen-free atmosphere is to:
A) take care not to tip the container.
B) hold the collected specimen in the refrigerator until processing.
C) hold the collected specimen in the incubator until processing.
D) avoid opening the container in an aerobic atmosphere.
Q4) LKV blood agar
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective; supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 42
Chapter 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43134
Sample Questions
Q1) The ethanol shock or heat shock test will separate which two bacteria?
A) Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium ramosum
B) Clostridium and Bifidobacterium
C) Actinomyces and Bifidobacterium
D) Eubacterium and Eggerthella
Q2) The most likely identification of a bile-resistant, kanamycin-resistant, colistin-resistant, and vancomycin-resistant anaerobic gram-negative bacilli is:
A) nonpigmented Prevotella.
B) Porphyromonas spp.
C) Bacteroides fragilis group.
D) Fusobacterium spp.
Q3) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-negative coccus is:
A) Porphyromonas spp.
B) Veillonella.
C) Leptotrichia.
D) Fusobacterium spp.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
43
Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43135
Sample Questions
Q1) The specimen of choice for detecting mycobacterium in a skin lesion or wound is a:
A) swab placed in Amie's transport medium or Stuart's medium.
B) needle aspiration.
C) skin scraping.
D) swab placed in anaerobic conditions.
Q2) Examples of the mycobacterial species that occur in humans and belong to the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex include:
A) M. tuberculosis, nontuberculous mycobacteria, M. bovis, and M. africanum.
B) M. tuberculosis, M. gordonae, M. bovis BCG, and M. africanum.
C) M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. avium, and M. intracellulare.
D) M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. bovis BCG, and M. africanum.
Q3) Optimal conditions for the recovery of M.haemophilum from specimens include:
A) inoculation to a sheep blood agar plate.
B) incubation at 35° to 42° C.
C) placement of an X-factor disk on the media.
D) microaerophilic environment with low humidity.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 44
Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43136
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen and a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)is:
A) Rickettsia rickettsii.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Klebsiella granulomatis.
D) Coxiella burnetii.
Q2) Binary fission within vacuoles divides which of the following forms of Chlamydia?
A) RB
B) EB
C) Replicate body
D) Initial body
Q3) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligates intracellular parasitism is:
A) Rickettsia.
B) Ehrlichia.
C) Calymmatobacterium.
D) Coxiella.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 45
Chapter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43137
Sample Questions
Q1) The laboratory method of choice to identify Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma infections is:
A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B) direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C) latex agglutination.
D) real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Q2) The definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Mycoplasma hominis
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D) Mycoplasma genitalium
Q3) Media that can be used for the isolation of Mycoplasma include:
A) Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.
B) 5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.
C) beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.
D) hemin and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) supplements.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 46
Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43138
Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic symptoms, such as fever, weight loss, malaise, and a loss of appetite, along with a widespread rash, can be observed in patients suffering from _________ syphilis.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) latent
Q2) The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is associated with the clearance of organism from the bloodstream and the release of cytokines within hours of antibiotic treatment.With which spirochete is this condition associated?
A) Treponema
B) Borrelia
C) Leptospira
D) Brachyspira
Q3) Isoluminol-antigen conjugate
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 47
Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections: Overview
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43139
Sample Questions
Q1) Wuchereria, Brugia, Loa, and Onchocerca are all classified as:
A) intestinal cestodes.
B) tissue nematodes.
C) filarial nematodes.
D) blood trematodes.
Q2) Which of the following is currently the only fixative available that does not contain formalin, polyvinyl alcohol (PVA), or mercury?
A) Merthiolate-iodine-formalin (MIF)
B) Sodium acetate-acetic acid-formalin (SAF)
C) ECOFIX
D) TOTAL-FIX
Q3) The parasite Toxoplasma gondii is acquired via the ingestion of infected oocysts from cat feces.A diagnosis is primarily made through:
A) examination of stool.
B) examination of blood films.
C) observance of "jerky" motility.
D) serologic means.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 48
Chapter 47: Intestinal Protozoa
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43140
Sample Questions
Q1) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)is the most effective prophylaxis and treatment in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)with which type of infection?
A) Cyclospora
B) Sarcocystis
C) Cryptosporidium
D) Toxoplasma
Q2) A tissue sample is sent to the laboratory and microscopically examined for the presence of amebae.To differentiate between the host cells and the organism, _______ stain is used to allow the organisms to appear bright pink with a green-blue background.
A) trichrome
B) Giemsa
C) Wright
D) periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 49
Chapter 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43141
Sample Questions
Q1) Plasmodium vivax is suspected in a patient who has been traveling for months in the tropics.Blood was collected in a lavender top tube; however, the slide was not prepared for examination until the next day because the specimen came in on the night shift.Once the slide was prepared and examined, Schüffner dots were not visible.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) Schüffner dots are not characteristic of P. vivax infections.
B) The blood film was most likely incorrectly prepared.
C) The blood should have been collected in a red top tube.
D) The blood remained in the tube too long, yielding false-negative results.
Q2) Resistance to chloroquine and mefloquine has been identified in which Plasmodium spp.?
A) P. ovale
B) P. vivax
C) P. falciparum
D) P. malariae
Q3) Trypanosoma cruzi
A)Anopheles mosquito
B)Tsetse fly
C)Sandfly
D)Reduviid bug
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 50
Chapter 49: Other Protozoa
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43142
Sample Questions
Q1) A 15-year-old male was diving in a lake when he inhaled some of the stagnate water.Five days later he was admitted to the hospital, comatose and in critical condition.A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)specimen was taken, and several motile amoebae were observed.The patient would most likely be diagnosed with which of the following conditions?
A) Granulomatous amebic encephalitis
B) Primary amebic meningoencephalitis
C) Secondary amebic encephalitis
D) Chronic granulomatous meningitis
Q2) Bradyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q3) Primates, as well as dogs, sheep, and horses, have died of central nervous system (CNS)infections with which organism?
A) Naegleria fowleri
B) Acanthamoeba spp.
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Balamuthia mandrillaris
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 51
Chapter 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43143
Sample Questions
Q1) The larvae of the worm Strongyloides stercoralis are the most common found in human stool specimens.Depending on the fecal transit time through the intestine and the patient's condition, both rhabditiform and rare filariform may be present.The treatment of choice for uncomplicated infections is:
A) metronidazole.
B) ivermectin.
C) pyrantel pamoate.
D) combination antihelminthic and board-spectrum antibiotics.
Q2) Löffler syndrome is associated with which roundworm infection?
A) Strongyloides stercoralis
B) Ancylostoma duodenale
C) Trichostrongylus spp.
D) Ascaris lumbricoides
Q3) The most common and largest roundworm encountered is:
A) Trichuris trichiura.
B) Strongyloides stercoralis.
C) Ascaris lumbricoides.
D) Necator americanus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
52
Chapter 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43144
Sample Questions
Q1) Copepods
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q2) Swine
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q3) Humans acquire infection with Trichinella tissue nematode by ingesting undercooked meat that contains the infective encysted larvae.In which tissue do these larvae encyst?
A) Brain
B) Meninges
C) Myocardium
D) Striated muscle
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43145
Sample Questions
Q1) Wuchereria bancrofti
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
E)Biting midges.
Q2) A 36-year-old man who has been traveling through the orient is experiencing a tender region in the inguinal region.A blood film is made, and sheathed microfilariae with four to five subterminal nuclei and two terminal nuclei in the tail are identified using Giemsa stain.The organism is most likely:
A) Wuchereria bancrofti.
B) Onchocerca volvulus.
C) Loa loa.
D) Brugia malayi.
Q3) The definitive host and reservoir for Wuchereria bancrofti is:
A) mosquito.
B) microfilaria.
C) humans.
D) tabanid fly.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 54
Chapter 53: Intestinal Cestodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43146
Sample Questions
Q1) The double-pored tapeworm, Diphyllobothrium caninum, consisting of many small proglottids, measures 10 to 70 cm in length as an adult.The scolex contains four suckers and an armed rostellum.The intermediate host in which infective cysticercoids develop is the:
A) dog.
B) cat.
C) flea.
D) human.
Q2) The mode of infection for which of the following organisms is the ingestion of cysticercoid in an infected arthropod or by the direct ingestion of the egg? Autoinfection may also occur.
A) Diphyllobothrium latum
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Taenia saginata
D) Taenia solium
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 54: Tissue Cestodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43147
Sample Questions
Q1) In Echinococcus granulosus infections, the hydatid cysts usually occur in which organ?
A) Stomach
B) Brain
C) Intestines
D) Liver
Q2) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A) Taenia solium
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Spirometra mansonoides
D) Echinococcus multilocularis
Q3) Epileptic seizures, headaches, and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:
A) positive direct fluorescent antibody test.
B) observance of eggs in the stool.
C) positive India ink stain.
D) identification of cysts in tissue.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 56
Chapter 55: Intestinal Trematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43148
Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old man who has traveled for several weeks in the orient is experiencing abdominal pain and diarrhea with a large amount of mucus.A Heterophyes heterophyes egg measuring 28 by 15 microns is identified in the stool.The treatment of choice for this intestinal trematode is:
A) metronidazole.
B) chloroquine.
C) albendazole.
D) praziquantel.
Q2) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces is best described as:
A) cercariae, miracidium larva, metacercariae, and redia.
B) redia, metacercariae, cercariae, and miracidium larva.
C) miracidium larva, redia, cercariae, and metacercariae.
D) metacercariae, miracidium larva, cercariae, and redia.
Q3) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater:
A) fish.
B) snails.
C) crabs.
D) crayfish.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 57
Chapter 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43149
Sample Questions
Q1) The adult worm of Fasciola measures 2 to 5 cm by 0.8 to 1.3 cm with a cephalic cone at the anterior end that contains the oral sucker.The drug of choice to treat Fasciola infections is:
A) praziquantel.
B) bithionol.
C) albendazole.
D) benzimidazole.
Q2) Sheep liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
Q3) Chinese liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 57: Blood Trematodes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43150
Sample Questions
Q1) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A) S. mansoni
B) S. japonicum
C) S. haematobium
D) S. mekongi
Q2) The only intermediate host required in the life cycle of blood flukes is a:
A) copepod.
B) crustacean.
C) freshwater snail.
D) freshwater fish.
Q3) Rodents, marsupials, and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A) S. japonicum
B) S. haematobium
C) S. mansoni
D) S. intercalatum
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 59
Chapter 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43151
Sample Questions
Q1) If a fungal colony is described as rugose, then it means that the colony:
A) is furrowed or convoluted.
B) is slightly raised in the center.
C) furrows radiate out from the center.
D) has a smooth surface with no aerial mycelium.
Q2) Blood cultures are collected from a 36-year-old patient suspected of having a disseminated fungal infection.History reveals that she was exposed to bird droppings and may have inhaled the conidia.What is the best blood culture system to use to ensure optimal recovery of this pathogen?
A) BACTEC
B) BacT/ALERT
C) ESP system
D) Isolator system
Q3) Which stain requires the use of a fluorescent microscope?
A) Calcofluor white
B) India ink
C) Potassium hydroxide
D) Masson-Fontana
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 60
Chapter 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes,
Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43152
Sample Questions
Q1) Trichophyton schoenleinii causes a condition that is characterized by the formation of yellowish cup-shaped crusts or scutulae, considerable scarring of the scalp, and sometimes permanent alopecia.This organism is usually recovered in _____ days.
A) 5 to 7
B) 14
C) 21
D) 30
Q2) A hair perforation test is performed using Trichophyton mentagrophytes and T.rubrum.The expected results are:
A) positive for both organisms.
B) positive for T. rubrum and negative for T. mentagrophytes.
C) positive for T. mentagrophytes and negative for T. rubrum.
D) negative for both organisms.
Q3) The term used to describe ringworm of the nail is:
A) Tinea cruris.
B) Tinea pedis.
C) Tinea capitis.
D) Tinea unguium.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 61
Chapter 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43153
Sample Questions
Q1) Conidial heads with a sympodial arrangement of conidia exhibit primary conidia giving rise to secondary conidia.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladosporium
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q2) This fundus exhibits cup- or flask-shaped collarette.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladosporium
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
62
Chapter 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis
Jiroveci
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43154
Sample Questions
Q1) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A) Bradyzoite
B) Trophozoite
C) Sporocyte
D) Cyst
Q2) In patients who do not have HIV, which underlying condition is considered a risk factor for acquiring PCP?
A) Malaria
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Myasthenia gravis
Q3) The cell membrane of Pneumocystis jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______, which differentiates it from other fungi.
A) sterols; cholesterol
B) ergosterol; sterols
C) cholesterol; ergosterol
D) sitosterol; sterols
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 63
Chapter 62: The Yeasts
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43155
Sample Questions
Q1) Blood cultures are drawn on a patient suspected of having a fungemia.Positive cultures reveal the presence of chlamydoconidia on cornmeal agar.In addition, the yeast is germ-tube positive.The most likely identification of the fungal agent is:
A) C. glabrata.
B) C. tropicalis.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans.
D) C. albicans.
Q2) The most commonly isolated yeast in clinical specimens is:
A) Candida albicans.
B) C. tropicalis.
C) C. dubliniensis.
D) C. krusei.
Q3) Agar medium overlaid with olive oil will enhance the growth of which organism?
A) Malassezia
B) Candida
C) Trichosporon
D) Cryptococcus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
64
Chapter 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43156
Sample Questions
Q1) The agency that provides documents and sets standards for antifungal susceptibility testing is the:
A) National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Library Sciences (NAACLS).
B) Association of Specialized and Cooperative Library Agencies (ASCLS).
C) College of American Pathologists (CAP).
D) Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI).
Q2) Alters membrane permeability
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q3) Binds microtubular proteins
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 65
Chapter 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43157
Sample Questions
Q1) To detect immunoglobulin M (IgM)antibodies in an acute phase, blood should be collected in _____ days after the onset of infection.
A) 2 to 5
B) 5 to 7
C) 7 to 14
D) longer than 21
Q2) Primary cell line
A)HEp-2 culture cells
B)Monkey kidney cells
C)Fibroblast cells
Q3) Vesicular
A)Adenovirus
B)HSV
C)HBV
D)Arbovirus
Q4) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
A)Adenovirus
B)HSV
C)HBV
D)Arbovirus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 66
Chapter 65: Viruses in Human Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43158
Sample Questions
Q1) Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are surface glycoproteins associated with what family of viruses?
A) Parvovividae
B) Orthomyxoviridae
C) Picornaviridae
D) Caliciviridae
Q2) Genital
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1
B)HSV type 2
C)Zoster
D)Varicella
E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F)CMV
G)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8
Q3) Black vomit
A)Yellow fever
B)Dengue fever
C)West Nile virus
D)Hepatitis C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 67
Chapter 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43159
Sample Questions
Q1) Lamivudine
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
Q2) Detects resistance genes.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q3) Saquinavir
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 68
Chapter 67: Bloodstream Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43160
Sample Questions
Q1) The possibility of an abscess should be considered if this bacterial group is isolated in the blood:
A) Clostridium septicum.
B) Bacteroides fragilis.
C) Streptococcus anginosus.
D) Aeromonas hydrophila.
Q2) A 36-year-old emergency medical technician (EMT)is exposed to a patient with brucellosis.Blood cultures are drawn from the EMT and reported as negative after 1 week.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The blood culture system is most likely not correctly functioning.
B) Brucella does not grow in the blood.
C) The blood culture bottles are most likely expired.
D) The blood should have been incubated for a minimum of 3 weeks.
Q3) If tachyzoites are found circulating in blood, then the infection would be classified as a:
A) parasitemia.
B) bacteremia.
C) viremia.
D) fungemia.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 69
Chapter 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43161
Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial pneumonia in children is most commonly caused by:
A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B) Chlamydia pneumonia.
C) parainfluenza virus.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
Q2) One of the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in school-age children (5 to 14 years of age)is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae type B.
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C) Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Q3) One of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age is:
A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D) respiratory syncytial virus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43162
Sample Questions
Q1) Epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening disease because the patient's airway can become completely obstructed (blocked)if not treated.Which bacterium usually causes this disease?
A) Haemophilus influenzae type B
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Type A influenza virus
Q2) Infection of the buccal (cheek)mucosa, tongue, or oropharynx by Candida spp.is: A) pharyngitis.
B) Vincent angina.
C) rhinitis.
D) thrush.
Q3) An inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane or lining caused mostly by viruses and characterized by fever, increased mucous secretions, inflammatory edema of the nasal mucosa, sneezing, and watery eyes is:
A) epiglottitis.
B) pharyngitis.
C) Vincent angina.
D) rhinitis.
Page 71
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 70: Meningitis, Encephalitis, and Other Infections of
the Central Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43163
Sample Questions
Q1) The large, fluid-filled spaces within the brain are called the: A) choroid plexus.
B) ventricles.
C) meninges.
D) pia mater.
Q2) The middle layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the: A) dura mater.
B) meninges.
C) arachnoid.
D) pia mater.
Q3) A condition characterized by concomitant meningitis that occurs with encephalitis is called:
A) meningoencephalitis.
B) aseptic meningitis.
C) encephalitis.
D) pleocytosis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43164
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include:
A) Klebsiella pneumococci.
B) Haemophilus influenzae.
C) Streptococcus agalactiae.
D) Moraxella catarrhalis.
Q2) Conjunctivitis in children
A)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C)Staphylococcus aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Q3) Dacryoadenitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 73
Chapter 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43165
Sample Questions
Q1) Acute urethral syndrome
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency, but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis
Q2) The most common etiologic agent in uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infection is:
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Klebsiella spp.
C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 73: Genital Tract Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43166
Sample Questions
Q1) Orchitis
A)Inflammation of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching
B)Polymicrobial type of vaginitis characterized by mild perivaginal irritation and a foul-smelling discharge
C)Infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy
D)Mild-to-severe inflammation of the testicles that is generally acquired by bloodborne dissemination of viruses such as the mumps virus
Q2) The type of vaginitis referred to as bacterial vaginosis is thought to be caused by:
A) Gardnerella vaginalis.
B) Streptococcus agalactiae.
C) Lactobacillus spp.
D) Enterococcus spp.
Q3) An infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy is called:
A) PID.
B) bartholinitis.
C) cervicitis.
D) chorioamnionitis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43167
Sample Questions
Q1) The transport medium that best preserves the viability of most intestinal bacterial pathogens is:
A) buffered glycerol.
B) rectal culture swab.
C) Cary-Blair.
D) Campylobacter thioglycollate broth.
Q2) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) Stool received for routine culture in most clinical laboratories in the United States should be examined for the presence of at least:
A) Campylobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella spp.
B) Salmonella and Shigella spp.
C) Campylobacter and Vibrio spp.
D) Salmonella, Shigella, and Vibrio spp.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 76
Chapter 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43168
Sample Questions
Q1) Necrotizing fasciitis
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
Q2) Meleney ulcer
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43169
Sample Questions
Q1) The proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is:
A) grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B) placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C) centrifugation with glass beads.
D) filtration under pressure.
Q2) Pericardial fluid may be inoculated in blood culture broth and processed as a blood culture, provided the broth contains which anticoagulant?
A) Heparin
B) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
C) Citrate
D) Coumadin
Q3) A 68-year-old man has an osteomyelitis infection as a result of bacteremia.The most common etiologic agent found in this infection is:
A) Haemophilus spp.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D) Fusobacterium necrophorum.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 78
Chapter 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43170
Sample Questions
Q1) If a clinical laboratory receives a "blind unknown" for proficiency testing (PT), it is most likely sent by which private accrediting agency?
A) CLSI
B) National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS)
C) College of American Pathologists (CAP)
D) American Society of Consultant Pharmacists (ASCP)
Q2) Eliminating redundant motion, recognizing waste, and identifying what creates value from the patient's perspective is considered which type of process?
A) Lean methodology
B) Total Quality Management
C) Continuous Quality Improvement
D) Performance Improvement
Q3) Clinicians should always be notified of "panic values," that is, potentially life-threatening results.An example of a panic value is a(n):
A) elevated thyroid level.
B) positive urine culture.
C) positive blood culture.
D) elevated sodium level.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 78: Infection Control
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43171
Sample Questions
Q1) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of the organism of interest is:
A) biotyping.
B) antibiograms.
C) serotyping.
D) bacteriophage typing.
Q2) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when he or she entered the hospital is referred to as a(n)_____ infection.
A) autonomous
B) nosocomial
C) opportunistic
D) septic
Q3) A phenotypic technique that examines an organism's susceptibility to bacterial peptides (proteins)is:
A) biotyping.
B) antibiograms.
C) serotyping.
D) bacteriocin typing.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43172
Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):
A) covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B) covert event is announced, and an overt event is not announced.
C) overt event is announced, and a covert event is not announced.
D) overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q2) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:
A) horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B) microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.
C) microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.
D) living beings to wage war in peacetime.
Q3) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A) biosecurity.
B) biocrime.
C) microterrorism.
D) cactiterrorism.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.