Medical Laboratory Science Study
Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Laboratory Science is a multidisciplinary field that centers on the analysis of biological samples to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases. The course covers foundational concepts in clinical chemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics, providing students with the theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory skills necessary to perform complex diagnostic tests. Emphasizing quality control, laboratory safety, and ethical standards, this course equips students to operate and interpret modern instrumentation and laboratory information systems in clinical and research settings. Through hands-on training and case studies, students learn to correlate laboratory findings with patient health and collaborate effectively with other healthcare professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Human Diseases 8th Edition by Mark Zelman
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17 Chapters
1439 Verified Questions
1439 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Disease
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of _____ treatment is to provide comfort and relieve pain.
A)curative
B)modifiable
C)palliative
D)preventable
Answer: C
Q2) _____ describes how the cause of a disease leads to anatomical and physiological changes in the body that ultimately result in the disease.
A)Etiology
B)Idiopathic
C)Pathogenesis
D)Sequela
Answer: C
Q3) A relapse describes the return of a disease weeks or months after its apparent cure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Infectious diseases are caused by _____, like bacteria and viruses. Answer: pathogens
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Chapter 2: Immunity and the Lymphatic System
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A helper _____ cell is also called a CD4 cell.
Answer: T
Q2) Because of reduced antibody production, vaccines are less likely to produce immunity in older people.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) An _____, or hypersensitivity, is an extreme immune response to a harmless antigen.
Answer: allergy
Q4) _____ can cause dehydration, nausea, disorientation, hallucinations, seizures, and convulsions.
A)Hypersensitivity
B)Hyposensitivity
C)Very high fevers
D)Very low fevers
Answer: C
Q5) As humans age, the _____ atrophies, causing a sharp decrease in the number and type of T cells produced.
Answer: thymus
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Chapter 3: Infectious Diseases
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pneumocystis jirovecii causes an opportunistic form of pneumonia, one of the diagnostic indicator diseases for _____
A)AIDS
B)HBV
C)IgG
D)SLE
Answer: A
Q2) Some viruses sustain a _____ infection, whereby they insert themselves into cells and later a trigger activates the virus.
Answer: latent
Q3) _____ is a highly contagious disease caused by the rubeola virus.
A)Measles
B)Mumps
C)Rubella
D)Tetanus
Answer: A
Q4) Bacteria that have rod-shaped cells are called _____. Answer: bacilli
Q5) The _____ tract is the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens. Answer: respiratory
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Chapter 4: Cancer
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malignant tumors _____.
A)are encapsulated, making excision easier
B)are encapsulated, making excision more difficult
C)are not encapsulated, making excision easier
D)are not encapsulated, making excision more difficult
Q2) _____ of all people with cancer receive radiation therapy as part of their cancer treatment.
A)About 25%
B)About 50%
C)About 75%
D)100%
Q3) Tumor markers are produced by _____.
A)both normal cells and tumor cells
B)neither normal cells or tumor cells
C)normal cells only
D)tumor cells only
Q4) Magnetic _____ imaging is a type of scanning that uses magnetic fields, not x-rays, to induce tissues to emit radio waves.
Q5) The result of uncontrolled cell division is an abnormal growth of cells or a tumor, known as a _____.
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Chapter 5: Heredity and Disease
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Albinism is an _____ disorder.
A)autosomal dominant
B)autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
Q2) If alleles are different, then a person is _____ for the trait that allele expresses.
A)diploid
B)haploid
C)heterozygous
D)homozygous
Q3) Congenital defects usually occur during the first two months of pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pseudohermaphrodites have either testes or ovaries, but the remainder of the anatomy is mixed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Two of the chromosomes, the X and Y chromosomes, are called _____ chromosomes.
Q6) Abnormalities of sex-linked inheritance tend to occur more frequently in _____.
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Chapter 6: Diseases of the Cardiovascular System
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a loss of blood and oxygen supply.
Q2) _____, or lightheadedness, is a symptom of cardiac rhythm disorders.
Q3) Symptoms of CHD include chest pain, or _____ pectoris.
Q4) _____ cardiomyopathy is the most common form of all cardiomyopathies.
A)Aneurysmic
B)Dilated
C)Hypertrophic
D)Restrictive
Q5) The pericardium is a _____.
A)double-layered membrane that encloses the heart
B)four-chambered structure that lies inside the heart
C)single layer of membrane that lines the inside of the heart
D)triple-layered membrane that encloses the heart
Q6) An _____ is an electrical recording of heart action and aids in the diagnosis of heart diseases.
Q7) The mitral valve lies between the right atrium and left atrium.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
Q8) Endocarditis _____ consists of the infectious organisms and cellular debris enmeshed in a fibrous clot.
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Chapter 7: Diseases of the Blood
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vegetarians who eat no animal products may develop _____.
A)pernicious anemia
B)polycythemia vera
C)sickle cell anemia
D)thalassemia
Q2) Hemophilia A is an X-linked _____.
A)dominant disorder that primarily affects females
B)dominant disorder that primarily affects males
C)recessive disorder that primarily affects females
D)recessive disorder that primarily affects males
Q3) Polycythemia vera is most commonly seen in _____.
A)older men
B)older women
C)younger men
D)younger women
Q4) _____, or white blood cells, include neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes.
Q5) Thalassemias are the most common genetic disorder in the world.
A)True
B)False
9
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Chapter 8: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally, two distinct diseases fall into the category of COPD: _____.
A)asthma and tuberculosis
B)atelectasis and pneumothorax
C)emphysema and chronic bronchitis
D)pleuritis and cystic fibrosis
Q2) The main cause of COPD is tobacco use.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The etiology of asthma is idiopathic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Although caused by a virus, a complication of the flu can include bacterial pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Treatment for COPD includes _____ cessation.
Q6) _____, more commonly known as the flu, is an acute, highly contagious respiratory infection.
Q7) _____ is an inflammation of the voice box.
Q8) _____ is a condition of insufficient oxygenation of the tissues.
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Chapter 9: Diseases of the Gastrointestinal System
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pain of regional enteritis occurs in the _____ quadrant of the abdomen, where a tender mass may be felt.
A)lower left
B)lower right
C)upper left
D)upper right
Q2) Inflammation of the gallbladder is usually associated with _____.
A)dystentery
B)gallstones
C)hepatitis
D)kidney failure
Q3) The pain associated with cholecystitis occurs _____.
A)in the lower right quadrant of the abdomen
B)in the lower thoracic cavity
C)midline of the umbilicus
D)under the right rib cage
Q4) Polyps usually give no symptoms unless a malignancy develops.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Acute _____ is an inflammation of the lining of the stomach.
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Chapter 10: Diseases of the Urinary System
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urinary _____ is a common disorder characterized by the loss of bladder control to varying degrees.
Q2) Urinary tract infections are caused primarily by bacteria from the skin or colon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Renal cell carcinoma is a relatively common type of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused by an antigen-antibody reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) To prevent kidney stones, or their reoccurrence, _____.
A)fluid intake and dietary calcium should be increased
B)fluid intake and dietary calcium should be reduced
C)fluid intake should be increased and dietary calcium reduced
D)fluid intake should be reduced and dietary calcium increased
Q6) _____ incontinence is unexpected flow of urine that occurs with coughing, sneezing, laughing, or lifting.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Diseases and Disorders of the Reproductive System
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119 Verified Questions
119 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ are the primary cause of primary dysmenorrhea.
A)Estrogen
B)Luteinizing hormone
C)Progesterone
D)Prostaglandins
Q2) In older men, a common problem is enlargement of the prostate gland, known as benign prostatic _____.
Q3) _____ is inflammation of the epididymis.
Q4) The most important risk factor for cervical cancer is a _____ infection.
A)chlamydia
B)human papilloma virus
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Trichomonas vaginalis
Q5) _____ has a slow onset of signs and symptoms resembling acute bacterial prostatitis that wax and wane.
A)Acute bacterial prostatitis
B)Asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis
C)Chronic bacterial prostatitis
D)Chronic prostatitis
Q6) A _____ is the surgical removal of uterine fibroid tumors. Page 13
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Diseases of the Endocrine System
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The classic signs of _____ include fat accumulation behind the shoulders, known as a buffalo hump, and a round "moon-shaped" face.
A)Addison's disease
B)Cushing's syndrome
C)hypergonadism
D)myxedema
Q2) _____ is the most common form of hyperthyroidism.
A)Addison's disease
B)Graves' disease
C)Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D)Myedema
Q3) Pituitary dwarfism is due to inadequate secretion of _____ by the pituitary gland in children.
A)aldosterone
B)growth hormone
C)somatostatin
D)thyroxine
Q4) _____ is an enlargement of the thyroid gland.
Q5) Also called the _____, the pituitary is composed of an anterior and posterior lobe.
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Chapter 13: Diseases of the Nervous System and the Special Senses
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain is covered by three layers of tissue called the _____.
Q2) _____ is a central nervous system disorder characterized by abnormal electrical activity in the brain.
Q3) The _____ lobes interpret the meaning of incoming sensory signals that arrives from the opposite side of the body.
A)frontal
B)occipital
C)parietal
D)temporal
Q4) _____ is a condition of the buildup of CSF around the brain.
Q5) The signs and symptoms of Alzheimer's disease often begin with memory loss and confusion.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ is an inflammation of the brain, most often caused by a viral infection.
Q7) The botulism bacteria thrive in anaerobic conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q8) _____ is an acute inflammation of the first two meninges that cover the brain and spinal cord. Page 16
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Page 17
Chapter 14: Diseases and Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of conjunctivitis called inclusion conjunctivitis is usually transmitted during childbirth when a mother has a _____ infection.
A)bacterial urinary tract
B)chlamydia
C)herpes zoster
D)syphilis
Q2) Vitamin supplementation may help slow _____, but should only be done under a doctor's supervision.
A)cataracts
B)cerumen impaction
C)dry macular degeneration
D)glaucoma
Q3) Treatment for _____ may include hearing aids if the auditory nerve and cochlea remain functional.
A)Meniere's
B)otitis externa
C)otitis media
D)presbycusis
Q4) The middle ear begins at the _____ membrane (eardrum).
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Chapter 15: Mental Illness and Cognitive Disorders
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who is very distrustful and suspicious of others may have _____ personality disorder.
A)dependant
B)narcissistic
C)paranoid
D)schizotypal
Q2) _____ is an intense fear and anxiety of any place or situation where escape might be difficult.
Q3) With _____ anxiety disorder, the anxiety is a result of fear of being watched, judged, and criticized by others.
A)obsessive-compulsive B)panic
C)posttraumatic D)social
Q4) A person with _____ personality disorder is a loner who prefers solitary activities and is often distant, detached, or indifferent to social relationships.
Q5) Men are 75% more likely to have binge eating disorders than women. A)True B)False
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Chapter 16: Diseases and Disorders of the Musculoskeletal System
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bone's primary minerals are embedded in _____, bone's main protein.
Q2) A "whiplash" is a sprain in which the cervical ligaments and tissues are injured.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tuberculosis of the bone is rare and associated with untreated pulmonary tuberculosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All forms of muscular dystrophy are hereditary.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In Duchenne's MD, a cytoskeletal protein called _____ is missing.
Q6) Bone-forming cells are called _____.
A)osteoblasts
B)osteoclasts
C)osteocytes
D)osteomata
Q7) _____ is the softening or decalcification of bones in adults.
Q8) _____ is used to visualize the inside of a joint cavity, such as the knee. Page 20
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Page 21
Chapter 17: Diseases and Disorders of the Integumentary System
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbuncles consist of clusters of furuncles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Erysipelas and cellulitis infections usually appear on the trunk or back.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Skin cancer is the most common of all cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cause of folliculitis, furuncles, and carbuncles is usually the _____.
A)Herpes simplex virus
B)Human papilloma virus
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Trichophyton rubrum
Q5) Impetigo is an acute, highly contagious _____ skin infection that occurs mainly among infants and children.
A)bacterial
B)fungal
C)protozoan
D)viral
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