Medical Laboratory Science
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary field focused on the analysis of biological specimens to assist in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of disease. This course introduces students to essential laboratory techniques, instrumentation, and safety protocols, covering areas such as clinical chemistry, microbiology, hematology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Emphasis is placed on the interpretation of laboratory results, quality assurance, and the ethical responsibilities of laboratory professionals. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical experience, students develop the critical thinking and technical skills required to support patient care in diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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36 Chapters
1596 Verified Questions
1596 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells: Hematopoiesis
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cell in the granulocytic series is present in greatest percentages in the normal bone marrow?
A) Band neutrophil
B) Promyelocyte
C) Metamyelocyte
D) Myelocyte
E) None of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Ultimately, megakaryocytes lead to the formation of non-nucleated, cytoplasmic fragments called:
A) Granulocytes
B) Thrombocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Monocytes
E) None of the above
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hematogones are thought to be committed progenitor cells of what lineage?
A) Granulocytic
B) Platelets
C) Erythrocytic
D) Monocytic
E) Lymphoid
Answer: E
Q2) At what age do fat cells begin to increase in the bone marrow?
A) 10 years
B) 6 months
C) 4 years
D) 2 years
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aggregates that form in the RBC as a result of oxidation, denaturation, and precipitation of globin are called __________.
A) Siderotic granules
B) Pappenheimer bodies
C) Howell-Jolly bodies
D) Heinz bodies
E) None of the above
Answer: D
Q2) What is the normal level of plasma hemopexin?
A) 50-200 mg/dL
B) 5 g/L
C) 2-5 mg/dL
D) 50-100 mg/dL
E) None of the above
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method for hemoglobin determination results in the formation of hemoglobin cyanide?
A) Carboxyhemoglobin
B) Oxyhemoglobin
C) Sulfhemoglobin
D) Cyanmethemoglobin
E) None of the above
Q2) What cellular remnants in a reticulocyte are visible when stained with new methylene blue?
A) DNA
B) Hemosiderin
C) RNA
D) Denatured hemoglobin
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) used for?
A) Estimating the average size of RBCs
B) Estimating the hemoglobin content
C) Estimating the packed cell volume
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the diameter of a macrocyte?
A) 4-6 µm
B) 6-8 µm
C) 9-12 µm
D) 3-5 µm
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the average diameter of a mature erythrocyte?
A) 8-10 µm
B) 3-5 µm
C) 7-8 µm
D) 4-6 µm
E) None of the above
Q3) The grading of "slight" anisocytosis and poikilocytosis would indicate what percentage of RBCs would differ from normal red cells?
A) 5-10%
B) 25-50%
C) 50-75%
D) >75%
E) 10-25%
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characterize(s) the microcytic hypochromic sideroblastic anemia?
A) Increased ringed sideroblasts
B) Increased serum ferritin
C) Dimorphic blood picture
D) Basophilic stippling
E) All of the above
Q2) The storage form of iron is called __________.
A) Ferrous iron
B) Hemopexin
C) Transferrin
D) Ferritin
E) None of the above
Q3) Iron-deficiency anemia is characterized by:
A) Macrocytic, hyperchromic RBCs
B) Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs
C) Increased bone marrow storage iron
D) Increased bone marrow ringed sideroblasts
E) None of the above
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Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) What protein is responsible for vitamin B<sub>12</sub> transport to the bone marrow?
A) Transcobalamin II
B) Intrinsic factor
C) Interleukin-3
D) Thymidine triphosphate
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following can lead to a folic acid deficiency?
A) Malabsorption
B) Poor diet
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the morphological classification of megaloblastic anemia?
A) Microcytic hypochromic
B) Macrocytic hypochromic
C) Macrocytic normochromic
D) Microcytic normochromic
E) Normocytic normochromic
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Chapter 8: Aplastic Anemia Including Pure Red Cell Aplasia
and Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immunophenotype is associated with a diagnosis of PNH?
A) CD10, 12, 14 positive
B) CD1, 2, 3, 5 positive
C) CD14, CD16, CD24, CD48 positive
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) What membrane deficiency renders PNH erythrocytes more sensitive to lysis by complement?
A) C3 convertase enzymes
B) GPI-anchor proteins
C) Acetylcholinesterase
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which drug(s) is/are the primary cause(s) of aplastic anemia?
A) Chloramphenicol
B) Phenylbutazone
C) Penicillin
D) A and B
E) B and C
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common treatment for most patients with HS?
A) Exchange transfusion
B) Chemotherapy
C) Splenectomy
D) No treatment
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following laboratory results are characteristic of HS?
A) Increased MCHC
B) Abnormal osmotic fragility test
C) Abnormal autohemolysis test
D) Normal MCV (mean corpuscular volume) and MCH (mean corpuscular hemoglobin)
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following represent the major clinical and morphologic syndromes of HE?
A) Common HE (minimal or no hemolysis)
B) Spherocytic HE (hybrid of mild HE and HS)
C) Stomatocytic HE (common only in Melanesians)
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which red cell inclusion is characteristic of G6PD deficiency?
A) Cabot ring
B) Howell-Jolly body
C) Heinz body
D) Pappenheimer bodies
E) Siderotic granule
Q2) Occasionally transfusions may be required in which type of G6PD deficiency?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Both
D) Neither
Q3) Favism is a clinical feature that occasionally occurs in which G6PD deficiency?
A) Gd A-
B) Gd Med
C) Both
D) Neither
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following laboratory findings may be characteristic of sickle cell anemia?
A) An average reticulocyte count between 5% and 20%
B) Neutrophilic leukocytosis with a shift to the left
C) Thrombocytosis
D) Marked erythroid hyperplasia
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following represents the only significant finding on the peripheral smear in hemoglobin C trait?
A) Targeting
B) Hemoglobin C crystals
C) Nucleated red cells
D) 4+ anisocytosis and poikilocytosis
E) All of the above
Q3) Hemoglobin C disease is found almost exclusively in which population?
A) Caucasian
B) Black
C) Asian
D) Oriental
E) All of the above
13
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: Iv
Thalassemia
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following comprise the clinical categories of alpha thalassemia except:
A) Bart's hydrops fetalis syndrome
B) Hemoglobin H disease
C) Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin
D) Alpha thalassemia 1
E) Alpha thalassemia 2
Q2) Homozygosity for the \(\beta\)<sup>0</sup> or \(\beta\)<sup>+</sup> thalassemia gene results in:
A) Hemoglobin H disease
B) Alpha thalassemia
C) Thalassemia major
D) Thalassemia minor
E) None of the above
Q3) The anemia of thalassemia is morphologically characterized as __________ anemia.
A) Macrocytic/hyperchromic
B) Microcytic/hypochromic
C) Normocytic/normochromic
D) Microcytic/normochromic
E) None of the above
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A unit of blood transfused to a WAIHA patient should be:
A) Least incompatible in the crossmatch
B) Negative for antigens for clinically significant antibodies present in the patient
C) Transfused slowly
D) Transfused in small volumes
E) All of the above
Q2) The mechanism of direct lysis resulting from the release of lytic enzymes from effector cells that act on the red cell membrane is referred to as:
A) Antigen-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
B) Antibody-independent cellular cytotoxicity
C) Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
D) Antigen-independent cellular cytotoxicity
E) None of the above
Q3) The alternate pathway may be triggered by:
A) Microorganisms
B) Polysaccharides
C) Lipopolysaccharides
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anemia of inflammation can be differentiated from iron-deficiency anemia by which of the following?
A) Serum iron level
B) Bone marrow iron stores
C) FEP
D) % sideroblasts
E) Hematocrit
Q2) In the anemia of inflammation it is suggested that one of the reasons for a decreased transferrin saturation may be:
A) Inadequate diet
B) Iron is blocked in the fixed macrophages in the bone marrow
C) Accumulation of porphyrin precursors in the liver
D) Dietary iron is not adsorbed from GI tract
E) Transferrin deficiency
Q3) One of the most common forms of liver disease is due to chronic __________.
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Malnutrition
C) Alcoholism
D) Malignancy
E) Drug abuse
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be suspected when the left shift is seen in the presence of low leukocyte counts with 70% neutrophils?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Leukemia
C) Septicemia
D) Pelger-Huët anomaly
E) Multiple myeloma
Q2) What is the most common morphological change seen in neutrophils in response to bacterial infection?
A) Auer rods
B) Cytoplasmic vacuolization
C) Dohle bodies
D) Toxic granulation
E) Agranulation
Q3) Most qualitative white blood cell disorders are characterized by:
A) Bacterial infections due to decreased numbers of neutrophils
B) Bacterial infections due to increased numbers of neutrophils
C) Bacterial infections due to neutrophil dysfunction
D) Bacterial infections due to lymphocyte dysfunction
Page 17
E) Lymphocyte infections due to lymphocyte dysfunction
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 14-year-old male presents with a mediastinal mass, a WBC of 110 \(\times\)10<sup>9</sup>/L, hepatosplenomegaly, and early central nervous system involvement. Both L1 and L2 morphology are seen, and surface markers CD7, CD2, and CD5 are expressed. Which type of ALL is present?
A) Precursor B-cell
B) T-cell
C) B-cell
D) Null cell
E) None of the above
Q2) On Romanowsky-stained smears, Auer rods appear as:
A) Brown staining rods
B) Orange staining rods
C) Pink or purple staining rods
D) Blue staining rods
E) None of the above
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is characteristic of the bone marrow morphology in CML?
A) Myeloid hyperplasia
B) Normal M/E ratio
C) Myeloid hypoplasia
D) Hypocellularity
E) Erythroid hyperplasia
Q2) Most patients (85%) are diagnosed in which phase of CML?
A) Chronic
B) Accelerated
C) Blast
D) Remission
E) Refractory
Q3) Patients with CML in blast crisis most commonly die of:
A) Therapy related to marrow aplasia
B) Exsanguination
C) Infection
D) Aplasia with myelofibrosis
E) All of the above
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Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dehydration is an example of __________ erythrocytosis.
A) Absolute
B) Relative
C) Secondary
D) Primary
E) None of the above
Q2) The clinical features of polycythemia vera are attributed to the excessive proliferation of which cell line(s)?
A) Erythrocyte
B) Platelet
C) Granulocyte
D) A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) In the fibrotic (f-CIMF) phase of CIMF, which of the following is characteristic?
A) Fibrosis of the marrow
B) Extramedullary hematopoiesis
C) Leukoerythroblastosis of the peripheral blood
D) Splenomegaly
E) All of the above
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Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor(s) differentiate(s) RARS (refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts) from refractory anemia?
A) Erythroid dimorphism
B) > 15% sideroblasts
C) Normal WBC
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following agents may lead to secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (sMDS)?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Alkylating agents
C) Irradiated blood components
D) Folic acid
E) Pyridoxal phosphate
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to affect prognosis in MDS?
A) Leukopenia
B) Increased bone marrow myeloblasts
C) Erythroid hyperplasia
D) Thrombocytosis
E) None of the above
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Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immunologic technique is helpful in detecting very small numbers of malignant cells or amplifying gene rearrangements in malignant clones?
A) Monoclonal antibodies
B) Polyclonal antibodies
C) PCR technology
D) DNA probe
E) None of the above
Q2) The following is true regarding hairy cell leukemia:
A) Pancytopenia is a common finding
B) Lymphocytes appear as hair-like cytoplasmic projections
C) Alkaline phosphatase is not inhibited by tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) reaction
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q3) Immune dysfunction within proliferating B cells of CLL is indicated by:
A) Monoclonal gammopathy
B) Hypogammaglobulinemia
C) Hypergammaglobulinemia
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the morphologic characterization of the malignant cells in lymphomas composed of small cleaved lymphocytes?
A) 6-12 µm in diameter
B) Clefted nucleus
C) Indistinct nucleoli
D) Small amount of cytoplasm
E) All of the above
Q2) In __________, Reed-Sternberg cells and Reed-Sternberg variants predominate; and lymphocytes are sparse.
A) Lymphocyte predominance Hodgkin's lymphoma
B) Lymphocyte depletion Hodgkin's lymphoma
C) Mixed cellularity Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) Nodular sclerosing Hodgkin's lymphoma
E) Lymphocyte-rich classic Hodgkin's lymphoma
Q3) Most patients with Hodgkin's lymphoma present with which symptom?
A) Fever
B) Painless lymph node swelling
C) Fatigue
D) Pallor
E) None of the above
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Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characterized by the excessive production of the heavy chain portion of the antibody subunit?
A) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
B) Heavy chain disease
C) Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)
D) Solitary plasmacytoma
E) Multiple myeloma
Q2) Multiple myeloma can be differentiated from primary plasma cell leukemia by which of the following?
A) Hyperviscosity
B) Platelet dysfunction
C) Presence of plasma cells in circulation
D) Splenomegaly
E) Hypercalcemia
Q3) Immune globulins (antibodies) are proteins produced by __________.
A) B lymphocytes
B) T lymphocytes
C) NK cells
D) Granulocytes
E) None of the above
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Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of __________ may be seen with Niemann-Pick cells in the bone marrow of some adult patients.
A) Sea-blue histiocytes
B) Mast cells
C) Macrophages
D) Osteoclasts
E) None of the above
Q2) Histiocytes produced in sea-blue histiocyte syndrome will stain positive with all the following except:
A) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
B) Toluidine blue
C) Sudan Black B
D) Acid fast
E) None of the above
Q3) Niemann-Pick disease is caused by a deficiency of __________.
A) Sulfaminidase
B) -Glucuronidase
C) -Glucocerebrosidase
D) Sphingomyelinase
E) Hexosaminidase A
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the heparin cofactor?
A) Protein C
B) Antithrombin III
C) Warfarin
D) Coumarin
E) None of the above
Q2) What is meant by the term viscous metamorphosis?
A) An irreversible aggregation of a mass of degenerative platelet material without membrane
B) A reversible aggregation of a mass of degenerative platelet material without membrane
C) Inhibition of the initial aggregation of platelets
D) Inhibition of an irreversible aggregation of mass of degenerative material with membrane
E) None of the above
Q3) Hageman factor corresponds to __________.
A) Factor Xb, factor I
B) Factor II
C) Factor XII
D) None of the above
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Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative and
Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A qualitative disorder of platelet secretion is __________.
A) Storage pool deficiency
B) Aspirin-like defects
C) May-Hegglin anomaly
D) A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) All of the following factors are decreased in vWD except:
A) VIII
B) vWF:Ag
C) IX
D) Ristocetin cofactor
E) von Willebrand factor (vWF)
Q3) Treatment of patients with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia who present with severe bleeding episodes is __________.
A) Blood transfusions
B) Platelet transfusions
C) Gamma globulin
D) Bone marrow transplants
E) None of the above
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Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true regarding circulating anticoagulants except:
A) They are usually immunoglobulins.
B) They are exogenously produced substances.
C) They are inhibitors of the coagulation system.
D) They are endogenously produced substances.
E) None of the above
Q2) All of the following are laboratory findings consistent with hemophilia A except:
A) Prolonged APTT
B) Prolonged bleeding time
C) Normal PT
D) Normal vWF:Ag
E) Normal platelet count
Q3) The persistence of activated factor V in the circulation is caused by:
A) Antithrombin III
B) Antiphospholipid antibodies
C) Activated protein C resistance
D) Dysfibrinogenemia
E) Protein C
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Chapter 27:
Interaction of the Fibrinolytic,
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following procedures or disease states is/are associated with mechanisms of primary fibrinolysis?
A) Urologic procedures
B) Metastatic prostatic carcinoma
C) Cirrhosis
D) Cardiopulmonary bypass surgery
E) All of the above
Q2) At concentration greater than 100 µg/mL, the FDPs are capable of:
A) Inhibiting platelet aggregation and release
B) Enhancing platelet aggregation and release
C) Enhancing platelet adhesiveness and release
D) Inhibiting platelet adhesiveness and release
E) None of the above
Q3) The molecular components of the fibrinolytic system consist of all of the following except:
A) Plasminogen
B) Plasmin
C) Thrombin
D) <sub>2</sub>-anti-Plasmin inhibitor
E) Fibrin/fibrinogen
Page 29
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Warfarin is used clinically for the prevention of all except:
A) Deep venous thrombosis
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Bleeding after tooth extraction
D) Acute myocardial infarction
E) Arterial emboli originating from the heart and causing stroke
Q2) How is a deficiency of protein S different from other vitamin K-dependent plasma protein deficiencies?
A) Deficiency may involve abnormality of the protein S antigen.
B) The quantitative distribution of protein S between free and bound forms may contribute to functional deficiency.
C) Deficiency may involve abnormally low levels of protein S.
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Protein S is a vitamin K-dependent protein that is produced in the __________.
A) Liver
B) Megakaryocytes
C) Endothelial cells
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Page 31
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Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be considered a matrix?
A) Urine
B) Whole blood
C) Synovial fluid
D) All of the above
Q2) Which quality approach is used after a problem occurs to investigate the cause of the problem?
A) Root cause analysis
B) FMEA
C) Benchmarking
D) Lean
Q3) Which Westgard rule refers to one data point exceeding the ±2 SD limit?
A) 1<sub>2s</sub>
B) 1<sub>3s</sub>
C) 2<sub>2s</sub>
D) 4<sub>1s</sub>
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Quantitative, and Morphologic Analysis of Serous, Cerebrospinal, and
Synovial Fluids
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Q1) Which type of crystal suggests that a significant hemarthrosis has occurred?
A) Hematoidin
B) Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
C) Calcium oxalate
D) Basic calcium phosphate
E) Cholesterol
Q2) The removal of synovial fluid is known as ______________.
A) Arthrocentesis
B) Thoracentesis
C) Paracentesis
D) Lumbar puncture
Q3) RA cells are ________________________.
A) Eosinophils containing immune complexes such as IgG and IgM
B) Eosinophils containing immune complexes such as IgG and IgA
C) Neutrophils containing immune complexes such as IgG and IgM
D) Neutrophils containing immune complexes such as IgG and IgA
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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Q1) The normal platelet count range is ________.
A) 50-100 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 200-450 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 300-500 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 130-400 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
E) None of the above
Q2) Calculate the MCV based on the following: hematocrit = 45%, RBC = 4.7 \(\times\) 10<sup>6</sup>/\(\mu\)L, hemoglobin = 15 g/dL.
A) 75 fL
B) 96 fL
C) 87 fL
D) 100 fL
E) 120 fL
Q3) What is the anticoagulant of choice for manual cell counts?
A) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
B) Sodium citrate
C) Sodium heparin
D) Sodium oxalate
E) None of the above
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Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Q1) In the Technicon H1, leukocyte analysis involves staining with peroxidase in a heated chamber with lysis of platelets and __________.
A) RBCs
B) WBCs
C) Mononuclear cells
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The MPV is equivalent to the MCV and is __________ proportional to the platelet count in the Coulter S Plus IV platelet histogram.
A) Directly
B) Indirectly
C) Inversely
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Q1) What is the dilution buffer used in the determination of fibrinogen activity?
A) Electrolyte buffer
B) Tris buffer
C) Owren's Veronal buffer
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The __________ is the time required for thrombin to convert fibrinogen to an insoluble fibrin clot.
A) PT
B) APTT
C) TT
D) Reptilase time
E) None of the above
Q3) Clot-based procedures in coagulation are mostly performed at what temperature?
A) 22°C ± 5°
B) 4°C ± 1°
C) 37°C ± 1°
D) 56°C ± 1°
E) None of the above
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Q1) Which of the following is an abnormal result for lymphocyte subset percentage in adult donors?
A) CD3 (70%)
B) CD4 (42%)
C) CD8 (20%)
D) CD19 (60%)
Q2) While evaluating data from an analysis, the analyst suspects spectral bleed-over has occurred. What can be done so that each detector only measures the signal for the appropriate fluorescent dye?
A) Increase the voltage to each detector
B) Properly set the fluorescence compensation control
C) Decrease the threshold setting
D) Remove the optical filters
Q3) Flow cytometry is a technology that provides rapid measurement of:
A) Physical characteristics of cells
B) Cellular stain affinities
C) Suspension fluidics
D) Sample laminar flow rate
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Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Q1) Which of the following is/are clinical applications of PCR?
A) Detect foreign nucleic acid characteristic of infectious diseases
B) Detect DNA that has a particular cancer-associated defect
C) Detect minimal residual disease
D) Detect clonal immunoglobulin or T-cell receptor gene rearrangement
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following diagnostic procedures for analyzing DNA is the most accurate method for detecting gene rearrangements in lymphoid leukemias and lymphomas?
A) Southern blot analysis
B) Northern blot analysis
C) Western blot analysis
D) Eastern blot analysis
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is/are probe label(s)?
A) Radioisotopes
B) Biotin
C) Digoxigenin
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Q1) Only segmented neutrophils and __________ are scored in LAP staining.
A) Monocytes
B) Band neutrophils
C) Eosinophils
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The purpose of the positive nonspecific esterase reaction which can be inhibited by the addition of sodium fluoride is to aid in differentiation of French-American-British (FAB) subclasses__________ and _____________.
A) M1, M2
B) M1, M3
C) M1, M6
D) M4, M5
E) L1, L3
Q3) The peroxidase reaction is positive for __________ cells.
A) Plasma
B) Lymphoid
C) Myeloid
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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